CUET PG Zoology 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Oct 1, 2025

The CUET PG Zoology exam in 2025 will be conducted between 13th May and 3rd June, and candidates will be able to download the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF after the exam. The test evaluates a candidate’s understanding of animal physiology, ecology, cell biology, genetics, evolution, ethology, biochemistry, developmental biology, and other core concepts relevant to the field of Zoology.

Students are required to attempt 75 questions in 60 minutes, with a total of 300 marks. Each correct answer awards 4 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect response.

CUET PG Zoology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Zoology Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

 


CUET PG Zoology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

What is the sequence of the template DNA for an mRNA with the sequence?
5'-CAUUGGCCAAGG-3'

  • (A) 5'-CATTGGCCAAGG-3'
  • (B) 5'-CCTTGGCCAATG-3'
  • (C) 5'-GTAACCGGTTCC-3'
  • (D) 5'-CAUUGGCCAAGG-3'

Question 2:

Which type of polymerase activity is shown by the enzyme telomerase?

  • (A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  • (B) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • (C) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  • (D) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Question 3:

If the growth medium of a bacterial strain contains both glucose and lactose, how does it affect the lac operon?

A. CAP protein binds lac promoter
B. Repressor binds lac operator
C. CAP protein does not bind lac promoter
D. Repressor does not bind lac operator

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B
  • (B) C and D
  • (C) A and D
  • (D) B and C

Question 4:

Which one of the following correctly describes the role of signal recognition particles?

  • (A) Aid in the decoding of the information carried by the signal peptide for the secretory protein.
  • (B) Aid in recognizing the antigen for inflammatory response.
  • (C) Aid in receiving coated vesicles for exocytosis.
  • (D) Aid in deciphering the genetic code for protein synthesis.

Question 5:

Which of the following is the most stable DNA configuration under normal physiological conditions?

  • (A) A-DNA
  • (B) B-DNA
  • (C) C-DNA
  • (D) Z-DNA

Question 6:

Arrange the following cell cycle stages in the correct order of their occurrence:

A. S phase
B. M phase
C. G1 phase
D. G2 phase

  • (A) D, B, C, A
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) C, A, D, B
  • (D) B, C, D, A

Question 7:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
  • (B) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

Question 8:

The approximate diameter of actin filaments is:

  • (A) 4 micrometer (\(\mu\)m)
  • (B) 8 micrometer (\(\mu\)m)
  • (C) 4 nanometer (nm)
  • (D) 8 nanometer (nm)

Question 9:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
  • (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (C) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

Question 10:

Which of these are executioner caspases?

A. Caspase 3
B. Caspase 6
C. Caspase 8
D. Caspase 5

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) C and D only
  • (D) A and D only

Question 11:

Which larval form of Fasciola hepatica has a motile tail?

  • (A) Miracidium
  • (B) Redia
  • (C) Sporocyst
  • (D) Cercaria

Question 12:

In the life cycle of a Plasmodium, once the sporozoite enters the blood of the host, it invades the hepatic portal system, resulting in occurrence of change in the host body, leading to malaria

A. Sporozoite enters the hepatocytes and divides by schizogony leading to formation of cryptomerozoites
B. Inside RBCs, the micro-metacryptozoites become rounded and modify into a young trophozoites.
C. As the trophozoite grows in size, a central vacuole is developed so that the nucleus is pushed to one side into the peripheral cytoplasm, leading to amoeboid stage.
D. In Amoeboid stage the small red eosinophils granules appear in the cytoplasm of the host corpulses as Schuffner's granules

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 13:

During the process of conjugation in Paramecium, how many daughter Paramecia are formed from 2 parents?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 16

Question 14:

Which one of the following is a larval form of jelly fish?

  • (A) Amphiblastula
  • (B) Ephyra
  • (C) Redia
  • (D) Rhabditiform

Question 15:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

Question 16:

In the life history and development of sea star, numerous larval forms are formed. Arrange them in the order of their occurrence:

A. Dipleurula
B. Branchiolaria
C. Bipinnaria

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C
  • (B) A, C, B
  • (C) B, A, C
  • (D) C, B, A

Question 17:

Which one of the following belongs to class-Diplopoda?

  • (A) Balanus
  • (B) Sacculina
  • (C) Scolopendra
  • (D) Julus

Question 18:

How many somatic cells are present in C. elegans?

