CUET UG Geography and Geology 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Sep 11, 2025

The CUET Geography and Geology exam in 2025 will be conducted from 13th May to 3rd June, and the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF will be available for download after the exam. The Geography and Geology paper in CUET evaluates a student's knowledge of physical and human geography, earth sciences, rocks and minerals, landforms, tectonic processes, environmental studies, and the geological structure of the Earth.

As per the revised exam pattern, students will need to attempt all 50 questions within 60 minutes, with the paper carrying a total of 250 marks. Each correct answer awards +5 marks, while every incorrect response results in a –1 mark deduction.

CUET UG Geography and Geology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET UG Geography and Geology Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET UG Geography and Geology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The following activity can be termed as an example of possibilism:

  • (A) Forest worship
  • (B) Ports on the coasts
  • (C) Being afraid of the fury of nature
  • (D) Collecting fruits and herbs from the forest
Correct Answer: (2) Ports on the coasts
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Possibilism in human geography is the theory that the environment sets certain constraints or limitations, but culture is otherwise determined by human choices and actions. It contrasts with environmental determinism, which suggests that the environment strongly dictates human activities. Possibilism emphasizes that humans can use technology and ingenuity to adapt to and modify their environment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the given options:

1. Forest worship: This represents a spiritual or reverential relationship with nature, where humans adapt their beliefs to the environment. It doesn't necessarily show humans overcoming environmental constraints, and can be seen as an element of environmental determinism.

2. Ports on the coasts: This is a prime example of possibilism. Humans are actively modifying the natural coastline to create harbors and ports for trade, transportation, and economic activity. This demonstrates using technology and creativity to overcome the natural limitations of the environment for societal development.

3. Being afraid of the fury of nature: This is a classic example of environmental determinism, where nature's power dictates human emotions and actions, causing them to feel powerless.

4. Collecting fruits and herbs from the forest: This is a form of direct adaptation to the environment. While it is a human activity, it involves using what nature provides rather than significantly modifying or overcoming environmental limitations, which is the core idea of possibilism.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The construction of ports on coasts is the best example of possibilism among the choices, as it involves significant human intervention to alter the environment for cultural and economic purposes. Quick Tip: To distinguish between possibilism and determinism, ask yourself: Are humans actively changing or overcoming the environment (Possibilism), or is the environment dictating how humans live (Determinism)?


Question 2:

Which of the following statements are correct for 'technology'?

(A) Understanding of concepts of friction and heat enabled us to conquer many diseases.
(B) Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.
(C) Technology loosens the shackles of the environment on human beings.
(D) Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Technology, in the context of human geography, refers to the application of knowledge, tools, and skills to solve problems and interact with the environment. It is a key factor in societal and cultural development and shapes the relationship between humans and their surroundings.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:

(A) Understanding of concepts of friction and heat enabled us to conquer many diseases. This statement is incorrect. The understanding of friction and heat was crucial for the industrial revolution (e.g., steam engines), but conquering diseases was primarily enabled by discoveries in biology and medicine, such as germ theory, antibiotics, and vaccines.

(B) Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. This is correct. The sophistication of a society's tools and techniques is a direct reflection of its cultural and scientific advancement. Historians and anthropologists often categorize periods of human history based on technology (e.g., Stone Age, Bronze Age, Iron Age).

(C) Technology loosens the shackles of the environment on human beings. This is correct and is a core tenet of possibilism. Technology allows humans to overcome environmental limitations, for example, by building irrigation systems in arid regions or developing heating and cooling for extreme climates.

(D) Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. This is a fundamental truth. From the earliest stone tools for hunting to modern GIS and remote sensing for environmental management, technology has always been the medium through which humans interact with and modify their environment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Statements (B), (C), and (D) are correct descriptions of the role and nature of technology in human society. Therefore, the correct option includes only these three statements. Quick Tip: When answering questions about technology's role, think broadly. Technology isn't just about computers; it's about every tool and technique humans have ever used to adapt to, control, or understand their environment.


Question 3:

Which one of the following is a pull factor of migration ?

  • (A) Unemployment
  • (B) Poor living conditions
  • (C) Political turmoil
  • (D) Pleasant climate
Correct Answer: (4) Pleasant climate
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Migration is influenced by push and pull factors. Push factors are negative conditions that compel people to leave their location of origin (e.g., war, poverty, natural disasters). Pull factors are positive attributes of a destination that attract people to move there (e.g., job opportunities, safety, better quality of life).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:

1. Unemployment: This is a negative economic condition that forces people to leave a place in search of work. It is a classic push factor.

2. Poor living conditions: This refers to inadequate housing, sanitation, and services, which makes a place undesirable and drives people away. It is a push factor.

3. Political turmoil: This includes war, instability, and persecution, which threaten people's safety and security, forcing them to flee. It is a strong push factor.

4. Pleasant climate: A favorable climate is an environmental amenity that makes a destination more attractive, enhancing the quality of life. It is a pull factor, often attracting retirees or those seeking a better lifestyle.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Among the given options, only a pleasant climate acts as a pull factor, attracting migrants to a new location. Quick Tip: Remember: \(\textbf{Push}\) factors drive you \(\textbf{away}\) from a place, while \(\textbf{Pull}\) factors draw you \(\textbf{towards}\) a new place. Think of it like a magnet – pushing one end away and pulling the other end closer.


Question 4:

Which of the following countries has the highest Human Development Index (2021)?

  • (A) Germany
  • (B) Switzerland
  • (C) Egypt
  • (D) Nepal
Correct Answer: (2) Switzerland
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic compiled by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to rank countries into four tiers of human development. It is based on three key dimensions: a long and healthy life (life expectancy), knowledge (expected and mean years of schooling), and a decent standard of living (Gross National Income per capita).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

According to the Human Development Report for 2021-2022, the rankings for the countries listed are as follows:


Switzerland: Ranked 1st globally with an HDI value of 0.962.
Germany: Ranked 9th globally with an HDI value of 0.942.
Egypt: Ranked much lower, falling into the 'High' or 'Medium' human development category.
Nepal: Ranked 143rd globally with an HDI value of 0.602, placing it in the 'Medium' human development category.

Comparing the given options, Switzerland had the highest HDI in 2021.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the official UNDP 2021-22 report, Switzerland has the highest Human Development Index among the choices provided. Quick Tip: For questions asking about rankings (like HDI, GDP, population), remember that Scandinavian and Western European countries like Switzerland, Norway, and Iceland consistently rank at the top of HDI reports.


Question 5:

Arrange the following countries in descending order according to their population.

(A) India
(B) Indonesia
(C) Nigeria
(D) Mexico

Choose the correct option:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (A), (D), (C), (B)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires knowledge of the approximate populations of several major countries to arrange them in descending order (from largest to smallest).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the approximate populations of these countries based on recent data (e.g., UN estimates for 2024/2025):


(A) India: Over 1.4 billion people. It is the world's most populous country.
(B) Indonesia: Approximately 280-285 million people. It is the 4th most populous country in the world.
(C) Nigeria: Approximately 230-237 million people. It is the 6th most populous country and the most populous in Africa.
(D) Mexico: Approximately 129-131 million people. It is the 10th or 11th most populous country.

Arranging these in descending order of population gives:

India \(>\) Indonesia \(>\) Nigeria \(>\) Mexico

This corresponds to the sequence (A), (B), (C), (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct descending order of population is India, Indonesia, Nigeria, and Mexico. Quick Tip: For population questions, it's helpful to remember the top 10 most populous countries in approximate order: India, China, USA, Indonesia, Pakistan, Nigeria, Brazil, Bangladesh, Russia, Mexico. Knowing this list makes such questions much easier.


