CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment Question Paper 2025 (Available):Download Solution with answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jul 17, 2025

The CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment Exam 2025 was conducted on 15 July (Tuesday) for 2.5 hours from 10:30 AM to 1:00 PM. CBSE Class 12th Compartment Question Paper 2025 for Biology along with the solution pdf is  available here.

The theory paper carries a total of 80 marks, and the internal assessment is for 20 marks, making the exam total out of 100 marks. The exam included key topics like Reproduction, Genetics and Evolution, Human Health and Disease, Biotechnology, Ecology, and Environment, which required a strong conceptual understanding and a thorough grasp of biological processes and terminology.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 2025 Question Papers With Solution Pdf

CBSE Class 12 Biology Compartment Question Paper 2025

CBSE Biology Compartment Question Paper 2025 Download PDF Check Solution
CBSE Board Class 12 2025 Biology Compartment Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Long ribbon-like pollen grains are seen in some:

  • (A) Aquatic plants
  • (B) Wind-pollinated grasses
  • (C) Gymnosperms
  • (D) Bird-pollinated flowers
Correct Answer: (A) Aquatic plants
View Solution

Question 2:

Estrogen is secreted by:

  • (A) Corpus luteum
  • (B) Membrane granulosa of Graafian follicle
  • (C) Pituitary gland
  • (D) Germinal epithelium
Correct Answer: (B) Membrane granulosa of Graafian follicle
View Solution

Question 3:

Amniocentesis is a technique that is used to:

  • (A) Determine any disease of the heart
  • (B) Determine any genetic disorder of the foetus
  • (C) Determine any disorder of the brain
  • (D) Detect any abnormality in the bone formation
Correct Answer: (B) Determine any genetic disorder of the foetus
View Solution

Question 4:

In humans, non-disjunction of the 21st pair of chromosomes leads to:

  • (A) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
  • (B) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
  • (C) Turner’s Syndrome
  • (D) Down’s Syndrome
Correct Answer: (D) Down’s Syndrome
View Solution

Question 5:

Which one of the following codons has dual function?

  • (A) AUG
  • (B) AUC
  • (C) ACU
  • (D) ACA
Correct Answer: (A) AUG
View Solution

Question 6:

Which one of the following options gives the correct temperature condition and the mixture of the gaseous components that were used by S.L. Miller in 1953 to prove abiogenesis of life?

  • (A) CH\textsubscript{4}, H\textsubscript{2}, NO\textsubscript{2} and water vapour at 1800°C
  • (B) CH\textsubscript{4}, H\textsubscript{2}, NH\textsubscript{3} and water vapour at 1800°C
  • (C) CO\textsubscript{2}, H\textsubscript{2}, NH\textsubscript{3} and water vapour at 800°C
  • (D) CH\textsubscript{4}, H\textsubscript{2}, NH\textsubscript{3} and water vapour at 800°C
Correct Answer: (B) CH\textsubscript{4}, H\textsubscript{2}, NH\textsubscript{3} and water vapour at 1800°C
View Solution

Question 7:

The mosquito-borne disease in humans causing chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is:

  • (A) Elephantiasis
  • (B) Ascariasis
  • (C) Ringworm
  • (D) Amoebiasis
Correct Answer: (A) Elephantiasis
View Solution

Question 8:

In plants, which one of the following helps in the absorption of phosphorus from soil?

