CUET UG Home Science 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a voluntary certification scheme in India for agricultural products aimed at consumer health and safety.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each option:


AGMARK: Stands for Agricultural Mark. It is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of grade standards. The AGMARK is legally enforced by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937. While mandatory for some export products, it is a voluntary scheme for most products sold on the domestic market. It certifies the quality and purity of agricultural goods.

FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India): This is India's primary food regulatory body. Obtaining an FSSAI license is mandatory for most food business operators. It is a regulatory license, not a voluntary certification scheme.

ISI (Indian Standards Institution): This mark certifies that industrial products conform to Indian standards. It is managed by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). It is not primarily for agricultural products.

CAC (Codex Alimentarius Commission): This is an international body that develops food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice. It sets international benchmarks but is not a direct certification scheme for products within India.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the analysis, AGMARK is the voluntary certification scheme for agricultural products in India.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: FSSAI is a mandatory license for food safety, while AGMARK is a voluntary certification for agricultural quality and grading.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the best description of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) in the context of food production.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Option (1) describes Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP), a specific system for identifying and controlling food safety hazards.

Option (2) correctly describes the core purpose of GMP. GMP is a system of procedures and documentation to ensure that products are consistently produced and controlled according to quality standards. It covers all aspects of production, including materials, facilities, equipment, and personal hygiene, with the primary goal of preventing contamination and ensuring product safety and integrity.

Option (3) describes the mission of an international standards organization like the ISO (International Organization for Standardization).

Option (4) describes the role of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC).



Step 3: Final Answer:

GMP is fundamentally about the proactive, controlled processes put in place to ensure a safe and properly labeled product, making option (2) the most accurate description.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between food safety systems: GMP is the foundational set of operational conditions and procedures, while HACCP is a specific, systematic process to identify and control critical hazards built upon the foundation of GMP.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the term that best describes work which is intrinsically satisfying.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the different connotations of work:


Livelihood: Work viewed primarily as a means of earning money to support one's life. The satisfaction is external (the income).

Job: A specific set of tasks performed in exchange for pay. The focus is on the employment contract and remuneration.

Career: A long-term professional journey, often involving advancement, promotion, and increasing responsibility. The focus is on progress and achievement.

Calling: Work that a person feels deeply connected to and passionate about. The satisfaction comes from the work itself—its purpose, meaning, and the act of doing it. It is seen as an integral part of one's identity.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The phrase "deriving satisfaction from work itself" perfectly matches the definition of a calling, where the work is an end in itself, not just a means to an end.
Quick Tip: Think about the motivation for working: a job is for a paycheck, a career is for advancement, and a calling is for fulfillment.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the specific article and clause of the Indian Constitution that provides the fundamental right to equality of opportunity in public employment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Article 16 (1): This clause explicitly states, "There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State." This is the direct provision guaranteeing this right.

Article 22 (1): This article provides protection against arrest and detention. It is not related to employment.

Article 16 (4): This is an enabling provision that allows the State to make reservations for backward classes. It is an exception to the general rule of equality in Article 16(1), not the source of the general guarantee itself.

Article 20 (1): This article provides protection against ex post facto criminal laws. It is not related to employment.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Article 16(1) is the specific constitutional provision that guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Quick Tip: Remember that Article 14 provides a general right to equality, Article 15 prohibits discrimination on specific grounds, and Article 16 specifically deals with equality of opportunity in public employment.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the components of a comprehensive nutritional assessment. A standard and thorough assessment relies on multiple types of data to get a complete picture.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The universally accepted methods for a comprehensive nutritional assessment are often remembered by the mnemonic "ABCD":


(A) Anthropometric measurements: These are measurements of the physical dimensions of the body, such as height, weight, body mass index (BMI), skinfold thickness, and circumference of various body parts.

(B) Dietary assessment: This involves evaluating a person's food intake through methods like 24-hour dietary recall, food frequency questionnaires, or diet histories to assess nutrient consumption.

(C) Clinical examination: This is a physical examination by a healthcare professional to look for signs and symptoms of malnutrition, such as edema, hair loss, skin rashes, or changes in the eyes and nails.

(D) Biochemical laboratory analysis: This includes laboratory tests on samples of blood, urine, or tissues to measure levels of specific nutrients, their metabolites, or functions dependent on a nutrient (e.g., hemoglobin for iron status).


All four components are crucial for a complete and accurate assessment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A comprehensive nutritional assessment involves all four parameters: Anthropometric, Biochemical (listed as D), Clinical, and Dietary (listed as B). Therefore, the correct option includes (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: Use the "ABCD" mnemonic to remember the four pillars of nutritional assessment: Anthropometric, Biochemical, Clinical, and Dietary.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching examples of processed foods with their correct classification. The categories are specific and can sometimes overlap, so we must find the best or most defining fit for each example.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation and Matching:

Let's analyze each pair based on the most likely intended classification.


(B) Probiotics: These are foods containing live microorganisms intended to provide health benefits. This is the very definition of a (I) Functional food. This match is unambiguous. B -\(>\) I.

(A) Pickles, jam, marmalade, squashes: The primary purpose of making these products is to extend shelf life using high concentrations of salt, sugar, or acid. Therefore, their most defining category is (IV) Preserved foods. This match is very strong. A -\(>\) IV.




(D) Bread, biscuits, ice cream is matched with (III) Manufactured foods. This is a plausible classification. These items are created from raw materials through a complex industrial or manufacturing process, resulting in a product with a new form and structure.

(C) Frozen peas..., canned fruits... is matched with (II) Formulated foods. This is the most ambiguous pairing. "Formulated" usually implies a mixture of ingredients according to a recipe.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The combination with the strongest and most consistent matches is found in option (4):

(A) Pickles, jam -\(>\) (IV) Preserved foods
(B) Probiotics -\(>\) (I) Functional foods
(C) Frozen/canned vegetables -\(>\) (II) Formulated foods (by elimination)
(D) Bread, biscuits, ice cream -\(>\) (III) Manufactured foods

Thus, option (4) is the most logical choice.
Quick Tip: In matching questions with overlapping categories, identify the most specific and unambiguous pairs first (like Probiotics -\(>\) Functional Foods). Use these certain matches to eliminate incorrect options and deduce the intended logic for the more ambiguous pairs.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A complementary color scheme is based on two colors that are directly opposite each other on the color wheel. When placed next to each other, these colors create the strongest possible contrast and appear more vibrant.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the pairs based on a standard RYB (Red, Yellow, Blue) color wheel:


(A) Blue & Orange: Blue and Orange are directly opposite each other on the color wheel. This is a complementary pair.
(B) Red & Green: Red and Green are directly opposite each other on the color wheel. This is a complementary pair.
(C) Green & Yellow: Green and Yellow are adjacent to each other on the color wheel. This color scheme is called analogous, not complementary.
(D) Purple & Yellow: Purple (or Violet) and Yellow are directly opposite each other on the color wheel. This is a complementary pair.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The pairs that represent complementary color schemes are (A) Blue & Orange, (B) Red & Green, and (D) Purple & Yellow. Therefore, the correct option includes (A), (B), and (D) only.
Quick Tip: To easily remember the primary complementary pairs, think of common associations: Christmas colors (Red & Green), the colors of many sports teams (Blue & Orange), and royal/Easter colors (Purple & Yellow).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The fashion cycle describes the process of a style's acceptance and rejection by the public over time. It follows a predictable, bell-shaped curve pattern.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The stages of the fashion cycle occur in a logical progression:


% Option
(A) Introduction of a Style (C): A new fashion is introduced by designers. It is produced in small quantities and is usually expensive. This is the starting point.
% Option
(B) Rise in Popularity: The style is adopted by fashion leaders and influencers, gaining visibility and acceptance. (This stage is implied between C and B).
% Option
(C) Peak of Popularity (B): The fashion is at its most popular. It is widely accepted, mass-produced, and available at many price points. This is the culmination of its acceptance.
% Option
(D) Decline in Popularity (A): The market becomes saturated. Consumers grow tired of the style, and it begins to be seen as overused. Its popularity starts to wane.
% Option
(E) Obsolescence (or Rejection) (D): The style is no longer considered fashionable. Consumers have moved on to new styles, and retailers stop stocking it. This is the end of the cycle for that style.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence of the given stages is Introduction (C), followed by Peak (B), then Decline (A), and finally Obsolescence (D). This corresponds to the sequence (C), (B), (A), (D).
Quick Tip: Visualize the fashion cycle as a bell curve. The cycle starts at the bottom with the 'Introduction', rises to the 'Peak', and then falls through the 'Decline' until it hits the bottom again at 'Obsolescence'.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Quality of Work Life (QWL) is a management philosophy that focuses on enhancing the work environment to benefit both employees and the organization. It is a humanistic approach to management.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The QWL approach shifts the perspective of employees from being a cost or a factor of production to being a valuable resource. It emphasizes employee satisfaction, participation, growth, and well-being. In this context, employees are seen as contributing to the organization's success and value.


Liability, Debts, Burden: These are all negative terms implying a cost or a problem. This is contrary to the QWL philosophy.
Assets: An asset is a useful or valuable thing, person, or quality. Viewing employees as assets means recognizing their value, potential, and contribution to the organization's success. This aligns perfectly with the principles of QWL.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The QWL approach considers employees to be valuable Assets of the organization.
Quick Tip: Remember that modern human resource management theories, including QWL, emphasize the value of human capital. Therefore, positive terms like "assets" or "resources" are usually the correct answer when describing how employees are viewed in these frameworks.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that defines the rules of conduct for individuals, particularly within a professional group.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Values: These are personal or societal beliefs about what is good, right, and important. They are the foundation for ethics, but they are not the rules themselves.
Dignity of Labour: This is a principle that all types of jobs should be respected equally, and no occupation is considered superior. It's a value, not a set of rules.
Ethics: This is the precise term for a system of moral principles and rules of conduct that govern a person's behavior or the conducting of an activity. Professional ethics (e.g., medical ethics, legal ethics) are the standards that guide the members of a specific profession.
Assumptions: These are things that are accepted as true without proof. They are not rules of conduct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The rules or standards governing conduct, especially for a profession, are known as ethics.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between values and ethics: Values are the 'why' (what you believe is important), while ethics are the 'how' (how you should act based on those values).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Ergonomics is the science of designing and arranging workplaces, products, and systems so that they fit the people who use them. The goal is to improve safety, comfort, and efficiency. The question asks to identify a statement that is NOT a positive outcome of applying ergonomics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options as outcomes of good ergonomic design:


(1) Increases productivity: By making tasks easier and more comfortable, ergonomics allows workers to be more efficient and productive. This is a benefit.
(3) Decreases absenteeism: Ergonomics reduces the risk of work-related injuries and musculoskeletal disorders. Healthier employees take fewer sick days, thus decreasing absenteeism. This is a benefit.
(4) Reduces mistakes and need to do the work again: A well-designed workstation reduces fatigue and discomfort, allowing workers to maintain focus and make fewer errors. This improves quality and reduces rework. This is a benefit.
(2) Diminishes morale of workers: This statement suggests that ergonomics makes workers' morale worse. This is the opposite of the truth. A safe, comfortable, and efficient work environment shows that the employer cares for the well-being of its employees, which typically boosts morale.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Diminishing the morale of workers is a negative outcome and therefore is NOT a benefit of ergonomics.
Quick Tip: For "NOT" questions, read each option and ask yourself, "Is this a good thing or a bad thing in the context of the question?" Ergonomics leads to good outcomes, so the correct answer will be the negative statement.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a famous designer known for creating durable pants from heavy-duty canvas originally intended for other purposes like tents. While the term "cargo pants" is a modern term for a specific style, the core of the question relates to the origin of sturdy work pants.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Levi Strauss: During the California Gold Rush in the 1850s, Levi Strauss, a Bavarian immigrant, identified a need for strong, durable work trousers for miners. He used a heavy canvas fabric, known as duck canvas, which was also used for making tents and wagon covers, to create the first "waist overalls." These garments were the direct predecessors of the modern blue jeans. This history directly matches the description in the question.
(2) Isaac Singer: He was an inventor who made significant improvements to the design of the sewing machine and was the founder of the Singer Sewing Machine Company. He was not a clothing designer.
(3) Louis Vuitton: He was a French fashion designer and businessman famous for founding the luxury brand known for its luggage and leather goods.
(4) Coco Chanel: She was a pioneering French fashion designer known for revolutionizing womenswear with items like the "little black dress" and the Chanel suit.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Levi Strauss is the historical figure famous for using tent and wagon cover canvas to create durable work pants.
Quick Tip: Associate key designers with their most famous innovations: Levi Strauss with blue jeans, Isaac Singer with the sewing machine, Louis Vuitton with luxury luggage, and Coco Chanel with modern womenswear.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a defect that occurs specifically during the weaving process on a loom.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Slub: A slub is a thick, soft lump in a yarn. It is a yarn defect, not a weaving defect, although it will be visible in the woven fabric. Sometimes slubs are created intentionally for a textured effect.
(2) Colour run: This is a dyeing or finishing defect where dye bleeds from one area to another, typically during washing or wet processing. It does not occur during weaving.
(3) Chafe: This refers to damage on the fabric surface caused by rubbing or abrasion. While it can occur during weaving due to friction, it is a more general term for surface damage that can happen at any stage.
(4) Broken end: In weaving terminology, an "end" is a single warp thread. A broken end is a warp thread that has snapped on the loom during the weaving process. This stops the weaving and, if not repaired correctly, leaves a distinct flaw where a warp thread is missing for a certain length. This is a classic and direct defect of the weaving process itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A "Broken end" is unequivocally a defect that originates during the weaving process.
Quick Tip: To identify defects by process, think about where they occur. Yarn defects (like slubs) are in the thread itself. Weaving defects (like broken ends/picks) happen on the loom. Dyeing/Finishing defects (like color runs) happen during wet processing.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching different types of stains with the appropriate chemical agent for removal. Different stains require different chemical actions (e.g., solvents for greasy stains, alkalis for protein stains, bleaching for dye stains).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation and Matching:

Let's find the most definite matches first.


