The CUET 2025 exam is conducted from 13th May to 3rd June. The CUET Political Science Question Paper 2025 along with the Answer Key and Solution PDF will be made available after the examination.
As per the exam pattern, the CUET Political Science exam includes 50 questions carrying a total of 250 marks, to be completed within 60 minutes. Each correct answer is awarded 5 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for each incorrect response.
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CUET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF
CUET Political Science Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key
CUET 2025 Political Science Question Paper with Solutions
Question 1:
Which among the following was not a challenge to nationhood in the immediate post-Independence India?
- (A) To shape an united nation that was accommodative of the diversity in India
- (B) To restructure its economy through structural adjustment programme
- (C) To develop democratic practices in accordance with the Constitution
- (D) To evolve policies that address economic development and eradication of poverty
Question 2:
Which of the following statements are correct about the problems of the Partition of India?
- (A) There was no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India.
- (B) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan of North Eastern Frontier Province opposed the two nation theory.
- (C) There were areas in Bengal and Punjab provinces in British India where non-Muslims were in majority.
- (D) Minorities on both sides of the border suffered violence due to Partition.
Question 3:
Which of the following part of the Indian Constitution is related to the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- (A) Part III in the Indian Constitution
- (B) Part IV in the Indian Constitution
- (C) Part V in the Indian Constitution
- (D) Part VI in the Indian Constitution
Question 4:
The first general elections was held in India between:
- (A) 1951-1952
- (B) 1952-1953
- (C) 1953-1954
- (D) 1954-1955
Question 5:
How many women were not recorded in the first draft of the electoral rolls?
- (A) 10 lakh
- (B) 20 lakh
- (C) 30 lakh
- (D) 40 lakh
Question 6:
Which political leader did not participate in any of the Independence Day Celebrations on the 15th August, 1947?
- (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
- (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- (D) M.K. Gandhi
Question 7:
Which initiative was launched by the government between 1987 and 1991 that involved campaigns for development?
- (A) Development Outcome Programme
- (B) Kamraj Plan
- (C) New Democratic Initiative
- (D) Socialist pattern of society
Question 8:
Operation Flood deals with:
- (A) Nationwide Milk Grid
- (B) Flood Management in Bihar
- (C) Increasing Wheat Production in Punjab and Haryana
- (D) Investigating flood crisis in lower Assam
Question 9:
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
- (A) Article 51
- (B) Article 21
- (C) Article 25
- (D) Article 44
Question 10:
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
- (A) Article 51
- (B) Article 21
- (C) Article 25
- (D) Article 44
Question 11:
Which country India signed a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971?
- (A) China
- (B) Pakistan
- (C) Soviet Union
- (D) Bangladesh
Question 12:
Which of the following statements is/are not true about privy purse?
- (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
- (B) (B) and (C) only
- (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
- (D) (D) only
Question 13:
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
- (A) DMK was formed
- (B) Indira Gandhi got the Congress Working Committee adopt a Ten Point Programme.
- (C) K. Kamraj proposed that all Congressmen should resign from office.
- (D) The fifth general election to Lok Sabha were held.
Question 14:
The DMK came to power for the first time in state elections because-
- (A) It demanded President's rule in Andhra Pradesh
- (B) It was against frequent floor-crossing of legislators
- (C) It led an anti-Hindi agitation against the centre
- (D) It supported the Congress Syndicate to form coalition government in Tamil Nadu
Question 15:
When was the Department of Defence Supplies established?
- (A) 1962
- (B) 1965
- (C) 1968
- (D) 1974
Question 16:
Match List-I with List-II
- (A) Gujarat Movement
- (B) Bihar Movement
- (C) Assam Movement
- (D) Railway Strike
- (I) May 1974
- (II) 1979
- (III) March 1974
- (IV) January 1974
Question 17:
In which of the following movements was the slogan- 'Vadakku Vaazhkiradhu; Therkku Thaekiradhu' (The north thrives even as the south decays) used?
- (A) Gujarat movement
- (B) Anna movement
- (C) Assam movement
- (D) Dravidian movement
Question 18:
Who among the following started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925?
- (A) E.V. Ramasami Naicker
- (B) Kashiram
- (C) B. R. Ambedkar
- (D) Jyotiba Phule
Question 19:
Which of the following statements are correct about elections in India?