Question 6:

___________ add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.

  • (A) Secondary activities
  • (B) Tertiary activities
  • (C) Quaternary activities
  • (D) Quinary activities
Correct Answer: (1) Secondary activities
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Economic activities are categorized into sectors. The question describes the process of taking raw materials (from the primary sector) and manufacturing them into finished or semi-finished goods. This process is known as value addition.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's define the economic sectors:

1. Primary activities: Involve the extraction of raw materials from the earth (e.g., agriculture, mining, fishing).

2. Secondary activities: Involve the processing, manufacturing, and construction sectors. They take raw materials from the primary sector and transform them into finished goods, thus adding value. Examples include car manufacturing, textile production, and food processing. This perfectly matches the description in the question.

3. Tertiary activities: Involve providing services rather than producing goods (e.g., retail, healthcare, transportation, entertainment).

4. Quaternary activities: A subset of the tertiary sector, involving knowledge-based services like information technology, research and development (R&D), and education.

5. Quinary activities: The highest level of decision-making in a society or economy (e.g., government executives, top-level business leaders).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The economic activities that add value by transforming raw materials into valuable products are defined as secondary activities. Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the sectors:
\(\textbf{Primary}\) = Raw materials (farming, mining)
\(\textbf{Secondary}\) = Manufacturing (factories, construction)
\(\textbf{Tertiary}\) = Services (shops, doctors)
\(\textbf{Quaternary/Quinary}\) = High-level services (IT, CEOs)


Question 7:

Modern large scale manufacturing doesn't have the following characteristic:

  • (A) Specialisation of Skills
  • (B) Technological Innovation
  • (C) Mechanisation
  • (D) Low level capital investment
Correct Answer: (4) Low level capital investment
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Modern large-scale manufacturing refers to the mass production of goods using advanced machinery, assembly lines, and a specialized workforce. It is defined by several key characteristics that distinguish it from traditional or small-scale production.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the characteristics listed:

1. Specialisation of Skills: This is a core feature. In large-scale manufacturing, complex tasks are broken down into smaller, simpler steps, and each worker specializes in one step, increasing efficiency.

2. Technological Innovation: Modern manufacturing constantly incorporates new technologies, such as robotics, AI, and advanced materials, to improve products and processes.

3. Mechanisation: This involves the use of machines to perform tasks previously done by hand. It is fundamental to mass production.

4. Low level capital investment: This is incorrect. Modern large-scale manufacturing is characterized by high capital investment. Setting up factories, purchasing sophisticated machinery, and investing in research and development require enormous financial resources.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The characteristic that modern large-scale manufacturing does not have is a low level of capital investment; it requires a very high level of capital investment. Quick Tip: Think of a modern car factory. It is filled with expensive robots (mechanisation, technological innovation), requires huge sums of money to build (high capital investment), and workers perform specific, repetitive tasks (specialisation). This helps remember the key features.


Question 8:

Which of the following is the main reason for tourist attraction of Southern Europe and the Mediterranean lands?

  • (A) Climate
  • (B) Culture
  • (C) History and Art
  • (D) Economy
Correct Answer: (1) Climate
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Tourist attractions are features of a place that draw visitors. These can be natural (climate, landscapes) or cultural (history, art, festivals). The question asks for the main reason for tourism in a specific region.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Southern Europe and the Mediterranean are world-renowned tourist destinations. Let's evaluate the reasons:

1. Climate: The region is famous for its Mediterranean climate, characterized by warm, dry, and sunny summers. This pleasant weather is a primary pull factor for tourists, especially from colder parts of Europe, and is the foundation of its "sun, sea, and sand" tourism industry.

2. Culture, History and Art: These are undoubtedly significant attractions. The region is the cradle of Western civilization, boasting ancient ruins (Rome, Athens), Renaissance art (Italy), and unique local cultures. However, for the sheer volume of mass tourism, especially during the summer months, climate is the overarching driver.

3. Economy: The economy of the region is a result of its industries, including tourism, not a primary reason for tourists to visit. A weak economy might make it cheaper to visit, but it is not the attraction itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

While history, art, and culture are major draws, the pleasant and sunny climate is considered the single most important factor driving the massive tourism industry in Southern Europe and the Mediterranean. Quick Tip: For questions about tourism geography, distinguish between niche tourism (like visiting a specific museum) and mass tourism. The climate of the Mediterranean is the main driver of its large-scale summer tourism industry.


Question 9:

Among the following identify the primary economic activity?

  • (A) Education
  • (B) Forest Safari
  • (C) Fishing
  • (D) IT industry
Correct Answer: (3) Fishing
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Economic activities are classified into sectors. Primary activities involve the direct extraction or harvesting of natural resources from the Earth.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's categorize the given activities:

1. Education: This is a service-based activity, which falls under the tertiary or quaternary sector.

2. Forest Safari: This is a recreational and tourism service, which is part of the tertiary sector.

3. Fishing: This involves harvesting a natural resource (fish) from a natural environment (rivers, oceans). This is a classic example of a primary activity.

4. IT industry: This is a knowledge-based service industry, belonging to the quaternary sector.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Fishing is the only activity listed that involves the direct extraction of a natural resource, making it a primary economic activity. Quick Tip: Remember the progression:
\(\textbf{Primary:}\) Getting raw materials (farming, mining, fishing).
\(\textbf{Secondary:}\) Making things from raw materials (manufacturing).
\(\textbf{Tertiary:}\) Providing services (shops, tourism).
\(\textbf{Quaternary/Quinary:}\) High-level services (IT, research, government).


Question 10:

Which among these does not fall under Quinary Activities?

  • (A) Specialists
  • (B) Consultants
  • (C) Financial Banking
  • (D) Policy formulators
Correct Answer: (3) Financial Banking
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Quinary activities represent the highest level of economic activity. They are concerned with the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation; and the use and evaluation of new technologies. They are often referred to as 'gold collar' professions and involve top-level decision making.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options in the context of this definition:

1. Specialists: High-level specialists who conduct research or provide expert knowledge (e.g., senior scientists) are part of the quinary or quaternary sector.

2. Consultants: High-level consultants who advise businesses and governments on strategy and innovation fall into the quinary sector.

3. Financial Banking: This is a broad service industry. While the CEO of a major international bank would be a quinary worker, the activity of "Financial Banking" itself, which includes tellers, loan officers, and analysts, is predominantly a tertiary activity (providing financial services to the public and businesses).

4. Policy formulators: This includes top executives in government and science who make significant decisions that affect society, which is the very definition of a quinary activity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Financial Banking as a general industry is a service-based tertiary activity, whereas the other options represent the high-level decision-making and expertise characteristic of the quinary sector. Quick Tip: Think of quinary activities as the 'brain' of the economy—focused on high-level decisions, research, and new ideas, rather than delivering a direct service to a mass audience.


Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II
 

List-I (Name of the Pack Animals) List-II (Areas where they are used as means of transportation)
(A) Mules (I) Mountains
(B) Camels (II) Siberia
(C) Reindeer (III) Deserts
(D) Horses (IV) Western Countries


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of how different pack animals are adapted to and used for transportation in various geographical regions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each animal in List-I with its corresponding region in List-II:


(A) Mules: Known for their strength and sure-footedness, mules are ideal for carrying heavy loads in rugged, steep terrain. Therefore, they are widely used in (I) Mountains.
(B) Camels: Often called the "ship of the desert," camels are uniquely adapted to survive in arid conditions with little water, making them the primary mode of transport in (III) Deserts.
(C) Reindeer: These animals are adapted to cold, snowy climates and are used by indigenous people in Arctic and sub-arctic regions, such as (II) Siberia, for pulling sleds.
(D) Horses: While used globally, horses have been a historically significant mode of transport and work in (IV) Western Countries, and continue to be used in various capacities.

The correct matching is: A\(\rightarrow\)I, B\(\rightarrow\)III, C\(\rightarrow\)II, D\(\rightarrow\)IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the matching, option (2) provides the correct combination of animals and their regions of use. Quick Tip: Associate each pack animal with its most famous environment: Mules with mountains, Camels with deserts, Reindeer with snowy regions (like Siberia or Lapland).