  • (A) Glomus
  • (B) Rhizobium
  • (C) Frankia
  • (D) Anabaena
Correct Answer: (A) Glomus
View Solution

Question 9:

The most primitive ancestor of humans is:

  • (A) Homo habilis
  • (B) Australopithecus
  • (C) Ramapithecus
  • (D) Homo neanderthalensis
Correct Answer: (C) Ramapithecus
View Solution

Question 10:

The sequence that controls the copy number of linked DNA in the vector is termed:

  • (A) Selectable marker
  • (B) Ori site
  • (C) Palindromic sequence
  • (D) Recognition site
Correct Answer: (B) Ori site
View Solution

Question 11:

Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria producing them because:

  • (A) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
  • (B) Toxin is immature
  • (C) Toxin is inactive
  • (D) Bacteria encloses ‘toxin’ in a special capsule
Correct Answer: (C) Toxin is inactive
View Solution

Question 12:

The population interaction where one species is harmed and the other is unaffected is:

  • (A) Amensalism
  • (B) Commensalism
  • (C) Parasitism
  • (D) Predation
Correct Answer: (A) Amensalism
View Solution

Question 13:

Assertion (A): Periodic abstinence is a method in which couples avoid coitus from day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle.

Reason (R): Periodic abstinence has limited effectiveness because menstrual cycles are not always regular.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 14:

Assertion (A): \textit{Streptococcus pneumoniae and \textit{Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for causing infectious diseases in human beings.

Reason (R): A healthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person.

Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 15:

Assertion (A): Biotechnology produces transgenic micro-organisms that act as microfactories for proteins.

Reason (R): To produce proteins for human use like insulin, transgenic microorganisms can be developed.

Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 16:

Assertion (A): Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.

Reason (R): Rate of synthesis of organic matter by consumers is known as secondary productivity.

Correct Answer: (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
View Solution

Question 17:

The mosquito-borne disease in humans causing chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is:

  • (A) Elephantiasis
  • (B) Ascariasis
  • (C) Ringworm
  • (D) Amoebiasis
Correct Answer: (A) Elephantiasis
View Solution

Question 18:

In which of the following plants are both male and female flowers born on the same plant and the mode of pollination can be geitonogamy or xenogamy?

  • (A) Papaya
  • (B) Date Palm
  • (C) Maize
  • (D) Spinach
Correct Answer: (C) Maize
View Solution

Question 19:

Which one of the following hormones is secreted by the human placenta that helps in the maintenance of pregnancy?

  • (A) Relaxin
  • (B) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
  • (C) Oxytocin
  • (D) Human Placental Lactogen
Correct Answer: (D) Human Placental Lactogen
View Solution

Question 20:

The periodic abstinence by a couple for family planning should be from:

  • (A) Day 5 to 10 of menstrual cycle
  • (B) Day 13 to 15 of menstrual cycle
  • (C) Day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle
  • (D) Day 16 to 20 of menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: (C) Day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle
View Solution

Question 21:

Select the \textit{incorrect match from the following:

  • (A) 45 + XX — Broad palm with characteristic palm crease
  • (B) 44 + XXY — Overall feminine development
  • (C) 44 + XO — Sterile females as ovaries are rudimentary
  • (D) 44 + XY — Normal male
Correct Answer: (A) 45 + XX — Broad palm with characteristic palm crease
View Solution

Question 22:

You know that there are twenty different types of naturally occurring amino acids and four different types of bases in the DNA. A combination of 3 such bases code for a specific amino acid. If instead there are 96 different amino acids and 12 different bases in the DNA, then the minimum number of combination of bases required to form a codon is:

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution

Question 23:

The type of bond represented by the dotted line ‘------’ in a schematic polynucleotide chain is:

  • (A) Hydrogen bond
  • (B) Peptide bond
  • (C) N-glycosidic linkage
  • (D) Phosphodiester bond
Correct Answer: (C) N-glycosidic linkage
View Solution

Question 24:

In which of the following conditions/diseases is there a substantial increase in the activity of mast cells observed in the human body?

  • (A) Typhoid
  • (B) Allergy
  • (C) Ascariasis
  • (D) AIDS
Correct Answer: (B) Allergy
View Solution

Question 25:

\textit{Lactobacillus that sets milk into curd is categorised as:

  • (A) Cyanobacteria
  • (B) Archaebacteria
  • (C) Chemosynthetic bacteria
  • (D) Heterotrophic bacteria
Correct Answer: (D) Heterotrophic bacteria
View Solution

Question 26:

Which one of the following transgenic animals is being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine?