(C) Lipstick: Lipstick is a combination of wax, oil (grease), and pigments. It requires a solvent to dissolve it. (I) Methylated spirit is an excellent solvent for such stains. So, C -\(>\) I is a very strong match.
(A) Blood: Blood is a protein-based stain. For old, set-in bloodstains, a weak alkali is used to break down the protein. (III) Ammonia is a weak alkali commonly recommended for this purpose (after soaking in cold water). So, A -\(>\) III is a strong match.

With C-\(>\)I and A-\(>\)III, we can check the options. Only option (4) contains both of these pairings. Let's verify the remaining matches in option (4).

(B) Tea/Coffee: These are tannin stains. A mild alkali like (IV) Borax is a classic and effective home remedy for removing them. So, B -\(>\) IV is a correct match.
(D) Curry: Curry stains are primarily from turmeric, which is a potent natural dye. They often require a bleaching agent for complete removal, especially on light-colored fabrics. (II) Javelle water is a solution of sodium hypochlorite, a strong bleach. So, D -\(>\) II is a plausible match for treating stubborn curry stains on suitable materials (like white cotton).


Step 3: Final Answer:

All the pairings in option (4) are correct and logical for stain removal. The correct sequence is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).
Quick Tip: For stain removal questions, categorize the stain first: is it greasy (lipstick), protein-based (blood), tannin (tea), or dye (curry)? Then match it to the agent's function: solvent, alkali, acid, or bleach.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the given functions of management in their logical sequence of implementation. These functions are based on the classical principles of management.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The standard sequence of management functions is as follows:


% Option
(A) Planning (C): This is the primary function. It involves setting objectives, defining strategies, and outlining the tasks to achieve the goals. Everything else follows from the plan.
% Option
(B) Organizing: This involves arranging resources and tasks to carry out the plan. Part of organizing is determining the human resources needed, which leads to staffing.
% Option
(C) Staffing (B): Once the organizational structure and roles are planned, the next step is to recruit, select, train, and place the right people in those roles.
% Option
(D) Directing and Delegating (D): After the staff is in place, the manager's role is to lead, guide, motivate, and supervise them to execute the plan. This includes giving instructions and delegating tasks.
% Option
(E) Controlling: This involves monitoring performance against the plan and taking corrective action. Part of controlling is receiving feedback and data, which is done through reporting.
% Option
(F) Reporting (A): This is a component of the controlling function. It involves collecting information, evaluating performance, and communicating the results to stakeholders. It serves as a feedback loop for future planning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on this logical flow, the correct sequence of the given steps is Planning (C), Staffing (B), Directing and Delegating (D), and finally Reporting (A). This corresponds to option (3).
Quick Tip: Remember the management acronym POSDCORB: Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, COordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting. This classic framework will help you sequence management functions correctly.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct method to conserve a textile artifact from light damage. Light, especially its intensity, duration, and UV content, causes irreversible damage to textiles, leading to fading and weakening of fibers.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options from a conservation perspective:


(1) Expose the objects to light of high intensity: High-intensity light accelerates photochemical damage. This is the opposite of what a conservator would do.
(2) Minimize the intensity of light falling upon the object: This is a fundamental principle of preventive conservation. By reducing the light intensity (measured in lux), the rate of degradation is slowed significantly. Museums use low light levels in textile galleries for this very reason.
(3) Expose objects to light for longer period of time: Damage from light is cumulative. The longer the exposure, the more damage occurs. This is incorrect.
(4) Introduce photo-chemically active radiations from the light: Photo-chemically active radiations, such as Ultraviolet (UV) light, are the most damaging part of the light spectrum. Conservators use filters to remove UV radiation, not introduce it.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct and essential method for minimizing light damage is to minimize the intensity of the light.
Quick Tip: For textile conservation, remember the main environmental enemies are "the 4 L's": Light, Low/high humidity, Litter (pests/dust), and Larceny (theft). Minimizing light exposure is a top priority.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the specific washing action used by a front-loading washing machine. Different types of machines use different mechanisms to move the clothes through the water.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Spinning: This is the action used in all machines to extract water from the clothes after washing and rinsing by rotating the drum at high speed. It is not the primary washing action.
(2) Agitation: This method is characteristic of top-load washing machines with a central agitator (a finned post). The agitator twists back and forth, forcing the clothes through the water.
(3) Tumbling: This is the method used in front-load machines. The drum is oriented horizontally. It rotates, lifting the clothes up and then dropping them back into the wash water. This tumbling action provides the mechanical force to clean the clothes and is gentler than agitation.
(4) Pulsation: This method is used in many modern top-load machines that do not have a central agitator. A low-profile disc or plate at the bottom of the tub spins or pulses, creating strong water currents that move the clothes.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Front-load washing machines use the tumbling method for washing garments.
Quick Tip: Associate the washing action with the machine type: - Front Load -\(>\) Tumbling (horizontal drum) - Top Load (with post) -\(>\) Agitation - Top Load (without post) -\(>\) Pulsation or Impeller action

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the type of market segmentation based on the given criteria for a target market. Market segmentation is the process of dividing a broad consumer market into sub-groups based on shared characteristics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the given criteria: "female wage earners in the age group of 25-45 years".


female - This is segmentation by gender.
wage earners - This is segmentation by occupation or income level.
age group of 25-45 years - This is segmentation by age.