- (A) The Congress Party won more seats in the Lok Sabha in 1989 elections than in 1984 elections.
- (B) The 1991 Lok Sabha elections marked the end of the 'Congress system'.
- (C) The Lok Sabha elections in 1989 led to the defeat of the Congress party but did not result in a majority for any other party.
- (D) In 1989 the National Front formed a coalition government at the centre.
Question 20:
Under which provision of the Indian Constitution, Kashmir was given a special status?
- (A) Article 324
- (B) Article 364
- (C) Article 370
- (D) Article 375
Question 21:
In which year did the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) lead an anti-foreigner movement?
- (A) 1979
- (B) 1978
- (C) 1976
- (D) 1977
Question 22:
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
- (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
- (B) (B), (C), (A), (D)
- (C) (A), (D), (B), (C)
- (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Question 23:
The Shah Bano case dealt with-
- (A) Post-partition rehabilitation of Muslims
- (B) Maintenance of a Muslim woman from her husband
- (C) Wakf Board
- (D) Triple Talaq
Question 24:
The fall of the Berlin Wall symbolises which of the following events in International Politics?
- (A) Disintegration of Germany
- (B) Unification of Germany
- (C) Beginning of Cold War
- (D) Collapse of the Second World
Question 25:
Arrange the events in chronological order:
- (A) China occupies Aksai-Chin area
- (B) Full diplomatic relations were restored between India and China
- (C) Atal Behari Vajpayee the first top level leader to visit China
- (D) China's massive invasion
- (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
- (B) (B), (C), (A), (D)
- (C) (A), (D), (B), (C)
- (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Question 26:
Arrange the following events related to disintegration of the Soviet Union in chronological order:
- (A) Boris Yeltsin is appointed as the head of the Communist Party in Moscow.
- (B) Soviet Union declares that the Warsaw Pact members are free to decide their own future.
- (C) Boris Yeltsin becomes the President of Russia.
- (D) The Commonwealth of Independent States is established.
- (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
- (B) (B), (A), (C), (D)
- (C) (C), (A), (B), (D)
- (D) (R), (C), (A), (D)
Question 27:
Which country's development into an economic power is known as the "Miracle on the Han River"?
- (A) Japan
- (B) China
- (C) South Korea
- (D) Indonesia
Question 28:
Which Treaty was resisted by Denmark and Sweden as an Euro-skeptic response to European Union's integrationist agenda?
- (A) Bangkok Declaration
- (B) Maastricht Treaty
- (C) Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty
- (D) Warsaw Pact
Question 29:
In which of the following year did India and Pakistan sign the Shimla Agreement?
- (A) July 1966
- (B) July 1972
- (C) July 1976
- (D) July 1987
Question 30:
In which year did India and Bangladesh sign the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga water?
- (A) 1985
- (B) 1988
- (C) 1991
- (D) 1996
Question 31:
The olive branches in the emblem of the United Nations' logo signifies:
- (A) Security
- (B) Reform
- (C) World peace
- (D) Human rights
Question 32:
The WTO was set up in 1995 as the successor to which of the following organization?
- (A) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT)
- (B) League of Nations
- (C) United Nations
- (D) Amnesty International
Question 33:
Match List-I with List-II
![]()
- (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
- (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
- (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
- (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Question 34:
The Vajpayee-Musharraf Summit in 2001 was held in-
- (A) Agra
- (B) Lahore
- (C) Delhi
- (D) Islamabad
Question 35:
Match List-I with List-II:
![]()
- (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
- (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
- (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
- (D) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Question 36:
Limits to Growth focuses on which of the following Environmental Concerns?
- (A) Depletion of the Earth's resources
- (B) Depletion of Ozone Layer
- (C) Coastal Pollution
- (D) Water Pollution
Question 37:
Which of the following regions are subject to special regional rules of Environmental Protection?
- (A) Argentina
- (B) Australia
- (C) France
- (D) The Antarctic and the Arctic polar regions
Question 38:
Which one of the following international institutions plays an important role in determining economic policies across the world?
- (A) IMF
- (B) IAEA
- (C) Amnesty International
- (D) Human Rights Watch
Question 39:
Which among the following statements are correct about the impact of Globalisation?
- (A) Globalisation results in erosion of state capacity.
- (B) It means erosion in the ability of the government to do what they do.
