CUET 2026 May 26 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper is available for download here. NTA is conducting the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.

  • CUET 2026 Chemistry exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
  • As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 26 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

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CUET 2026 Chemistry May 26 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CUET May 26 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

Given below are two statements :

Given: Molar masses of C, H, O, Cl are 12, 1, 16 and 35.5 g mol\(^{-1}\) respectively.

Statement I: In 30%(w/w) solution of methanol in \( \mathrm{CCl_4} \) (at T K), the mole fraction of \( \mathrm{CCl_4} \) is equal to \(0.33\).

Statement II: Mixture of methanol and \( \mathrm{CCl_4} \) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 2:

Which statements are True?

A. In Hoffmann bromamide degradation, 4 moles of NaOH and 2 moles of \( \mathrm{Br_2} \) are consumed per mole of an amide.

B. Hoffmann bromamide reaction is not given by alkyl amides.

C. Primary amines can be synthesized by Hoffmann bromamide degradation.

D. Secondary amide on reaction with \( \mathrm{Br_2} \) and NaOH will give secondary amine.

E. The by-products of Hoffmann degradation are \( \mathrm{Na_2CO_3} \), \( \mathrm{NaBr} \) and \( \mathrm{H_2O} \).

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C and E only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) C and E only
  • (4) C, D and E only

Question 3:

The incorrect statement from the following with respect to carbohydrates is :

  • (1) All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.
  • (2) The monosaccharide units obtained from hydrolysis of oligosaccharides are always the same.
  • (3) Starch and cellulose are typical examples of polysaccharides, which are very high molecular weight compounds of more than ten monosaccharide units.
  • (4) Open chain and cyclic structures co-exist at equilibrium that are responsible for certain properties as in the case of D-(+)-glucose.

Question 4:

An organic compound (P) on treatment with aqueous ammonia under hot condition forms compound (Q) which on heating with \( \mathrm{Br_2} \) and KOH forms compound (R) having molecular formula \( \mathrm{C_6H_7N} \). Name P, Q and R respectively are :

  • (1) Benzoic acid, benzamide, aniline
  • (2) Toluic acid, methylbenzamide, 2-methylaniline
  • (3) Benzoic acid, 4-methylbenzamide, 4-methylaniline
  • (4) Phenylethanoic acid, phenylethanamide, benzamine

Question 5:

An organic compound \(P\) of molecular formula \( \mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_3} \) gives positive iodoform test but negative Tollens’ test. When \(P\) is treated with dilute acid, it produces \(Q\). \(Q\) gives positive Tollens’ test and also iodoform test. Identify compound \(P\).

  • (1) \( \mathrm{CH_3COCH(OCH_3)CH_2OCH_3} \)
  • (2) \( \mathrm{CH_3COCH_2CH(OCH_3)_2} \)
  • (3) \( \mathrm{HCOCH_2CH_2CH(OCH_3)_2} \)
  • (4) \( \mathrm{CH_3COC(OCH_3)_2CH_3} \)

Question 6:

\( \mathrm{MnO_4^{2-}} \) in acidic medium disproportionates to :

  • (1) \( \mathrm{Mn_2O_7} \) and \( \mathrm{MnO_2} \)
  • (2) \( \mathrm{MnO_4^-} \) and \( \mathrm{MnO} \)
  • (3) \( \mathrm{MnO_4^-} \) and \( \mathrm{MnO_2} \)
  • (4) \( \mathrm{Mn_2O_7} \) and \( \mathrm{MnO} \)

Question 7:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Among \[ [\mathrm{Cu(NH_3)_4}]^{2+}, [\mathrm{NiO_3}]^{2+}, [\mathrm{Ni(NH_3)_6}]^{2+} and [\mathrm{Mn(H_2O)_6}]^{2+}, \] \( [\mathrm{Mn(H_2O)_6}]^{2+} \) has the maximum number of unpaired electrons.

Statement II: The number of pairs among \[ [\mathrm{NiCl_4}]^{2-},\ [\mathrm{NiO_4}]^{2-} \]
and \[ [\mathrm{NiO_4}],\ [\mathrm{O_4}]^{2-} \]
that contain only diamagnetic species is two.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 8:

Identify the correct statements.

A.  Arginine and Tryptophan are essential amino acids.
B. Histidine does not contain heterocyclic ring in its structure.
C. Proline is a six membered cyclic ring amino acid.
D. Glycine does not have chiral centre.
E. Cysteine has characteristic feature of side chain as \( \mathrm{MeS-CH_2-CH_2-} \)

  • (A) C and E Only
  • (B) B and E Only
  • (C) C and D Only
  • (D) A and D Only

Question 9:

The correct statements are:

A. Activation energy for enzyme catalysed hydrolysis of sucrose is lower than that of acid catalysed hydrolysis.
B. During denaturation, secondary and tertiary structures of a protein are destroyed but primary structure remains intact.
C. Nucleotides are joined together by glycosidic linkage between \( C_1 \) and \( C_4 \) carbons of the pentose sugar.
D. Quaternary structure of proteins represents overall folding of the polypeptide chain.

  • (A) A, C and D Only
  • (B) A, B and D Only
  • (C) A and B Only
  • (D) B and C Only

Question 10:

{The correct order of the rate of the reaction for the following reaction with respect to nucleophiles is:
\[ \mathrm{CH_3Br + Nu^- \rightarrow CH_3Nu + Br^-} \]

  • (A) \( \mathrm{PhO^- > OH^- > CH_3COO^- > ClO_4^-} \)
  • (B) \( \mathrm{ClO_4^- > CH_3COO^- > OH^- > PhO^-} \)
  • (C) \( \mathrm{CH_3COO^- > PhO^- > OH^- > ClO_4^-} \)
  • (D) \( \mathrm{OH^- > PhO^- > CH_3COO^- > ClO_4^-} \)

CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Name Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026
Conducting Body National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Mode Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Exam Duration 60 minutes per test
Total Sections 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Questions per Test 50 questions (all compulsory)
Marking Scheme +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect
Maximum Marks 250 marks per test
Maximum Subject Choices 5 subjects in total
Syllabus Base Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects)

CUET UG 2026 Paper Analysis