Now, let's look at the types of segmentation:


(1) Demographic Segmentation: This involves dividing the market based on statistical characteristics of a population, such as age, gender, income, occupation, education, marital status, and family size. The criteria used by the designer (gender, occupation/income, age) fall squarely into this category.
(2) Geographic Segmentation: This involves dividing the market based on location, such as country, city, or climate.
(3) Psychographic Segmentation: This involves dividing the market based on lifestyle, values, personality, and interests.
(4) Behavioural Segmentation: This involves dividing the market based on consumer behavior, such as purchasing habits, brand loyalty, and product usage.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Since the target market is defined by age, gender, and occupation, the type of segmentation used is Demographic Segmentation.
Quick Tip: Remember the key variables for each segmentation type: - Demographic: Who they are (age, gender, income). - Geographic: Where they are (location). - Psychographic: What they think (lifestyle, values). - Behavioural: How they act (buying habits).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to distinguish between the Elements of Design and the Principles of Design. Elements are the basic building blocks of a design, while Principles are the rules or guidelines for how to arrange those elements.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Elements of Design: These are the fundamental components used to create a visual composition. They include: Line, Shape/Form, Colour, Texture, Space, and Value.
Principles of Design: These are the ways in which the elements are organized. They include: Balance, Contrast, Emphasis, Movement, Pattern, Rhythm, and Unity/Harmony.

Now let's classify the given options:


(1) Texture: This is an Element of Design.
(2) Colour: This is an Element of Design.
(3) Form/Shape: This is an Element of Design.
(4) Balance: This is a Principle of Design. It refers to the distribution of visual weight in a composition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Balance is a Principle of Design, while the others are Elements of Design.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the difference: The Elements are the 'what' (the ingredients like color and line), and the Principles are the 'how' (the recipe or rules for arranging the ingredients, like balance and contrast).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a "natural" factor of deterioration, as opposed to factors that are primarily human-caused or accidental events.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Bad storage: This is a human factor, resulting from poor management, lack of resources, or negligence.
(2) Pests: Insects (like silverfish, moths), rodents, and mold are biological organisms that exist in nature. Their infestation and the damage they cause are considered a natural process of biodeterioration. While poor storage can encourage pests, the pests themselves are a natural factor.
(3) Accidents: Accidents, such as dropping an object, are typically caused by human error. They are not a continuous natural process.
(4) Fire: Fire can be caused by natural events like lightning, but in a museum context, it is far more likely to be caused by human factors like faulty wiring, arson, or accidents. It is generally classified as a catastrophic event rather than a continuous natural factor of deterioration like pests or light.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Among the given options, pests represent a biological and natural agent of deterioration.
Quick Tip: In museum conservation, causes of deterioration are often categorized. Differentiate between inherent vice (the object's own instability), natural/environmental factors (light, humidity, pests), and human-caused factors (poor handling, bad storage, accidents, fire, vandalism).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Development Communication is a specific field of communication that is systematically planned and used to promote social and economic development. The question asks to identify its key features from the given statements.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement in the context of Development Communication:


(B) It is oriented to socio-economic development and happiness of the people and community at large: This is the core purpose and definition of development communication. Its ultimate goal is to improve the quality of life. This is a key feature.
(C) It aims at giving information and educating the community: A primary function is to create awareness and educate people about new practices, opportunities, and social issues (e.g., health, agriculture, governance). This is a key feature.
(D) It combines suitable mass media and interpersonal communication channels for greater impact: Development communication uses a multi-channel approach, combining mass media (radio, TV, print) for wide reach with interpersonal channels (extension workers, community groups) for credibility and detailed discussion. This is a key feature.
(A) It focusses on success stories of people who have adopted new technologies...: This describes a common and effective strategy within development communication known as "social proof" or positive deviance. Highlighting success stories serves to motivate and persuade others to adopt new behaviors. It is an essential tactic and feature of the practice.

Since all four statements describe fundamental aspects, purposes, or strategies of development communication, they are all essential features.


Step 3: Final Answer:

All the given statements (A), (B), (C), and (D) are essential features of Development Communication. Therefore, option (2) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember that Development Communication is not just about broadcasting information. It is a two-way, participatory process that is purposive (for development), pragmatic (using multiple channels), and persuasive (using strategies like success stories).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching different types of hospitality establishments with their defining services or characteristics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation and Matching:

Let's match each establishment from List-I with the most appropriate description from List-II.


(A) Hotel: A hotel's primary function is to offer accommodation, meals, and other services to travelers and guests. This is a general definition. (II) Offers lodging, meals and other services to its guests is the most fitting description. So, A -\(>\) II.
(C) Motel: The word "motel" is a blend of "motor" and "hotel." It is specifically designed for motorists, with the key feature being direct access from the parking lot to the rooms. (I) Provides parking facility near the room or a room door that opens out onto the parking lot is the classic definition of a motel. So, C -\(>\) I.

With A-\(>\)II and C-\(>\)I, we can check the options. Option (1) has A-\(>\)II and C-\(>\)I. Let's verify the other pairings in this option.

(D) Resort: A resort is a destination establishment that offers a wide array of recreational activities, sports, and leisure facilities in addition to lodging. Its purpose is to provide a complete vacation experience. (III) Offers a broad range of amenities, sports facilities and leisure activities for ensuring a total vacation experience perfectly describes a resort. So, D -\(>\) III.
(B) Furnished camps: These are temporary or semi-permanent lodgings, often in natural settings, catering to activities like hiking, safaris, or adventure sports. (IV) Provide hospitality to people who go hiking, undertake adventure sports etc. is the best fit for this type of accommodation. So, B -\(>\) IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matches are A-II, B-IV, C-I, and D-III. This combination corresponds to option (1).
Quick Tip: Remember the key differentiators: A Motel is for motorists (parking access). A Resort is a destination for recreation. A Hotel is a general term for lodging and meals.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Guest Cycle is a model used in the hospitality industry to describe the distinct stages of a guest's interaction with a hotel or lodging establishment. The question asks for the correct chronological order of these stages.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's trace the journey of a guest through the hotel experience:


% Option
(A) Pre-arrival (D): This is the first stage. It includes everything that happens before the guest physically arrives at the hotel, such as making a reservation, receiving a confirmation, and any pre-stay communication.
% Option
(B) Arrival (C): This stage begins when the guest arrives at the hotel. It includes registration (check-in), room assignment, and luggage handling.
% Option
(C) Occupancy (B): This is the main phase of the guest's stay. During this time, the guest occupies the room and uses the hotel's various services and facilities (e.g., restaurants, room service, housekeeping).
% Option
(D) Departure (A): This is the final stage. It involves the guest checking out, settling the bill, and leaving the hotel. Post-departure activities like feedback collection also fall under this phase.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct chronological order of the guest cycle is Pre-arrival (D), Arrival (C), Occupancy (B), and Departure (A). This corresponds to option (2).
Quick Tip: Think of the guest cycle as a logical timeline of your own experience when you travel: First you book (Pre-arrival), then you check in (Arrival), then you stay (Occupancy), and finally you check out (Departure).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the specific term for a facility that provides daycare for infants and very young children, typically while their parents are at work.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Observation Homes and (2) Special Homes: These are terms used under the Juvenile Justice Act in India for children in conflict with the law or in need of care and protection, for temporary reception and rehabilitation respectively. They are not daycare centers.
(3) Children's Homes: This is a general term for an orphanage or a residential institution providing long-term care for children who cannot live with their families.
(4) Crèche: This is the specific term for a nursery where babies and young children are cared for during the working day. It is a form of daycare, distinct from long-term residential care. The term is widely used in India and is mandated in certain workplaces under the Maternity Benefit Act.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A Crèche is an institutional setting designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home care during the day.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between daycare and residential care. A "Crèche" or "Daycare Center" provides care for a part of the day, while a "Children's Home" or "Orphanage" provides 24-hour residential care.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the specific quality certification mark used for precious metals like gold and silver in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Ecomark: This mark is issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for products that are environmentally friendly.
(2) FSSAI: This is a mandatory license mark for food products, ensuring their safety and quality.
(3) ISI Mark: This is a certification mark for industrial products, ensuring they conform to Indian standards of safety and quality. It is not used for gold.
(4) Hallmark: The BIS Hallmark is the system for certifying the purity of gold and silver jewellery sold in India. It consists of several marks, including the BIS logo, the purity grade (e.g., 22K916 for 22-carat gold), and a unique identification number. This is the correct mark to look for on gold jewellery.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The standardization mark to check for quality and purity on gold jewellery is the Hallmark.
Quick Tip: Associate the certification mark with the product type: - Hallmark -\(>\) Gold/Silver Jewellery - FSSAI -\(>\) Food - ISI Mark -\(>\) Industrial/Electrical Goods - AGMARK -\(>\) Agricultural Products - Ecomark -\(>\) Eco-friendly Products

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching various youth development programmes with their specific aims and target groups.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation and Matching:


(A) Scouts and Guides: This is a well-known international movement focused on character development for boys and girls. Its primary aim is to instill values like loyalty, patriotism, and service to others, making them good citizens. (IV) Aims at developing the character of boys and girls... is a perfect description. So, A -\(>\) IV.
(B) The National Service Scheme (NSS): This is a flagship public service programme conducted by the Government of India, primarily for students in higher education (college level). Its motto is "Not Me, But You," reflecting its focus on social service and community development. (I) Aims at involving college level students in programmes of social service... is the exact definition of NSS. So, B -\(>\) I.

With A-\(>\)IV and B-\(>\)I, we can immediately identify option (1) as the correct choice. Let's confirm the other two matches in that option.

(C) Commonwealth Youth Programme (CYP): As the name suggests, this is an international programme involving Commonwealth countries. Its aim is to empower youth within these countries to participate in their national development. (II) Aimed at making the youth participate in the development processes of their respective countries is a fitting description for this international programme. So, C -\(>\) II.
(D) The National Service Volunteer Scheme (NSVS): This scheme provides an opportunity for students, after completing their first degree, to engage in national development activities on a whole-time basis for a defined period (one or two years). (III) Provides opportunities for students to involve themselves, on a whole-time basis for a short period... accurately describes this scheme. So, D -\(>\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matches are A-IV, B-I, C-II, and D-III. This corresponds to option (1).
Quick Tip: For questions on government schemes, pay attention to the target audience mentioned in the scheme's name or description. 'National Service Scheme' targets students for service, 'Scouts and Guides' targets boys and girls for character, and 'Commonwealth Youth Programme' has an international focus.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the viable career paths for a graduate with a degree in Human Resource (HR) Management. This involves understanding the scope of the HR field.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each option:


(A) Recruitment Consulting: This involves helping organizations find and hire suitable candidates. Recruitment and selection are core functions of HR. This is a very common career for HR professionals.
(B) Career Counselling: This involves guiding individuals on their career paths, helping with professional development, and advising on job transitions. This requires skills in psychology, talent management, and understanding the job market, all of which are part of a comprehensive HRM education.
(C) Dietary Counselling: This involves advising individuals on nutrition and diet for health and well-being. This is a specialized field requiring a degree in nutrition and dietetics, not Human Resource Management.
(D) HR Consulting: This is a broad field where professionals provide expert advice to organizations on a wide range of HR issues, such as compensation, employee relations, organizational development, and strategy. This is a direct application of an HRM degree.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The suitable career options for an HRM graduate are Recruitment Consulting (A), Career Counselling (B), and HR Consulting (D). Dietary Counselling (C) is not a related field. Therefore, the correct option includes (A), (B), and (D).
Quick Tip: When assessing career options for a specific degree, focus on the core functions of that field. For HR, think about anything related to managing the "people" aspect of an organization, from hiring to retirement.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the options is a clear example of an "entertainment event." An entertainment event is primarily organized for the amusement and enjoyment of an audience.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Celebrity night: This is an event specifically designed to provide entertainment through performances, appearances, and interactions with celebrities. Its main purpose is amusement. This fits the definition perfectly.
(2) Graduation day: This is a formal ceremony or a convocation marking an academic achievement. Its primary purpose is celebratory and ceremonial, not entertainment.
(3) MICE: This is an acronym for Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, and Exhibitions. It refers to a type of tourism and event management focused on business, professional, and educational purposes. It is not an entertainment event itself but a category of business events.
(4) Birthday party: This is a private social gathering to celebrate an individual's birthday. While it can be entertaining for the guests, it is classified as a personal or social event rather than a public "entertainment event" in the context of the event management industry.

Comparing the options, a celebrity night is the most fitting example of an event whose sole purpose is public entertainment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A celebrity night is the best example of an entertainment event among the choices.
Quick Tip: In event management, events are categorized by their primary purpose. Ask yourself: "Why is this event happening?" If the main answer is "for the audience's amusement," it's likely an entertainment event. If it's for business, education, or a personal milestone, it falls into other categories.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a specific set of challenges—difficulty with reading, writing, and arithmetic—and asks to identify the corresponding type of disability.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Cerebral Palsy: This is a group of disorders that affect a person's ability to move and maintain balance and posture. It is a motor disability.
(2) Learning disability: This is a neurological condition that affects the brain's ability to process information. The classic signs of a learning disability are persistent difficulties in core academic areas: reading (dyslexia), writing (dysgraphia), and math (dyscalculia). The description in the question perfectly matches this definition.
(3) Hearing impairment: This is a disability related to the sense of hearing.
(4) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD): This is a developmental disability characterized by challenges with social skills, repetitive behaviors, speech, and nonverbal communication. While it can affect learning, the specific triad of reading, writing, and math difficulties is the hallmark of a learning disability.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Difficulty in reading, writing, and solving arithmetic problems are the defining characteristics of a learning disability.
Quick Tip: Remember the "3 R's" often associated with school difficulties: Reading, 'Riting (Writing), and 'Rithmetic (Arithmetic). These are the core areas affected by specific learning disabilities (dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the legal term used to refer to a minor (a person under 18) who has committed a criminal act.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Orphan: An orphan is a child whose parents are deceased, unknown, or have permanently abandoned them. This refers to their family status, not their legal conduct.
(2) Peer: A peer is a person of the same age, status, or ability as another specified person.
(3) Scouts: A member of the Scout Association, a movement that aims to support young people in their physical, mental, and spiritual development.
(4) Juvenile: In a legal context, a juvenile is a person who has not yet reached the age of majority (usually 18). A "juvenile delinquent" or "child in conflict with the law" is the term for a juvenile who has violated a criminal statute. The term "juvenile" itself is used to refer to this age group within the justice system.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct legal and social term for children under 18 who violate the law is juvenile.
Quick Tip: In legal terminology, "juvenile" refers to age, and "delinquency" refers to the act of breaking the law. The entire system for handling minors who commit crimes is called the "juvenile justice system."