Question 12:

What are the different names of Shifting Cultivation ?

(A) Jhuming
(B) Chinook
(C) Milpa
(D) Plantation agriculture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A) and (C) only
  • (C) (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A) and (C) only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Shifting cultivation is an agricultural system in which plots of land are cultivated temporarily, then abandoned and allowed to revert to their natural vegetation while the cultivator moves on to another plot. It has different names in different parts of the world.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each term:


(A) Jhuming: This is the name used for shifting cultivation in the northeastern states of India.
(B) Chinook: This is not a type of agriculture; it is a warm, dry wind that blows down the eastern side of the Rocky Mountains in North America.
(C) Milpa: This is the term for shifting cultivation as practiced in Central America and Mexico.
(D) Plantation agriculture: This is a form of large-scale commercial farming that specializes in cash crops. It is the opposite of subsistence-based shifting cultivation.

Therefore, only Jhuming and Milpa are names for shifting cultivation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct statements are (A) and (C). The option that includes only these two is option (2). Quick Tip: It is useful to memorize the local names for shifting cultivation in different regions: 'Jhum' in India, 'Ladang' in Indonesia/Malaysia, 'Milpa' in Central America, and 'Roca' in Brazil.


Question 13:

The Channel Tunnel connects which of the following pair of cities?

  • (A) London-Moscow
  • (B) London-Paris
  • (C) London-Brussels
  • (D) Berlin-London
Correct Answer: (2) London-Paris
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Channel Tunnel is a major undersea rail tunnel linking the United Kingdom with mainland Europe. It facilitates high-speed passenger and freight rail services.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Channel Tunnel, often called the "Chunnel," physically connects Folkestone in Kent, England, with Coquelles in Pas-de-Calais, France. The primary high-speed passenger rail service that uses the tunnel is the Eurostar. The most iconic and highest-traffic route for the Eurostar is between St Pancras International station in London and Gare du Nord station in Paris. While Eurostar also runs services to Brussels and other destinations, the London-Paris connection is its most famous and direct application. The other city pairs listed are geographically incorrect for the Channel Tunnel.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Channel Tunnel's most prominent connection is between London and Paris. Quick Tip: The name "Channel Tunnel" refers to the English Channel, the body of water that separates Great Britain from France. This geographic clue immediately points to a UK-France connection, making London-Paris the most logical answer.


Question 14:

Which of the following is NOT the basis of international trade?

  • (A) Difference in national resources
  • (B) Stage of economic development
  • (C) Extent of foreign investment
  • (D) Even distribution of resources
Correct Answer: (4) Even distribution of resources
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

International trade is the exchange of capital, goods, and services across international borders. The fundamental reason for trade is that countries have differences in what they can produce efficiently.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the factors:

1. Difference in national resources: This is a primary basis for trade. A country rich in oil will export it, while a country with little oil will import it. This is based on the principle of absolute advantage.

2. Stage of economic development: Different stages of development lead to specialization. Developed countries might export high-tech goods and services, while developing countries might export raw materials or manufactured goods.

3. Extent of foreign investment: Foreign investment can create industries and infrastructure that boost a country's ability to export goods, thus forming a basis for trade.

4. Even distribution of resources: This is NOT a basis for trade. In fact, if all resources were distributed evenly, every country could produce everything it needs, and there would be very little incentive for international trade. The uneven distribution of resources is what drives trade.


Step 3: Final Answer:

An even distribution of resources would reduce or eliminate the need for trade, so it is not a basis for it. Quick Tip: Remember that trade is driven by \(\textbf{differences}\). Differences in resources, climate, skills, and costs create the reasons to buy and sell across borders. "Evenness" or "sameness" is the opposite of what drives trade.


Question 15:

Big Inch, a famous pipeline which carries petroleum from the oil wells, is located in which one of the following countries?

  • (A) U.S.A.
  • (B) Canada
  • (C) Brazil
  • (D) India
Correct Answer: (1) U.S.A.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests factual knowledge about major global transportation infrastructure, specifically famous pipelines.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The "Big Inch" and its companion, the "Little Big Inch," were petroleum pipelines constructed during World War II in the U.S.A. They were a massive engineering project designed to transport crude oil and refined products from the oil fields of Texas to the refineries and industrial centers of the northeastern United States, securing the fuel supply for the war effort against the threat of German U-boats attacking coastal tankers.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Big Inch pipeline is located in the U.S.A. Quick Tip: The name "Big Inch" is a reference to its large diameter (24 inches), a measurement standard commonly associated with the United States. This can be a helpful memory aid.


Question 16:

The roads laid along international boundaries are called :

  • (A) International Roads
  • (B) International Highways
  • (C) District Roads
  • (D) Border Roads
Correct Answer: (4) Border Roads
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the specific term used to classify roads constructed along the frontiers or international borders of a country.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's define the terms:

1. International Roads/Highways: These are major roads that cross international boundaries, connecting two or more countries (e.g., the Pan-American Highway).

2. District Roads: These are roads within a district of a country, connecting major towns and production areas with state or national highways.

3. Border Roads: This is the correct term for roads constructed parallel to and along the international boundaries of a country. They are of strategic importance as they facilitate the movement of military personnel and supplies to defend the borders and help connect remote border areas. Many countries have a special organization for their construction and maintenance (e.g., India's Border Roads Organisation - BRO).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Roads laid along international boundaries are called Border Roads. Quick Tip: The name is quite literal. Roads on the \(\textbf{border}\) are called \(\textbf{Border Roads}\). This direct association makes the term easy to remember.


Question 17:

Which of the following transportation mode is most suited for large volumes of bulky materials over long distances within a country?

  • (A) Air Transportation
  • (B) Road Transportation
  • (C) Rail Transportation
  • (D) Pipelines
Correct Answer: (3) Rail Transportation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the best mode of transport based on specific criteria: large volume, bulky materials, and long distances over land.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each mode based on the criteria:

1. Air Transportation: This mode is very fast but also very expensive. It is best suited for light, high-value, or perishable goods, not for large volumes of bulky materials like coal or iron ore.

2. Road Transportation: Trucks offer great flexibility (door-to-door service) but are less efficient and more costly than rail for moving very large quantities of bulk goods over very long distances.

3. Rail Transportation: Railways are ideal for transporting heavy and bulky goods (like minerals, grains, fertilizers, and containers) in large quantities over long terrestrial distances. They are more energy-efficient and cost-effective than road transport for such tasks.

4. Pipelines: These are highly efficient but are specialized for transporting liquids and gases (like oil, natural gas, and water), not general bulky materials.


Step 3: Final Answer:

For large volumes of bulky materials over long land distances, rail transportation is the most suitable mode. Quick Tip: When you think of moving bulk goods like coal or iron ore across a country, picture a long freight train. This imagery helps to immediately associate rail transport with this specific logistical need.


Question 18:

Identify the correct statements about pipelines.

(A) Pipelines are extensively used to transport liquid and gases.
(B) Pipelines can also be used to transport liquified coal.
(C) Milk is not supplied through pipelines in any country of the world as it is unhealthy.
(D) LPG is supplied only through gas cylinders for safety reasons.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A) and (B) only.
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question assesses knowledge about the uses and limitations of pipeline transportation.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:


(A) Pipelines are extensively used to transport liquid and gases. This is correct. The primary use of pipelines is for the long-distance transport of crude oil, refined petroleum products, natural gas, and water.
(B) Pipelines can also be used to transport liquified coal. This is correct. Coal can be ground into a fine powder and mixed with water to form a "slurry," which can then be transported through pipelines.
(C) Milk is not supplied through pipelines in any country of the world as it is unhealthy. This is incorrect. In some dairy-intensive regions (for example, in New Zealand and parts of Europe), pipelines are used to transport milk from milking sheds to central processing facilities. The claim that it is "unhealthy" is false; proper sanitation is maintained.
(D) LPG is supplied only through gas cylinders for safety reasons. This is incorrect. While cylinders are a common method of delivery, many urban areas have piped gas networks that supply LPG or natural gas directly to homes.