  • (A) 969
  • (B) 859
  • (C) 959
  • (D) 979

Question 19:

How many different type of gametes can potentially be produced by an organism with the genotype aaBbccdd?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 16

Question 20:

What is the difference between gynandromorphs and intersexes in Drosophila?

  • (A) Intersexes are genetically similar throughout their bodies, whereas gynandromorph consists of two genetically different tissues
  • (B) Intersexes are not genetically similar throughout their bodies, whereas gynandromorph genetically similar throughout their bodies
  • (C) Intersexes are sterile, whereas gynandromorphs are genetically similar throughout their bodies
  • (D) Intersexes are genetically similar throughout their bodies, whereas gynandromorph consists of four genetically different tissues

Question 21:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 22:

Which of the following statements are true?

A. When two or more genes co-exist on the same chromosome, they may violate the principle of independent assortment during meiosis.
B. Positive interference occurs when the presence of one chiasma increases the possibility of another chiasma occurring in the immediate vicinity.
C. The proportion of crossovers never exceeds 50%.
D. The Chi-square test can be used for segregation ratios and detection of linkage.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, C and D only

Question 23:

Based on the threshold range, at the X/A ratio of 0.67, the sex of Drosophila will be:

  • (A) Intersex
  • (B) Superfemale
  • (C) Supermale
  • (D) Male

Question 24:

In a population under Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium, out of a total of 592 people, 44 people were affected by a rare autosomal recessive disorder whereas the rest of the population was normal. How many individuals in this population have the heterozygous and homozygous dominant genotypes for this trait?

  • (A) 233 and 315, respectively.
  • (B) 315 and 233, respectively.
  • (C) 0.27 and 0.73, respectively.
  • (D) 0.73 and 0.27, respectively.

Question 25:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 26:

Which of the following phenomena can lead to microevolution?

A. Natural Selection
B. Sexual Selection
C. Genetic Drift

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) A, B and C

Question 27:

Which of the following statements are correct about the phenomenon of genetic drift?

A. It occurs in a small population.
B. It leads to the loss of genetic variation within population.
C. It doesn't change the allele frequency randomly.
D. It occurs in a large population.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) B and D only
  • (D) C and D only

Question 28:

The increase in the beak depth of Galápagos finches with a relative abundance of large seeds, is an example of

  • (A) Disruptive selection
  • (B) Directional selection
  • (C) Stabilizing selection
  • (D) Balancing selection

Question 29:

How many jaws are present in Aristotle's Lantern?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 4

Question 30:

The technique to mark, release and recapture is a practical method for

  • (A) Estimating the endangered species in a population.
  • (B) Estimating the population size of mobile animals
  • (C) Estimating the population size of umbrella species.
  • (D) Estimating the population size of indicator animals.

Question 31:

Any species that have been accidentally or deliberately transferred from their usual habitat to a new habitat whose abiotic conditions are also suitable for them are known as:

  • (A) Alien or invasive species
  • (B) Indicator species
  • (C) Threatened species
  • (D) Endangered species

Question 32:

The populations, showing relatively constant density around the carrying capacity of the environment, is called

  • (A) r-selected
  • (B) m-selected
  • (C) k-selected
  • (D) p-selected

Question 33:

Which one of the following statements is correct for Mollisol?

  • (A) It is the fertile soil found in low precipitation areas.
  • (B) It is the infertile soil found in high precipitation areas.
  • (C) It is the fertile soil found in high precipitation areas.
  • (D) It is the infertile soil found in low precipitation areas

Question 34:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (B) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (C) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
  • (D) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

Question 35:

Arrange the given events to correct sequence in relation to translation:

A. Adenylation of amino acid and aminoacyl-tRNA charging.

B. Formation of Peptide bond.

C. Recruitment of ribosome to the mRNA.

D. Correct positioning of charged tRNA into the P-site of the ribosome.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, D, B
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 36:

The WBC count of a group of athletes in a team was estimated to be 7900, 9000, 7800, 8300, 2900, 4545, 5100, 3700, 9900 and 4545 per mm3 of blood. Calculate the median WBC count of this group of individuals.

  • (A) 2900 per mm\(^3\)
  • (B) 4545 per mm\(^3\)
  • (C) 6369 per mm\(^3\)
  • (D) 6450 per mm\(^3\)

Question 37:

Which of the following statements is not applicable to the mode of a dataset?