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A multimedia campaign is a public awareness or information campaign that uses a variety of media channels to reach its audience. This includes print, broadcast, outdoor, and interactive media. The question asks for an example of such a campaign.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Project Village Chhatera: This was an early experiment in rural television, but it was primarily a single-medium project (television).
(2) Red Ribbon Express: This was a massive HIV/AIDS awareness campaign in India that used a specially designed train. The train itself was a mobile exhibition (outdoor/exhibition media). It was accompanied by on-platform and outreach activities involving folk performances, street plays (interpersonal media), distribution of print materials (print media), and was widely covered by television and radio (broadcast media). This extensive use of multiple media formats makes it a prime example of a multimedia campaign.
(3) SARI (Socially Acceptable, Relevant, and Inexpensive): This is a methodology for developing health interventions, not a multimedia campaign itself.
(4) SEWA (Self-Employed Women's Association): This is a trade union and organization for empowering women workers. While they may use various media for their work, SEWA itself is an organization, not a specific multimedia campaign.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Red Ribbon Express, with its integrated use of a train, exhibitions, live performances, and mass media coverage, is a classic example of a multimedia campaign.
Quick Tip: When identifying a multimedia campaign, look for a specific, named initiative that uses a combination of different types of media (e.g., TV, radio, print, events, digital) to deliver a unified message.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct sequence of the process of creating and implementing an Individualized Education Programme (IEP) for a child with Special Educational Needs (SEN). This is a cyclical process.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The logical flow for providing special education services is as follows:


% Option
(A) Assessment (C): The very first step is to conduct a comprehensive assessment to understand the child's current strengths, weaknesses, and specific educational needs across various domains. You cannot plan without knowing the starting point.
% Option
(B) Develop IEP (A): Based on the assessment results, the team (including teachers, parents, and specialists) develops an Individualized Education Programme. The IEP outlines specific, measurable goals and the strategies and services that will be used to help the child achieve them.
% Option
(C) Implementation and Support Services: The plan is put into action. The child receives the specialized instruction and support services (like speech therapy, occupational therapy, etc.) as outlined in the IEP. The question splits this into 'support services' (B) and the evaluation.
% Option
(D) Regular Evaluation of IEP (D): The child's progress towards the goals set in the IEP is monitored and evaluated regularly. This is crucial to determine if the plan is working.
% Option
(E) Review and Revision: Based on the evaluation, the IEP is reviewed (and revised if necessary), and the cycle begins again. The provision of support services (B) is an ongoing process throughout the implementation and revision phases.

Let's analyze the sequence in option (3):

Let's reconsider the placement of B and D. The cycle is: Assess -\(>\) Plan -\(>\) Implement (with support) -\(>\) Evaluate. The sequence C -\(>\) A -\(>\) [Implementation with B] -\(>\) D is the most logical process. The option (C), (A), (D), (B) may imply that support services are adjusted *after* evaluation, which is also part of the cyclical process. Among the given choices, the sequence starting with Assessment (C) and then IEP Development (A) is the most critical and non-negotiable part. Options 3 and 4 start this way. Between them, (C), (A), (D), (B) represents a cycle of planning, evaluating, and then continuing/adjusting support, which is a plausible representation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most logical sequence begins with assessment, followed by planning. Therefore, the process is: Assessment (C), Develop IEP (A), Regular evaluation of progress (D), and ensuring continuous access to support services (B) as part of the ongoing implementation and revision. This makes (C), (A), (D), (B) the best fit.
Quick Tip: The IEP process is a cycle: Assess -\(>\) Plan -\(>\) Teach/Implement -\(>\) Review/Evaluate. Always start with assessment (finding out what the child needs) and then move to planning (developing the IEP).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the features of Internal Communication. Internal communication is the flow of information and ideas within an organization, as opposed to external communication, which is with outside parties.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:


(A) Interaction between employer and employee of same organisation: This is a form of downward or upward communication, which is a core part of internal communication.
(B) Interaction between two employees of same department and same organisation: This is peer-to-peer or horizontal communication within a team or department. This is a classic example of internal communication.
(C) Interaction among several employees of same organization but different departments: This is cross-functional or diagonal communication, essential for collaboration and coordination within the organization. This is also a form of internal communication.
(D) Interaction between employees of different organizations: This is, by definition, external communication. It involves interacting with people outside of one's own company (e.g., vendors, clients, partners).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Statements (A), (B), and (C) all describe communication that occurs *within* the boundaries of a single organization. Statement (D) describes communication that crosses those boundaries. Therefore, the characteristic features of internal communication are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: The key to this question is the word "internal." Ask yourself for each option: "Is the communication happening entirely inside one company?" If yes, it's internal. If it involves someone from another company, it's external.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify an example of Broadcast Media. Broadcast media refers to the distribution of audio or video content to a dispersed audience via electronic mass communications media, typically using the electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves). The key idea is a one-to-many, non-targeted transmission.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Television program: Television works by broadcasting signals through the air (terrestrial), via satellite, or over cable to a mass audience. A television program is the content delivered through this medium. It is a classic example of broadcast media.
(2) Government mobile service provider: This is a telecommunications service, which provides point-to-point communication. It is not a broadcast medium.
(3) Fashion magazine: A magazine is an example of Print Media, not broadcast media.
(4) Internet: The Internet is a complex network that supports various forms of media. It can facilitate narrowcasting (e.g., email), on-demand streaming, and some forms of broadcasting (live streaming). Because of its interactive and on-demand nature, it is often categorized as Digital Media or New Media, distinct from traditional broadcast media like radio and television.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A television program is the most direct and unambiguous example of broadcast media among the given options.
Quick Tip: Categorize media types: - Print: Newspapers, Magazines, Books. - Broadcast: Radio, Television. - Digital/New Media: Internet, Social Media, Websites. - Outdoor: Billboards, Posters.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the highest-ranking position in a professional kitchen, responsible for overall management. This relates to the classic kitchen brigade system.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Kitchen Steward: The Chief Steward is responsible for sanitation, maintenance, and inventory of equipment and supplies, i.e., the non-cooking aspects of the kitchen.
(2) Chef-de-parties: Also known as a station chef or line cook, they are in charge of a particular section of production in the kitchen (e.g., Saucier for sauces, Grillardin for grilling).
(3) Deputy Chef (Sous-Chef): The Sous-Chef is the second-in-command in the kitchen, right below the head chef. They supervise the staff and act as the head chef in their absence.
(4) Chef-de-cuisine (Executive Chef): This is the head chef, the person in charge of the entire kitchen. They are responsible for all aspects of the kitchen's operations, including menu creation, management of staff, ordering and purchasing, costing, and ensuring quality. The functions of planning, organizing, and controlling are their primary responsibilities.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Chef-de-cuisine, or Executive Chef, is responsible for the overall management and control of the kitchen operations.
Quick Tip: Remember the kitchen hierarchy (brigade system) from top to bottom: 1. Chef de Cuisine / Executive Chef (Overall Boss) 2. Sous-Chef (Deputy/Second-in-command) 3. Chef de Partie (Station Chefs) 4. Commis Chef (Junior Chefs)