Thus, only statements (A) and (B) are correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option is the one that includes only statements (A) and (B). Quick Tip: Be cautious with absolute statements like "only" or "in any country." They are often incorrect in geography questions because there are usually exceptions somewhere in the world.


Question 19:

Arrange the following railway stations of the Trans Siberian Railway from west to east.

(A) Moscow
(B) Kazan
(C) Omsk
(D) Chita

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (B) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (C) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C), (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires geographical knowledge of the route of the Trans-Siberian Railway, one of the longest railway lines in the world, which crosses Russia from its capital in the west to the Pacific coast in the east.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Trans-Siberian Railway's main route runs from west to east. Let's place the given cities in that order:


(A) Moscow: Located in European Russia, it is the western terminus of the railway.
(B) Kazan: A major city on the Volga River, located to the east of Moscow.
(C) Omsk: A large city in southwestern Siberia, situated further east than Kazan, on the Irtysh River.
(D) Chita: Located in eastern Siberia, significantly further east than Omsk, and is a major junction on the railway.

The correct geographical sequence from west to east is Moscow \(\rightarrow\) Kazan \(\rightarrow\) Omsk \(\rightarrow\) Chita.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct order is (A), (B), (C), (D). Quick Tip: For questions about major transport routes like the Trans-Siberian Railway, knowing the starting point (Moscow in the west) and the general direction (eastward across Siberia) is key to solving the sequence.


Question 20:

Which one out of the following is least urbanized state of India?

  • (A) Himachal Pradesh
  • (B) Goa
  • (C) Rajasthan
  • (D) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: (1) Himachal Pradesh
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Urbanization refers to the percentage of a population living in urban areas. The "least urbanized" state is the one with the highest percentage of its population living in rural areas. This data is primarily sourced from the Census of India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Based on the Census of India 2011 (which remains the standard reference for such questions):

1. Himachal Pradesh: Has an urbanization rate of just 10.03%. It is one of the most rural states in the country.

2. Goa: Is one of the most urbanized states, with an urbanization rate of 62.17%.

3. Rajasthan: Has an urbanization rate of 24.87%.

4. Maharashtra: Is also a highly urbanized state with an urbanization rate of 45.22%.

Comparing these figures, Himachal Pradesh has the lowest percentage of its population living in urban areas.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Himachal Pradesh is the least urbanized state among the given options. Quick Tip: Generally, states with hilly terrain and economies heavily based on agriculture or horticulture, like Himachal Pradesh, tend to have lower levels of urbanization compared to coastal or highly industrialized states like Goa and Maharashtra.


Question 21:

Which of the following age group belongs to the adolescents population?

  • (A) 5-10 Years
  • (B) 10-19 Years
  • (C) 20-30 Years
  • (D) 30-45 Years
Correct Answer: (2) 10-19 Years
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Adolescence is a transitional phase of growth and development between childhood and adulthood. Demographers and health organizations use a specific age range to define this group for statistical and policy purposes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) and the United Nations (UN) define adolescents as individuals in the 10-19 years age group. This period is characterized by rapid physical, cognitive, and psychosocial growth. In India, the National Youth Policy also recognizes this age bracket as the adolescent population, which is crucial for planning education, health, and skill development programs.

The other age groups represent:


5-10 Years: Childhood
20-30 Years: Young adulthood
30-45 Years: Adulthood


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct age group for the adolescent population is 10-19 years. Quick Tip: Think of the "-teen" years. Adolescence roughly covers the ages from just before the teens (age 10) through all the teenage years (13 to 19). This makes the 10-19 bracket easy to remember.


Question 22:

Arrange the following Indian towns from ancient to modern period according to their times of evolution.

(A) Chandigarh
(B) Nagpur
(C) Madurai
(D) Surat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires arranging Indian cities in chronological order based on their historical evolution and period of prominence, from ancient to modern times.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's establish the historical timeline for each city:


(C) Madurai: This is an ancient city with a history dating back to the Sangam period (3rd century BCE and earlier). It was the capital of the Pandyan Kingdom and is one of India's oldest continuously inhabited cities. It is clearly the most ancient on the list.
(B) Nagpur: The city gained significant importance in the 18th century as the capital of the Bhonsle dynasty of the Maratha Empire. It later became a key administrative center under the British Raj. This places it in the early modern/colonial period.
(D) Surat: While having an older history, Surat rose to prominence as a major port and trading hub during the Mughal Empire in the 16th and 17th centuries. This places it firmly in the medieval period.
(A) Chandigarh: This is a modern, post-independence city. It was planned and built in the 1950s to serve as the new capital for the states of Punjab and Haryana. It is the most recent city on the list.

The correct chronological order from ancient to modern is: Madurai \(\rightarrow\) Nagpur \(\rightarrow\) Surat \(\rightarrow\) Chandigarh, which corresponds to the sequence (C), (B), (D), (A).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Correct historical sequence of (C), (D), (B), (A). Quick Tip: For questions on historical city evolution, associate cities with major historical periods: Madurai with Ancient Kingdoms (Pandyas), Surat with the Medieval/Mughal era, Nagpur with the Maratha/British period, and Chandigarh with Post-Independence India.


Question 23:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching the major linguistic families of India with their respective branches or sub-groups.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each linguistic family from List-I with its correct branch from List-II:


(A) Indo-European (Aryan): This is the largest language family in India. The Indo-Aryan branch is dominant, but other branches like (I) Iranian (spoken in areas bordering India and by some communities within) also belong to this family.
(B) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata): This family is spoken mainly in the Himalayan region and North-East India. The Tibeto-Burman group is a major part of it, and languages of (III) North Assam fall under this group.
(C) Austric (Nishada): This family includes two main branches in India: Mon-Khmer and Munda. The (II) Munda languages (like Santhali, Mundari) are spoken by tribal populations in central and eastern India.
(D) Dravidian (Dravida): This family is predominant in Southern India. It is divided into several groups, including South, Central, and (IV) North Dravidian (which includes languages like Brahui and Kurukh-Malto).

The correct matching is: A\(\rightarrow\)I, B\(\rightarrow\)III, C\(\rightarrow\)II, D\(\rightarrow\)IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the correct pairings, option (2) presents the correct combination. Quick Tip: Associate language families with major regions: Indo-Aryan with North India, Dravidian with South India, Sino-Tibetan with the Himalayas/North-East, and Austric with tribal belts of Central and East India. This helps narrow down the options.


Question 24:

Which of the following criteria is NOT correct as per the definition of urban settlement given by the Census of India in 1991?

  • (A) Place having minimum population of 5000.
  • (B) At Least 50 percent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
  • (C) Place having a density of population of at least 400 person per square kilometer.
  • (D) All places which have a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or Notified town area committee.
Correct Answer: (2) At Least 50 percent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Census of India defines an "urban settlement" in two ways. The first is a 'Statutory Town' (option 4). The second is a 'Census Town', which must satisfy three specific criteria simultaneously. This question tests the knowledge of those three criteria.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The definition of a Census Town, as per the 1991 Census (and subsequent censuses), requires a settlement to meet all three of the following conditions:

1. A minimum population of 5,000. (Option 1 is correct).

2. A population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer. (Option 3 is correct).

3. At least 75 percent of the main male working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.


Option (2) states the requirement is "At Least 50 percent," which is incorrect. The actual threshold is 75%. Option (4) describes Statutory Towns, which is the other, separate definition of an urban area and is correct in its own right. The question asks which criterion is NOT correct for the definition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement that at least 50 percent of male workers should be in non-agricultural pursuits is incorrect; the correct figure is 75 percent. Quick Tip: Remember the three key numbers for a Census Town: \(\textbf{5000}\) population, \(\textbf{400}\) density, and \(\textbf{75%}\) non-agricultural male workers. The 75% figure is a common point of confusion and is frequently tested.