- (C) All over the world, the old 'welfare state' is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions.
- (D) In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
- (A) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
- (B) (C), (B) and (D) only
- (C) (A), (D) and (C) only
- (D) (B), (A) and (D) only
Question 40:
'McDonaldisation' is the result of which one of the following?
- (A) Political consequence of globalisation
- (B) Economic consequence of globalisation
- (C) Cultural consequence of globalisation
- (D) Resistance to globalisation
Question 41:
In which year Nepal became a democratic republic after abolishing monarchy?
- (A) 2004
- (B) 2015
- (C) 2008
- (D) 2010
Question 42:
Which among the following statements is not correct about the nature of state and society in Nepal?
- (A) Nepal was a Buddhist Kingdom in the past.
- (B) The king retained full control over the government with the help of the army.
- (C) The Maoists of Nepal were successful in spreading their influence in Nepal.
- (D) There was a triangular conflict among the monarchist forces, the democrats and the Maoists in Nepal.
Question 43:
In which year the King of Nepal accepted the demand for New Democratic Constitution?
- (A) 1999
- (B) 1990
- (C) 1992
- (D) 1993
Question 44:
What is the name of the famous activist in the above picture?
- (A) Nahar Thapa
- (B) Durga Thapa
- (C) Renuka Kani
- (D) Tima Koni
Question 45:
The non-violent movement to restore democracy in Nepal was led by-
- (A) Socialist Democratic Alliance
- (B) Pro-Democracy Initiative
- (C) All Nepal Democratic Party
- (D) Seven Party Alliance
Question 46:
Which of the following community was in the minority in Sri Lanka?
- (A) Sinhala
- (B) Tamils
- (C) Indigenous
- (D) Rohingyas
Question 47:
What was the earlier name of Sri Lanka?
- (A) Rangoon
- (B) Ceylon
- (C) Shatagu
- (D) Shahbajgadhi
Question 48:
What was the demand of Tamilians to Sri Lanka's government?
- (A) Right to Vote
- (B) Right to contest in general elections
- (C) "Tamil Eelam" or a separate country for the Tamilians.
- (D) Establishment of Democracy
Question 49:
Choose the correct answers from the statements given below-
- (A) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils.
- (B) In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective.
- (C) The LTTE was vanquished in 2009.
- (D) Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in 1947.
- (A) Only (A) and (B) are correct.
- (B) Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
- (C) Only (A), (B) and (D) are correct.
- (D) Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct.
Question 50:
In which year IPKF (Indian Peace Keeping Force) was pulled out from Sri Lanka?
- (A) 1987
- (B) 1989
- (C) 1985
- (D) 1984
CUET Political Science Syllabus Overview
The CUET Political Science Syllabus is structured around important political concepts, ideologies, and global developments, including:
- Political Theory: Liberty, Equality, Rights, Justice, Democracy
- Indian Government and Politics: Constitution, Federalism, Judiciary, Parliament, Political Parties
- Comparative Politics: Forms of Government, Electoral Systems, Political Institutions
- International Relations: United Nations, Globalization, International Organizations, World Politics
- Contemporary Global Issues: Human Rights, Environmental Politics, Global Terrorism
CUET Political Science Exam Analysis
The CUET Political Science in prior year exams included 50 questions, with only 40 being mandatory. However, the 2025 edition mandates that students attempt all 50 questions within the 60-minute timeframe, reflecting changes in the exam structure.
The expected difficulty level for the 2025 Political Science exam is projected to be Moderate to Difficult, which could impact the CUET Political Science Cutoff 2025.
Check CUET Cutoff 2025 (Expected)
| Year |
Difficulty Level |
Duration |
Total Questions |
Attempted Questions |
Key Topics Covered |
| 2025 (Expected) |
Moderate to Difficult |
60 mins |
50 |
50 |
Indian Constitution, Political Theory, International Relations, Global Politics |
| 2024 |
Moderate |
60 mins |
50 |
40 |
Fundamental Rights, Federalism, UN & International Organizations, Human Rights |
| 2023 |
Moderate |
45 mins |
50 |
40 |
Indian Parliament, Judiciary, Political Ideologies, World Politics |
| 2022 |
Easy to Moderate |
60 mins |
50 |
40 |
Democracy, Electoral Systems, Globalization, Political Movements |
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