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the scientific discipline that studies the interaction between humans and other elements of a system, particularly in the work environment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Agronomics: The science and technology of producing and using plants for food, fuel, fiber, and land reclamation.
(2) Economics: The social science that studies the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.
(3) Ergonomics (or Human Factors): This is the scientific discipline concerned with the understanding of interactions among humans and other elements of a system. It applies theory, principles, data, and methods to design in order to optimize human well-being and overall system performance. The description in the question—the relationship between man, machinery, equipment, and the work environment—is the exact definition of ergonomics.
(4) Mechanical Science: A branch of physics and engineering that deals with machinery and mechanics.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The science described is Ergonomics.
Quick Tip: Associate the word "Ergonomics" with "fitting the job to the person." It's all about designing things (chairs, tools, interfaces, tasks) to be safe, comfortable, and efficient for human use.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the steps of a media planning and production process in a logical, chronological order.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's break down the process step-by-step:


% Option
(A) Identify the Media Audience (C): The very first step in any communication plan is to define who you are trying to reach. Understanding the target audience is fundamental to all subsequent decisions.
% Option
(B) Design strategies for selection of suitable media, channel (B): Once you know your audience, you develop a strategy. This involves deciding which types of media (TV, radio, digital) and specific channels (which TV station, which website) will be most effective and efficient for reaching that audience.
% Option
(C) Write Media Schedule or Blue Print (E): This step translates the strategy into a concrete plan. The media schedule, or blueprint, specifies exactly when and where the advertisements or content will appear (e.g., which dates, which time slots). It's the detailed plan of execution.
% Option
(D) Media designing, development of communication model and material (D): With the plan in place, the creative work begins. This involves designing the actual advertisements, messages, and materials that will be placed in the selected media channels.
% Option
(E) Media Buying (A): This is the final step in the planning and implementation phase. It involves negotiating with and purchasing the ad space or airtime from the media owners as specified in the media schedule.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The logical sequence is: Audience (C) -\(>\) Strategy (B) -\(>\) Schedule (E) -\(>\) Creative Development (D) -\(>\) Buying (A). This corresponds to option (4).
Quick Tip: Remember the media planning process follows a logical funnel: Who are we talking to? (Audience) -\(>\) How will we reach them? (Strategy) -\(>\) Exactly when and where? (Schedule) -\(>\) What will we say? (Creative) -\(>\) Let's book it. (Buying).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the figure associated with a specific set of ethical principles for Public Relations, notably "Tell the truth."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Jean Piaget and (2) Lev Vygotsky: Both were seminal developmental psychologists, known for their theories of cognitive development in children. They were not public relations practitioners.
(4) Sigmund Freud: The founder of psychoanalysis, a clinical method for treating psychopathology. His nephew, Edward Bernays, is considered a father of PR, but Freud himself was not.
(3) Arthur W. Page: He is considered the "father of corporate public relations." As the first vice president of public relations for the American Telephone and Telegraph Company (AT&T) from 1927 to 1947, he established a set of principles for ethical and effective PR. These are known as the Page Principles. The first and most famous of these is "Tell the truth." The principle "Manage for tomorrow" is also one of his seven principles, emphasizing the need to anticipate public reaction and eliminate practices that cause conflict.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The seven principles of Public Relations management, including "Tell the truth," were practiced and articulated by Arthur W. Page.
Quick Tip: Associate Arthur W. Page with the foundational ethical principles of corporate PR. His name is synonymous with the idea that public relations is a management function and must be built on truth and proactive behavior.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching specific Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) numbers with their official titles. The SDGs are a set of 17 global goals established by the United Nations.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation and Matching:

Let's match each SDG number with its name:


(A) SDG 3: This goal is focused on health. Its full title is (III) Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages. So, A -\(>\) III.
(B) SDG 5: This goal is dedicated to gender issues. Its title is (IV) Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls. So, B -\(>\) IV.
(C) SDG 10: This goal addresses inequality. Its title is (I) Reduce inequality within and among countries. So, C -\(>\) I.
(D) SDG 12: This goal concerns consumption and production. Its title is (II) Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns. So, D -\(>\) II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matches are A-III, B-IV, C-I, and D-II. This combination corresponds to option (4).
Quick Tip: Memorizing a few key SDGs can be very helpful. Some of the most frequently asked are: - SDG 1: No Poverty - SDG 2: Zero Hunger - SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being - SDG 4: Quality Education - SDG 5: Gender Equality - SDG 10: Reduced Inequality - SDG 13: Climate Action

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the type of rhythm created by using tucks and knife pleats in a garment. Rhythm in design is a principle that creates a sense of movement by the repetition of elements.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(1) Repetition: This is the simplest form of rhythm. It involves using the same element (like a line, shape, or color) over and over again. Tucks are a series of folded and stitched lines, and knife pleats are a series of identical folds facing one direction. Both are classic examples of using repetition to create visual rhythm and a sense of order.
(2) Cordation: This is not a standard term for a type of rhythm in design.
(3) Parallelism: While the lines of tucks and pleats are parallel, parallelism is a broader concept. Repetition is the more specific and primary principle at play here.
(4) Radiation: This form of rhythm involves lines or shapes emerging from a central point, like spokes on a wheel or gathers from a central point. Tucks in a yoke and knife pleats do not radiate from a single point.