Question 25:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires classifying towns based on their primary function or reason for existence/prominence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each town with its functional type:


(A) Chandigarh: It was specifically designed and built post-independence to be the capital of Punjab (and later Haryana). Its primary function is governance, making it a classic (I) Administrative Town.
(B) Kandla: Located in Gujarat, Kandla is one of India's major seaports, handling a massive volume of cargo. Its primary function is related to shipping and trade, classifying it as a (II) Transport Town.
(C) Jharia: Located in Jharkhand, Jharia is famous for its large coal reserves and is a center of coal mining activities. This makes it a (III) Mining Town.
(D) Jalandhar: Jalandhar in Punjab is a major city that also hosts one of the oldest and largest cantonments (military stations) in India. This military presence makes it a (IV) Garrison Town (or cantonment town).

All pairings are direct matches: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching sequence is given in option (1). Quick Tip: When classifying towns, think of the first thing that comes to mind for each city: Chandigarh - Capital; Kandla - Port; Jharia - Coal; Jalandhar - Army Cantonment. This helps to quickly identify their primary function.


Question 26:

Post independence, the Indian government imported the High Yield Varieties of wheat from ___________.

  • (A) Philippines
  • (B) Mexico
  • (C) Russia
  • (D) Japan
Correct Answer: (2) Mexico
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question relates to the origins of the Green Revolution in India. A key component of this agricultural transformation was the introduction of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Green Revolution was spearheaded by the work of Dr. Norman Borlaug, an American agronomist who developed semi-dwarf, high-yield, disease-resistant wheat varieties. He conducted his research at the International Maize and Wheat Improvement Center (CIMMYT) located in Mexico.


In the mid-1960s, India, under the leadership of agricultural scientist M.S. Swaminathan and minister C. Subramaniam, decided to import these HYV wheat seeds from Mexico to combat food shortages. This import was a crucial first step in making India self-sufficient in food grains. The HYV rice variety (like IR-8) was developed in the Philippines, but the question specifically asks about wheat.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The HYV seeds of wheat that kickstarted the Green Revolution in India were imported from Mexico. Quick Tip: Remember this key association for the Green Revolution: Wheat from \(\textbf{Mexico}\) (Norman Borlaug) and Rice from the \(\textbf{Philippines}\) (International Rice Research Institute - IRRI).


Question 27:

Which of the following state does NOT have high levels of groundwater utilization?

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Haryana
  • (C) Punjab
  • (D) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: (1) Odisha
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Groundwater utilization refers to the proportion of replenishable groundwater that is being extracted for use, primarily for irrigation. High levels of utilization mean that a large percentage of the available groundwater is being used, often leading to depletion.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the states:


Punjab and Haryana: These states are the heart of the Green Revolution, with intensive agriculture characterized by water-guzzling crops like rice and wheat. They have very high levels of groundwater utilization, often exceeding 100% (meaning more water is extracted than recharged), leading to severe water table depletion.
Tamil Nadu: This state also has significant areas of intensive agriculture and relatively lower rainfall outside the monsoon season, leading to a high dependency on groundwater for irrigation.
Odisha: This state is located in a region with higher average rainfall and has a different agricultural landscape. While groundwater is used, the level of utilization is significantly lower compared to the northwestern and some southern states. It is not considered a state with high groundwater stress on a state-wide level.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Among the given options, Odisha does not have the high levels of groundwater utilization seen in Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu. Quick Tip: States associated with the Green Revolution (Punjab, Haryana) and those in arid or semi-arid regions with intensive farming (Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu) generally have the highest groundwater utilization. States in high-rainfall eastern India tend to have lower levels.


Question 28:

Mumbai High is famous for ___________.

  • (A) Petroleum Reserves
  • (B) Coal Reserves
  • (C) Iron Ore Reserves
  • (D) Copper Reserves
Correct Answer: (1) Petroleum Reserves
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests knowledge of major mineral and energy resource locations in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Mumbai High (now Mumbai Offshore Basin) is an offshore oilfield located in the Arabian Sea, approximately 176 kilometers off the coast of Mumbai, India. It was discovered in 1974 and is operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). It has been the largest and most significant source of domestic oil and natural gas production for India for many decades. Therefore, it is famous for its vast Petroleum Reserves. The other options are incorrect; coal, iron ore, and copper are found in terrestrial mining sites, mainly in Peninsular India.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Mumbai High is famous for its Petroleum Reserves. Quick Tip: The name "Mumbai High" is synonymous with offshore oil drilling in India. Associate this specific location with petroleum, just as you would associate Jharia with coal or Khetri with copper.


Question 29:

Which of the followings is a target group development programme?

  • (A) Command Area Development Programme
  • (B) Drought Prone Area Development Programme
  • (C) Desert Development Programme
  • (D) Small Farmers Development Agency
Correct Answer: (4) Small Farmers Development Agency
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Development programmes can be broadly categorized. Area-based programmes focus on developing a specific geographical region (e.g., a drought-prone area, a hill area). Target-group programmes focus on improving the conditions of a specific section of the population (e.g., small farmers, landless laborers).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's classify the given programmes:

1. Command Area Development Programme: Focuses on improving water management in the 'command area' of an irrigation project. This is an area-based programme.

2. Drought Prone Area Development Programme: Aims to mitigate the adverse effects of drought in identified arid and semi-arid regions. This is an area-based programme.

3. Desert Development Programme: Focuses on controlling desertification and developing the economy of desert regions. This is an area-based programme.

4. Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA): This was established specifically to identify and assist small and marginal farmers with credit, inputs, and other services. Its focus is on a particular group of people, not a geographical area, making it a target-group programme.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Small Farmers Development Agency is a target group development programme. Quick Tip: To distinguish between the two types, ask "What is being targeted?" If the answer is a place (desert, drought-prone area), it's area-based. If the answer is a group of people (small farmers, tribal communities), it's target-group based.


Question 30:

Arrange the following river basins in descending order according to their size.

(A) Mahanadi
(B) Godavari
(C) Ganga
(D) Pennar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (B) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (A), (D)
Correct Answer: (4) (C), (B), (A), (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires knowledge of the relative sizes (catchment areas) of major river basins in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the approximate catchment area for each river basin:


(C) Ganga: The Ganga basin is the largest in India, covering over 861,000 sq. km within the country.
(B) Godavari: The Godavari is the largest river system of Peninsular India (often called the Dakshina Ganga). Its basin covers about 312,000 sq. km.
(A) Mahanadi: This is a major river in east-central India with a basin size of approximately 141,600 sq. km.
(D) Pennar: This is a smaller peninsular river flowing through Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka, with a basin size of about 55,000 sq. km.

Arranging these in descending order (largest to smallest) gives: Ganga > Godavari > Mahanadi > Pennar.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (C), (B), (A), (D), which corresponds to option (4). Quick Tip: Remember the general hierarchy of Indian river basins: The largest is the Ganga, followed by other major Peninsular rivers like Godavari, Krishna, and then smaller ones like Mahanadi, Narmada, and Cauvery. This mental map helps in ordering them.


Question 31:

Identify the correct statements about Common Property Resources.

(A) According to ownership, land can be classified as - Private land and Common Property Resources.
(B) The land owned by the state meant for use of the community is called Common Property Resource.
(C) The Common Property Resource is of particular relevance for the livelihood of landless and marginal farmers in rural areas.
(D) The ownership of Common Property Resource land lies with a group of people living in that area.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Common Property Resources (CPRs) are resources that are accessible to a whole community or village, where individuals do not have private ownership rights.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:


(A) According to ownership, land can be classified as - Private land and Common Property Resources. This is a correct basic classification of land ownership in a rural context.
(B) The land owned by the state meant for use of the community is called Common Property Resource. This is correct. CPRs are often legally owned by the state (e.g., Panchayat land, forest land) but are managed and used by the community.
(C) The Common Property Resource is of particular relevance for the livelihood of landless and marginal farmers in rural areas. This is correct. These groups heavily depend on CPRs for fodder, fuelwood, minor forest produce, and grazing, as they lack private land resources.
(D) The ownership of Common Property Resource land lies with a group of people living in that area. This is incorrect. Ownership is institutional, lying with the state or a formal community body (like the Gram Panchayat), not with an informal "group of people." The community has usage rights, but not direct ownership in the private sense.