  • (A) Sheep
  • (B) Goat
  • (C) Pig
  • (D) Mice
Correct Answer: (D) Mice
View Solution

Question 27:

Restriction Endonuclease – Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of:

  • (A) Six base pairs
  • (B) Four base pairs
  • (C) Seven base pairs
  • (D) Three base pairs
Correct Answer: (A) Six base pairs
View Solution

Question 28:

Which scientist proposed that "embryo never pass through the adult stages of other animals"?

  • (A) Alfred Wallace
  • (B) Thomas Malthus
  • (C) Karl Ernst von Baer
  • (D) Ernst Haeckel
Correct Answer: (C) Karl Ernst von Baer
View Solution

Question 29:

The flows of genetic information in central dogma are in which direction?

  • (A) Protein → RNA → DNA
  • (B) RNA → DNA → Protein
  • (C) DNA → Protein → RNA
  • (D) DNA → RNA → Protein
Correct Answer: (D) DNA → RNA → Protein
View Solution

Question 30:

Which scientist proposed that “embryo never pass through the adult stages of other animals”?

  • (A) Alfred Wallace
  • (B) Thomas Malthus
  • (C) Karl Ernst von Baer
  • (D) Ernst Haeckel
Correct Answer: (C) Karl Ernst von Baer
View Solution

Question 31:

They are useful to get rid of aphids.

  • (A) Lady bird
  • (B) Baculovirus
  • (C) Dragonfly
  • (D) Trichoderma
Correct Answer: (A) Lady bird
View Solution

Question 32:

What is the correct name of AI technique in assisted reproductive technologies?

  • (A) Artificial Injection
  • (B) Assisted Insemination
  • (C) Artificial Insemination
  • (D) Artificial Intelligence
Correct Answer: (C) Artificial Insemination
View Solution

Question 33:

Genes which control \(\alpha\)-Thalassemia and \(\beta\)-Thalassemia are present on which number of chromosomes?

  • (A) On 16 \& on 21
  • (B) On 21 \& on 11
  • (C) On 16 \& on 11
  • (D) On 11 \& on 16
Correct Answer: (C) On 16 \& on 11
View Solution

Question 34:

Distance between two consecutive base pairs of DNA is \rule{2cm{0.1mm

  • (A) 34 nm
  • (B) 0.34 nm
  • (C) 0.34 \(\times\) 10\(^{-9}\) m
  • (D) both B \& C
Correct Answer: (D) both B \& C
View Solution

Question 35:

In a family tree of dinosaurs, which dinosaur was about 20 feet in height \& had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth?

  • (A) Triceratops
  • (B) Tyrannosaurus
  • (C) Pteranodon
  • (D) Stegosaurus
Correct Answer: (B) Tyrannosaurus
View Solution

Question 36:

If a person is positive in Widal test, then that person is infected by which pathogen?

  • (A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (B) Plasmodium falciparum
  • (C) Salmonella typhi
  • (D) Entamoeba histolytica
Correct Answer: (C) Salmonella typhi
View Solution

Question 37:

Which chemical is obtained from microorganism \textit{Aspergillus niger?

  • (A) Lactic acid
  • (B) Acetic acid
  • (C) Butyric acid
  • (D) Citric acid
Correct Answer: (D) Citric acid
View Solution

Question 38:

The first r-DNA was constructed in which microorganism?

  • (A) E. coli
  • (B) Salmonella typhimurium
  • (C) Vibrio cholera
  • (D) Staphylococci
Correct Answer: (A) \textit{E. coli}
View Solution

Question 39:

Who proposed the competitive exclusion principle?

  • (A) G. F. Gause
  • (B) Von Humboldt
  • (C) Mac Arthur
  • (D) Verhulst - pearl
Correct Answer: (A) G. F. Gause
View Solution

Question 40:

How many billion tons productivity of oceans?