Both tucks and knife pleats are formed by repeating a single element—the fold or tuck—at regular intervals. This creates a strong sense of rhythm through repetition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The use of tucks and knife pleats creates rhythm through repetition.
Quick Tip: Remember the main types of visual rhythm: - Repetition: Same element used over and over (polka dots, stripes, pleats). - Gradation: Element changes gradually in size or color. - Radiation: Elements fan out from a central point. - Alternation: Two or more elements are used in a repeating pattern (e.g., black-white-black-white).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the implementing ministry for the POSHAN Abhiyaan based on the information provided in the passage.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage contains the following sentence: "The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan in 315 districts in the first year...". This statement directly identifies the responsible ministry.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to the text, the POSHAN Abhiyaan is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
Quick Tip: For reading comprehension questions, locate the keywords from the question within the passage. The answer is usually found in the same sentence or the one immediately following it.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the target age group of children under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme. Although not explicitly in the passage, ICDS is the foundational program upon which POSHAN Abhiyaan is built.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) is a flagship programme of the Government of India. It offers a package of services including supplementary nutrition, pre-school non-formal education, nutrition & health education, immunization, health check-up, and referral services. The primary beneficiaries of these services are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. The services are delivered through Anganwadi Centres.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ICDS scheme covers vulnerable children in the age group of 0-6 years.
Quick Tip: Remember the key beneficiaries of ICDS: children from birth up to 6 years old, and pregnant and lactating women. This scheme is the backbone of India's early childhood care and development efforts.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct full form of the acronym POSHAN, as used in the POSHAN Abhiyaan.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

POSHAN Abhiyaan is the Government of India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes. The acronym POSHAN stands for PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment. The mission aims to address malnutrition in a targeted and time-bound manner. While 'Nutrition' and 'Nourishment' are similar, the official name of the scheme uses 'Nourishment'.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct full form of POSHAN is PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment.
Quick Tip: When dealing with government scheme acronyms, pay close attention to the exact wording. Small differences, like 'Nourishment' vs. 'Nutrition', can be the key to the correct answer.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which option is not a direct, short-term intervention of the POSHAN Abhiyaan. POSHAN Abhiyaan is a nutrition-specific mission that focuses on targeted interventions to improve nutritional status.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:


(1) Fortification of essential foods and (4) Control of micronutrient deficiencies are core, direct strategies to combat "hidden hunger" and are central to nutrition-specific interventions.
(2) Production and popularisation of low cost nutritious foods is a strategy to improve dietary diversity and the quality of food consumed, which is also a direct nutritional intervention.
(3) Ensuring food security i.e., improving availability of food: This is a much broader concept. While nutrition security depends on food security, "ensuring food security" at a macro level (e.g., through the Public Distribution System, agricultural policy) is a nutrition-sensitive goal but not a direct, short-term intervention of a targeted mission like POSHAN Abhiyaan. POSHAN focuses more on the utilization of available food and specific nutritional supplements, rather than the overall availability of food grains for the entire population, which is the mandate of other ministries.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Ensuring national food security is a broader, long-term goal and not a direct short-term intervention of the POSHAN Abhiyaan itself, which has more specific targets like stunting and anaemia.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between "nutrition-specific" interventions (like providing supplements, counselling) and "nutrition-sensitive" interventions (like improving agriculture, sanitation, or food security). POSHAN Abhiyaan is primarily nutrition-specific.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the location of the initial launch of the POSHAN Abhiyaan, based on the provided passage.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The second sentence of the passage explicitly states: "POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan in March 2018." The city of Jhunjhunu is in the state of Rajasthan.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to the passage, the POSHAN Abhiyaan was first launched in the state of Rajasthan.
Quick Tip: Important government schemes' launch dates and locations are frequently asked questions in competitive exams. It's useful to create a note of these key facts while studying.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the type of counselling where the counsellor has the dominant role, based on the provided text.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage states: "In directive or counsellor-centred counselling, the counsellor plays a major role and does all that is possible to get the counsellee to make decisions...". This sentence directly answers the question. The other terms mentioned, "permissive" and "non-directive," are described as approaches where the counsellor is more passive.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to the passage, the counsellor plays the major role in Directive counselling.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to synonyms provided in a text. Here, the passage equates "directive" with "counsellor-centred," which helps reinforce the idea of the counsellor's active role.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the counselling approach where the client (counsellee) is the ultimate decision-maker.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage describes "non-directive or permissive or client-centred counselling" and states: "The counsellee takes an active part in the process of therapy... The counsellee takes the final decisions." This clearly indicates that in permissive counselling, the final decision rests with the counsellee.


Step 3: Final Answer:

As per the text, the counsellee takes the final decision in Permissive counselling.
Quick Tip: Remember the core difference from the passage: Directive = Counsellor decides/leads. Non-directive/Permissive = Counsellee (client) decides/leads.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the type of counselling that focuses on helping the client gain their own understanding or "insight."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage describes the non-directive approach by saying: "In non-directive or permissive or client-centred counselling... The person seeking help is encouraged to gain insight into the problem with the help of the counsellor." This provides a direct match for the question.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage states that in Non-directive counselling, the client is encouraged to gain insight.
Quick Tip: For fill-in-the-blank questions based on a passage, try to locate the exact sentence in the text. The missing word or phrase will be clearly identifiable.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the counselling approach that is flexible and adapts its methods based on the specific client and their situation.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The last part of the passage describes eclectic counselling: "...counsellors should incorporate suitable techniques from both the types of counselling mentioned above as and when required, depending on the situation, the problem and the temperament of the client." This is a precise description of a flexible, integrated approach.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Eclectic counselling is the approach that recommends using different methods based on the client's needs.
Quick Tip: The word "eclectic" itself means deriving ideas, style, or taste from a broad and diverse range of sources. In counselling, it means using a blend of different therapeutic techniques.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks which counselling approach views directive and non-directive methods as opposite ends of a spectrum, rather than mutually exclusive categories.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage states: "In eclectic counselling, counsellors who advocate using this type of counselling are of the view that directed or non-directed counselling are two ends of continuum." This sentence directly answers the question. This viewpoint is the foundation of the eclectic approach, which allows the counsellor to select techniques from anywhere along this continuum.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to the passage, it is in Eclectic counselling that the other two methods are seen as ends of a continuum.
Quick Tip: Understanding the concept of a "continuum" is key here. It implies a range of possibilities between two extremes. The eclectic approach is what allows a practitioner to operate anywhere on that range.