Statements (A), (B), and (C) are correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option is the one that includes only statements (A), (B), and (C). Quick Tip: A key feature of CPRs is the distinction between \(\textbf{usage rights}\) (which the community has) and \(\textbf{ownership rights}\) (which are typically held by a formal institution like the state or panchayat). This distinction is often tested.


Question 32:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching official land-use categories in India with their precise definitions, particularly related to the duration of time land is left uncultivated (fallow).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each category with its definition:


(A) Culturable Waste Land: This refers to land that is capable of being cultivated but has not been for a long period. The official definition is land left uncultivated for (II) more than five years.
(B) Current Fallow: This is land that is temporarily out of cultivation to allow it to recover its fertility. The period is short, defined as (I) one or less than one agricultural year.
(C) Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is land left uncultivated for an intermediate period, specifically (IV) for more than one year but less than five years.
(D) Net Sown Area: This is the most straightforward category. It represents the (III) physical extent of land on which crops are actually sown and harvested in a given agricultural year.

The correct matches are: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The combination that correctly matches all categories is given in option (1). Quick Tip: Remember the timeline for fallow lands:
\(\textbf{Current Fallow:}\) \(\leq\) 1 year
\(\textbf{Fallow other than Current:}\) 1 to 5 years
\(\textbf{Culturable Wasteland:}\) \(>\) 5 years
This timeline is a key to solving such matching questions.


Question 33:

Which one of the following activities involve the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information?

  • (A) Primary Activity
  • (B) Tertiary Activity
  • (C) Secondary Activity
  • (D) Quaternary Activity
Correct Answer: (4) Quaternary Activity
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the economic sector defined by working with information and knowledge.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's review the economic sectors:


Primary Activity: Involves extracting raw materials from nature (e.g., farming, mining).
Secondary Activity: Involves processing raw materials into finished goods (e.g., manufacturing, construction).
Tertiary Activity: Involves providing services to consumers and businesses (e.g., retail, transport, healthcare).
Quaternary Activity: This is an advanced sub-sector of tertiary activities. It is centered on knowledge and information. This sector involves activities like the collection, production, and dissemination of information. Examples include research and development (R&D), information technology (IT), media, consulting, and education. This perfectly matches the question's description.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The activities related to information and knowledge belong to the Quaternary sector. Quick Tip: Think of the Quaternary sector as the "knowledge economy." If the job involves creating, processing, or sharing information (like software development, scientific research, or journalism), it falls into this category.


Question 34:

Which one out of the following is incorrect about Pawan Hans limited?

  • (A) Helicopter service in hilly areas.
  • (B) Helicopter service to petroleum sector.
  • (C) Helicopter service in tourism sector.
  • (D) It is widely used in central India for tourism.
Correct Answer: (4) It is widely used in central India for tourism.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires knowledge of the operations and services provided by Pawan Hans Limited, a government-owned aviation company in India. We need to identify the statement that does not accurately describe its services.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. Helicopter service in hilly areas: This is correct. Pawan Hans provides essential helicopter services in inaccessible areas and difficult terrains, particularly in the North-Eastern states of India, for connectivity and emergency services.

2. Helicopter service to petroleum sector: This is correct. A major part of Pawan Hans's operations involves providing helicopter support for offshore oil and gas exploration, such as serving the rigs of the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) at Mumbai High.

3. Helicopter service in tourism sector: This is correct. Pawan Hans offers charter services for tourism, including pilgrimage trips (like Kedarnath, Badrinath) and aerial sightseeing.

4. It is widely used in central India for tourism: This statement is incorrect. While Pawan Hans can be chartered for services anywhere, its primary and "widely used" operations are concentrated in the North-East, offshore locations, and specific pilgrimage circuits in the Himalayas. Central India is generally well-connected by land transport, and widespread helicopter tourism is not a characteristic feature of this region or of Pawan Hans's main operations.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement that Pawan Hans is widely used for tourism in central India is an exaggeration and does not represent a core operational area, making it the incorrect statement. Quick Tip: For questions about transportation companies like Pawan Hans, remember their primary strategic roles: connecting remote/hilly areas (like the North-East) and supporting key economic sectors (like offshore oil exploration).


Question 35:

Match the followings:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests geographical knowledge of the locations of major seaports in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each seaport in List-I with its correct state in List-II:


(A) Kandla Port (officially Deendayal Port) is a major seaport located on the Gulf of Kutch in (IV) Gujarat.
(B) Haldia Port is a major riverine port and a part of the Kolkata Port Trust, located in (III) West Bengal.
(C) Marmagao Port (also Mormugao) is a major port situated in (I) Goa. It is a leading iron ore exporting port.
(D) Paradwip Port is an artificial, deep-water port located on the east coast of India in (II) Odisha.

The correct matching is: A\(\rightarrow\)IV, B\(\rightarrow\)III, C\(\rightarrow\)I, D\(\rightarrow\)II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the correct pairings, option (1) provides the correct combination. Quick Tip: Create mental associations for major ports: Kandla-Gujarat (West Coast, Tidal), Haldia-West Bengal (East Coast, Riverine), Marmagao-Goa (West Coast, Iron Ore), Paradwip-Odisha (East Coast, Deep-water).


Question 36:

In the following identify the correct statements about the Konkan Railway.

(A) It was constructed in 1998.
(B) It connects Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka.
(C) It is considered an engineering marvel.
(D) The states of Maharshtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are partners in it.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires factual knowledge about the Konkan Railway project, a significant piece of infrastructure in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:


(A) It was constructed in 1998. This statement refers to the completion and inauguration of the full line. The project was completed and opened to full traffic on January 26, 1998. So, this statement is considered correct.
(B) It connects Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka. This is correct. The railway line runs along the Konkan coast, starting from Roha, south of Mumbai, and ending at Thokur, just north of Mangalore.
(C) It is considered an engineering marvel. This is correct. The construction of the railway through the rugged terrain of the Western Ghats involved building over 2,000 bridges and 91 tunnels, making it one of the most challenging engineering projects in the country's history.
(D) The states of Maharshtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are partners in it. This is incorrect. The Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. is a joint venture between the Ministry of Railways and the states of Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka. Tamil Nadu is not geographically on the Konkan coast and is not a partner in this project.

Thus, statements (A), (B), and (C) are correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option is the one that includes only statements (A), (B), and (C). Quick Tip: Remember the partner states of the Konkan Railway by tracing its path down the west coast: it starts in Maharashtra, passes through Goa, and ends in Karnataka.


Question 37:

Which of the following is NOT an example of mass communication?

  • (A) Cinema
  • (B) Radio
  • (C) Letters
  • (D) Newspapers
Correct Answer: (3) Letters
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Mass communication refers to the process of creating, sending, receiving, and analyzing messages to large audiences via verbal and written media. Its key characteristic is its ability to reach a large, anonymous, and heterogeneous audience simultaneously. Communication that is personal and directed at a specific individual or a small group is known as interpersonal communication.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:

1. Cinema: Films are shown to large audiences in theaters, making cinema a form of mass communication.

2. Radio: Radio broadcasts signals over a wide area, reaching thousands or millions of listeners at once. It is a classic example of mass communication.

3. Letters: Letters are a form of written communication typically addressed to a specific person or a few known individuals. This is an example of interpersonal communication, not mass communication.