  • (A) 55
  • (B) 70
  • (C) 155
  • (D) 170
Correct Answer: (A) 55
View Solution

Question 41:

How many number of biodiversity hotspots in the world right now?

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 34
Correct Answer: (D) 34
View Solution

Question 42:

Assertion (A): Apple is false fruit.

Reason (R): Thalamus also contributes to fruit formation in apple.

  • (A) A \& R both are correct. R is correct explanation of A.
  • (B) A is correct \& R is wrong.
  • (C) A \& R both are correct. R is not correct explanation of A.
  • (D) A is wrong \& R is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) A \& R both are correct. R is correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 43:

Which one is not determined in the developing foetus by using amniocentesis?

  • (A) Sex determination of foetus
  • (B) Hepatitis
  • (C) Survivability of the foetus
  • (D) Haemophilia
Correct Answer: (B) Hepatitis
View Solution

Question 44:

If a colour-blind woman marries a person whose mother is colour-blind, then what is the probability of colour blindness in their offspring?

  • (A) 50%
  • (B) 100%
  • (C) 25%
  • (D) 75%
Correct Answer: (B) 100%
View Solution

Difficulty Level of CBSE Compartment Exam 2025 (Expected)

The CBSE Class 12 Compartment Exam 2025 is expected to be a bit easier than the 2024 exam. Most questions will probably be from key concepts and can be easier to understand and solve.

Aspet Compartment Exam 2024 Compartment Exam 2025 (Expected)
Overall Difficulty Level Moderate Moderate to Slightly Easy
1-mark & 2-mark Questions Mostly Easy and Direct Expected to be Easy and Concept-Based
3-mark Questions Mixed – Some were straightforward, some tricky Expected to be Conceptual but Manageable
4-mark Questions Slightly Challenging, Required Deeper Understanding May Include Application-Based but Familiar Questions

Common Mistakes To Avoid In CBSE Compartment Exam 2025

CBSE CLASS XII Questions

  • 1.

    1. Perform a cross between two sickle cell carriers. What ratio is obtained between carrier, disease free and diseased individuals in F1 progeny? Name the nitrogenous base substituted, in the haemoglobin molecule in this disease.
    2. Explain the difference in inheritance pattern of flower colour in garden pea plant and snap-dragon plant with the help of monohybrid crosses.
    OR,
    Explain with the help of well-labelled diagrams how lac operon operates in E. coli :
    1. In presence of an inducer.
    2. In absence of an inducer.


      • 2.

        Answer the following questions:
        1. State what do you understand by “MALT”? Where is it located inside our body?
        2. Explain cytokine barriers.
        3. Name the diagnostic test for AIDS. On what principle does it work?
        4. Bone marrow and thymus play an important role in human immune system. Explain how are they able to achieve this.


          • 3.

            Study a part of life cycle of Plasmodium given below:

            Answer the following questions:
            (a) Name the infective stage of Plasmodium that is stored in the female Anopheles mosquito. 
            (b) Where does fertilization and development of parasite take place? 
            (c) Identify labels P and Q in the given diagram. 
            (d) Asexual and sexual phase of the life cycle of the Plasmodium takes place in two different hosts. Write their names.


              • 4.
                List two reasons that make copper releasing IUDs as effective contraceptives.


                  • 5.

                    Study the graphs given below for Case 1 and Case 2 showing different levels of certain hormones and answer the question that follows:

                    (a) Which hormone is responsible for the peak observed in Case 1 and Case 2? Write one function of that hormone.
                    (b) Write changes that take place in the ovary and uterus during follicular phase. 
                    Student to attempt either sub-part (c) or (d): 
                    (c) Name the hormone Q of Case 2. Write one function of hormone Q. 
                     OR 
                    (d) Which structure in the ovary will remain functional in Case 2? How is it formed?


                      • 6.
                        Explain the basis on which gel electrophoresis technique works. Write any two ways the products obtained through this technique can be utilised.

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