4. Newspapers: Newspapers are printed in large quantities and distributed to a wide readership, disseminating information to the masses. It is a primary form of mass communication.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Letters are a form of personal communication and not an example of mass communication. Quick Tip: The key difference is the audience. If the medium targets a large, undifferentiated audience (like TV, radio, newspapers), it's mass communication. If it targets a specific individual (like a letter or a phone call), it's interpersonal communication.


Question 38:

Arrange the following commodities in descending order according to their share in India's import (2021-2022)?

(A) Petroleum, oil and Lubricants
(B) Chemical Products
(C) Fertilizers and fertilizer manufacturing
(D) Iron and Steel

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (C), (D), (B)
  • (C) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (A) (A), (B), (C), (D).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires knowledge of the composition of India's imports for the fiscal year 2021-2022, specifically the ranking of major commodity groups by value.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Based on data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, for the fiscal year 2021-22, let's examine the import values of the given commodities:


% Option
(A) (A) Petroleum, oil and Lubricants (POL): This is consistently India's single largest import item by a significant margin, accounting for a substantial portion of the total import bill.
% Option
(B) (B) Chemical Products: This is a very broad category. Organic and Inorganic Chemicals alone constituted a major import item. When considered as a whole group, it ranks very high.
% Option
(C) (C) Fertilizers: Imports of fertilizers also form a key part of the import bill, with values surging in 2021-22 due to global price rises.
% Option
(D) (D) Iron and Steel: This is a significant import, although India is also a major producer. In 2021-22, its import value was substantial.

According to the official data, the approximate ranking by value for these specific items in 2021-22 was:

1. (A) Petroleum, oil and Lubricants

2. (B) Chemical Products (as a broad category)

3. (C) Fertilizers and fertilizer manufacturing

4. (C) Iron and Steel

The correct descending order is therefore (A), (B), (C), (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (A), (B), (C), (D). Quick Tip: For questions on India's trade, always remember that 'Petroleum, Oil, and Lubricants' (POL) is the largest import item, and 'Electronic Goods' is also near the top. This helps to quickly eliminate incorrect options.


Question 39:

Which one of the following type of pollution is considered as the World's Top Environmental Health Risk by the World Health Organization?

  • (A) Noise Pollution
  • (B) Water Pollution
  • (C) Air pollution
  • (D) Land Pollution
Correct Answer: (3) Air pollution
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks to identify the environmental factor that the World Health Organization (WHO) considers the most significant threat to human health globally.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

According to numerous reports and official statements by the World Health Organization, air pollution is the single largest environmental health risk. WHO data indicates that the vast majority of the global population breathes air that exceeds WHO guideline limits, containing high levels of pollutants. Exposure to air pollution (both ambient/outdoor and household/indoor) is a major cause of mortality and morbidity, leading to millions of premature deaths each year from noncommunicable diseases such as stroke, heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and lung cancer, as well as acute respiratory infections. While water, noise, and land pollution are also serious health risks, the sheer scale and severity of the impact of air pollution make it the top priority for the WHO.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The World Health Organization identifies air pollution as the world's top environmental health risk. Quick Tip: Remember this key fact from the WHO: Air pollution is the "silent killer." Its impact on respiratory and cardiovascular diseases makes it the number one environmental threat to public health worldwide.


Question 40:

Identify the correct statements about urban waste disposal.

(A) The environmental pollution due to solid waste is not very significant in urban areas of India due to low level of urbanisation.
(B) Dumping industrial waste into rivers causes water pollution.
(C) Solid waste refers to a variety of old and used articles.
(D) Solid waste from industrial units is collected and disposed off on low-lying public grounds.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires an assessment of different statements related to the problem of urban waste and its disposal in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:


(A) The environmental pollution due to solid waste is not very significant in urban areas of India due to low level of urbanisation. This statement is incorrect. Pollution from solid waste is a massive problem in urban India. Furthermore, while India's urbanization percentage may be lower than in some developed countries, its absolute urban population is huge, leading to enormous waste generation.
(B) Dumping industrial waste into rivers causes water pollution. This is a correct and factual statement. The discharge of untreated or poorly treated industrial effluents is a primary cause of river pollution.
(C) Solid waste refers to a variety of old and used articles. This is a correct, simple definition. Solid waste (or refuse) includes everyday garbage, discarded appliances, commercial refuse, etc.
(D) Solid waste from industrial units is collected and disposed off on low-lying public grounds. This statement describes a common method of waste disposal in many places, which is landfilling, often in an unscientific manner in low-lying areas or wastelands. While not the only method, it is a prevalent practice and thus a correct description of a real-world scenario.

Statements (B), (C), and (D) are correct descriptions of aspects of urban waste disposal.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The option that includes the correct statements (B), (C), and (D) is the right answer. Quick Tip: In questions with multiple statements, first identify any statement that is definitively false. In this case, statement (A) is clearly incorrect, which immediately eliminates options 1, 2, and 3, leaving only option 4 as the answer. This is a powerful test-taking strategy.


Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Trade is essentially the buying and selling of items produced elsewhere. All the services in retail and wholesale trading or commerce are specifically intended for profit. The towns and cities where all these works take place are known as trading centres.

The rise of trading from barter at the local level to money-exchange on an international scale has produced many centres and institutions, such as trading centres or collection and distribution points.

Trading centres may be divided into rural and urban marketing centres. Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban centres. They serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type. Here, personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres. Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets) and also retailing areas. They are not urban centres per se but are significant centres for making available goods and services which are most frequently demanded by rural folk.

Periodic markets in rural areas are found where there are no regular markets and local periodic markets are organised at different temporal intervals. These may be weekly, bi-weekly markets where people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand. These markets are held on specified dates and move from one place to another. The shopkeepers, thus, remain busy all day while a large area is served by them.

Urban marketing centres have more widely specialised urban services. They provide ordinary goods and services as well as many of the specialised goods and services required by people. Urban centres, therefore, offer manufactured goods as well as many specialised developed markets, e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi-or finished products. Services of educational institutions and professionals such as teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists and veterinary doctors are available.

Question 41:

The towns and cities where the buying and selling of goods takes place are known as:

  • (A) quasi-urban centres
  • (B) trading centres
  • (C) periodic markets
  • (D) departmental stores
Correct Answer: (2) trading centres
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the general term used to describe towns and cities where the buying and selling of goods occur, based on the provided passage.


Step 2: Locating the Answer in the Passage:

The first paragraph of the passage states: "Trade is essentially the buying and selling of items produced elsewhere... The towns and cities where all these works take place are known as trading centres."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage explicitly defines these locations as "trading centres." Quick Tip: For direct definition questions, always scan the first and last sentences of the introductory paragraphs. Key definitions are often placed there.


Question 42:

Which one of the following are quasi-urban centers and cater to nearby settlements?

  • (A) Urban marketing centres
  • (B) Periodic markets
  • (C) Rural marketing centres
  • (D) Chain stores
Correct Answer: (3) Rural marketing centres
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the type of centre that is described as "quasi-urban" and serves nearby settlements, based on the passage.


Step 2: Locating the Answer in the Passage:

The fourth paragraph begins with the sentence: "Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban centres." This directly links the term "quasi-urban centres" to "Rural marketing centres."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage clearly states that rural marketing centres are quasi-urban and cater to nearby settlements. Quick Tip: Pay close attention to descriptive phrases in the text. The question uses the exact phrasing "quasi-urban centers and cater to nearby settlements," which is a strong clue to find the corresponding term in the passage.


Question 43:

These markets are found where there are no regular markets and organised at different temporal intervals, where people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand.

  • (A) Retail Trading
  • (B) Urban marketing centres
  • (C) Rural marketing centres
  • (D) Periodic markets
Correct Answer: (4) Periodic markets
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question provides a description of a specific type of market and asks to identify it from the options, based on the passage.


Step 2: Locating the Answer in the Passage:

The fifth paragraph describes these markets: "Periodic markets in rural areas are found where there are no regular markets and local periodic markets are organised at different temporal intervals. These may be weekly, bi-weekly markets where people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand." This description exactly matches the one given in the question.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The description provided in the question refers to periodic markets. Quick Tip: When a question quotes or paraphrases a long description from the text, scan the passage for keywords from that description (e.g., "no regular markets," "temporal intervals," "accumulated demand") to quickly locate the relevant section.


Question 44:

Which of the following services is generally NOT a characteristic feature of the urban marketing centres?

  • (A) Consultants
  • (B) Local collection and distribution
  • (C) Veterinary doctors
  • (D) Markets for labour
Correct Answer: (2) Local collection and distribution
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify a service that is NOT a feature of urban marketing centres, as described in the passage.


Step 2: Analyzing the Passage:

The last paragraph describes urban marketing centres. It states they have "widely specialised urban services," offer "manufactured goods," "specialised developed markets, e.g. markets for labour, housing," and "Services of... professionals such as teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists and veterinary doctors." So, consultants (1), veterinary doctors (3), and markets for labour (4) are all explicitly mentioned or implied as features of urban centres.

In contrast, the fourth paragraph, which describes rural marketing centres, states: "These form local collecting and distributing centres." This function is specifically attributed to rural centres, which are described as rudimentary and less developed than urban ones.


Step 3: Final Answer:

"Local collection and distribution" is a characteristic feature of rural marketing centres, not the more specialized urban marketing centres. Quick Tip: For "NOT" questions, the process of elimination is very effective. Check which options are mentioned in the relevant section of the text. The one that isn't mentioned, or is mentioned in a different context, is the correct answer.


Question 45:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rural market centres?

  • (A) They are pure urban centres with specialisation in rural products.
  • (B) They are most rudimentary type of trading centres.
  • (C) Here professional and personal services are not well-developed.
  • (D) Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets).
Correct Answer: (1) They are pure urban centres with specialisation in rural products.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the statement that is NOT a correct description of rural market centres based on the passage.


Step 2: Analyzing the Passage's Description of Rural Market Centres:

The fourth paragraph describes rural marketing centres. Let's check the options against this description:


Option (2): "They serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type." This is directly stated in the passage.
Option (3): "Here, personal and professional services are not well-developed." This is also directly stated.
Option (4): "Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets)..." This is also stated in the passage.
Option (1): "They are pure urban centres..." This is explicitly contradicted. The passage says they are "quasi-urban centres" and "not urban centres per se".


Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement that rural market centres are "pure urban centres" is false according to the passage. Quick Tip: Look for direct contradictions. The passage calls rural centers "quasi-urban" (meaning partly or almost urban), which is the direct opposite of "pure urban." This makes the incorrect statement easy to spot.


Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions.

An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India suggests a close relationship between the population and physical, socio-economic and historical factors. As far as the physical factors are concerned, it is clear that climate along with the terrain and the availability of water largely determine the pattern of the population distribution. Consequently, we observe that the North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have a higher proportion of the population than the interior districts of the southern and central Indian States, the Himalayas, and some of the north-eastern and western states. However, development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in a moderate to high concentration of population in areas which were previously very thinly populated.

Among the socio-economic and historical factors of the distribution of population, important ones are the evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development; the pattern of human settlement; development of transport networks, industrialisation and urbanisation. It is observed that the regions falling in the river plains and coastal areas of India have remained the regions of larger population concentration. Even though the use of natural resources like land and water in these regions has shown the sign of degradation, the concentration of the population remains high because of the early history of human settlement and the development of transport networks. On the other hand, the urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur have high concentrations of population due to industrial development and urbanisation, drawing large numbers of rural-urban migrants.

Question 46:

An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India does not suggest a close relationship between the population and which one of the following?

  • (A) Physical factors
  • (B) Literacy Rate
  • (C) Socio-economic factors
  • (D) Historical factors
Correct Answer: (2) Literacy Rate
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks which factor, among the options, is NOT mentioned in the passage as having a close relationship with population distribution in India.


Step 2: Analyzing the Passage:

The very first sentence of the passage states: "An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India suggests a close relationship between the population and physical, socio-economic and historical factors." The passage then goes on to elaborate on each of these three factors. The term "Literacy Rate" is never mentioned in the passage as a primary factor influencing the spatial distribution of population.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Physical, socio-economic, and historical factors are explicitly mentioned. Literacy Rate is not mentioned, making it the correct answer. Quick Tip: For "does not suggest" or "is not mentioned" questions, carefully read the first few sentences of the passage. The main topics are usually introduced there, making it easy to see what is included and what is omitted.


Question 47:

Development of irrigation has resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in which of the following state?

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Jharkhand
  • (C) Himachal Pradesh
  • (D) Sikkim
Correct Answer: (1) Rajasthan
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the state where, according to the passage, the development of irrigation led to a higher population concentration.


Step 2: Locating the Answer in the Passage:

The end of the first paragraph provides examples of how certain developments led to population growth in thinly populated areas. It says: "However, development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in a moderate to high concentration of population..."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage explicitly associates the development of irrigation with Rajasthan. Quick Tip: Look for examples given in parentheses in the text. Authors often use them to link a general concept (like irrigation) to a specific place (like Rajasthan), and these are common sources for comprehension questions.


Question 48:

Which of the following is NOT a socio-economic or historical factor of the distribution of the population?

  • (A) Evolution of settled agriculture
  • (B) Industrialisation and urbanisation
  • (C) Development of transport network
  • (D) Availability of water
Correct Answer: (4) Availability of water
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify which option is NOT listed in the passage as a "socio-economic or historical factor."


Step 2: Analyzing the Passage:

The passage categorizes factors into two main groups: physical and socio-economic/historical.

The first paragraph discusses physical factors: "...climate along with the terrain and the availability of water largely determine the pattern..."

The second paragraph discusses socio-economic and historical factors: "...important ones are the evolution of settled agriculture... development of transport networks, industrialisation and urbanisation."

Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are listed as socio-economic or historical factors. Option 4, "Availability of water," is explicitly listed as a physical factor.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Availability of water is classified as a physical factor, not a socio-economic or historical one, in the passage. Quick Tip: Pay attention to how the author categorizes information. The passage clearly separates "physical factors" from "socio-economic and historical factors." Identifying which category an item belongs to is key to answering this type of question.


Question 49:

Urban regions of India have a high concentration of the population due to ___________.

  • (A) Industrial development and urbanisation
  • (B) Agricultural development
  • (C) Pattern of human settlement
  • (D) Availability of mineral and energy resources
Correct Answer: (1) Industrial development and urbanisation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the reason behind the high population concentration in India's urban regions, as stated in the passage.


Step 2: Locating the Answer in the Passage:

The last sentence of the second paragraph states: "On the other hand, the urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur have high concentrations of population due to industrial development and urbanisation, drawing large numbers of rural-urban migrants."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage directly attributes the high population concentration in urban areas to industrial development and urbanisation. Quick Tip: Look for trigger words like "due to," "because of," or "as a result of." These phrases explicitly state cause-and-effect relationships, which are often the focus of comprehension questions.


Question 50:

Which factor has resulted in a moderate to high concentration of population in areas of the Peninsular States which were previously very thinly populated?

  • (A) Availability of mineral and energy resources
  • (B) Development of irrigation facilities
  • (C) Development of transport network
  • (D) Socio-economic and historical factors
Correct Answer: (3) Development of transport network
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the specific factor that led to increased population concentration in the Peninsular States, according to the passage.


Step 2: Locating the Answer in the Passage:

The end of the first paragraph lists several factors that increased population in previously sparse areas: "...development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in a moderate to high concentration of population..."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage explicitly links the "development of transport network" to the increased population concentration in the Peninsular States. Quick Tip: Again, the use of parentheses to provide specific examples is crucial here. The passage directly pairs "Peninsular States" with "development of transport network," making the answer clear and unambiguous.

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