  • (A) There can be more than one mode for a particular dataset.
  • (B) It is affected by extreme values in the dataset.
  • (C) It represents the most frequently occurring value of the dataset.
  • (D) It is calculated by inspection method and grouping method.

Question 38:

The number of fish caught each day by a fisherman for 10 consecutive days was reported to be 62, 58, 56, 57, 62, 59, 62, 57, 64, 63. What is the standard deviation of this dataset?

  • (A) 2.9
  • (B) 8.44
  • (C) 3.60
  • (D) 76

Question 39:

Which one of the following animals belongs to the oviparous mammal group?

  • (A) Macropus
  • (B) Pteropus
  • (C) Rattus
  • (D) Platypus

Question 40:

How is the mean deviation calculated for a given dataset?

  • (A) Adding all the values of the given dataset.
  • (B) Dividing the sum of all the values of the given dataset by the number of observations in the dataset.
  • (C) Dividing the sum of all the deviations from the mean by the number of observations in the dataset.
  • (D) Dividing the sum of squares of all the deviations from mean by the number of observations in the dataset.

Question 41:

Ciliated simple columnar epithelium located at: -

A. Lining of some bronchioles of the respiratory tract

B. Cover surface of ovary

C. Larger ducts of many glands

D. Ventricles of brain

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 42:

Which one of the following statements is applicable to satellite cells?

  • (A) These cells encircle PNS axons. They form the myelin sheath around the axons.
  • (B) These are the flat cells surrounding the cell bodies of neurons in PNS ganglia.
  • (C) These are cuboidal to columnar cells arranged in a single layer that possess microvilli and cilia.
  • (D) These are small cells with slender processes that give off numerous spinelike projections.

Question 43:

The trigeminal nerve is the largest nerve with following branches:

A. Olfactory

B. Ophthalmic

C. Maxillary

D. Mandibular

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, C and D only

Question 44:

What is Ferritin?

  • (A) It is an iron storage protein in muscle fibers, liver cells and macrophages of the spleen and liver. Iron detaches from transferrin and attaches to ferritin.
  • (B) It is a non-iron portion of heme which is converted to biliverdin.
  • (C) It is plasma protein which transfers free iron into the blood stream.
  • (D) It is an iron-containing molecule which transports oxygen from the blood stream to the tissues.

Question 45:

Calculate the Harmonic Mean of the following data:
10    20    40    60    120

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 27.5
  • (C) 32.5
  • (D) 50

Question 46:

What is the correct sequence of four steps of the contraction cycle in muscles?

A. Power stroke

B. Attachment of myosin to actin

C. ATP hydrolysis

D. Detachment of myosin from actin

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) C, B, A, D
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 47:

Arrange the following enzymes of the citric acid cycle in the correct sequence.

A. Aconitase

B. Fumarase

C. Malate dehydrogenase

D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D, A, B, C
  • (B) B, D, C, A
  • (C) C, D, A, B
  • (D) A, D, B, C

Question 48:

In Glycolipids and sphingolipids, glycerol is replaced by which amino alcohol?

  • (A) Sphingomyelins
  • (B) Gangliosides
  • (C) Sphingosine
  • (D) Sulfatides

Question 49:

At low substrate concentration, the initial velocity of reaction is described as __________. However, as substrate concentration increases, the reaction saturates and reaches a __________.

  • (A) Hyperbola and Plateau
  • (B) Plateau and Hyperbola
  • (C) Straight line and Hyperbola
  • (D) Straight line and straight line

Question 50:

Cellulose is a homopolymer of:

  • (A) Alpha glucose
  • (B) Beta glucose
  • (C) Alpha fructose
  • (D) Beta fructose

Question 51:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
  • (B) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 52:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
  • (D) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Question 53:

What is the full form of the IMZ abbreviation?

  • (A) Invaginating marginal zone
  • (B) Involuting marginal zone
  • (C) Ingression marginal zone
  • (D) Inducing marginal zone

Question 54:

What is the function of yolk sac?

  • (A) It contains blood vessels that exchange gases with the outside environment.
  • (B) It stores waste products.
  • (C) It enables the embryo to float in a fluid environment that protects it from desiccation.
  • (D) It enables nutrient uptake and the development of the circulatory system.

Question 55:

In Amphibia, gastrulation begins at:

  • (A) The part of the egg opposite to the entry of the sperm.
  • (B) Animal pole
  • (C) Vegetal pole
  • (D) Dorsal blastopore lip.

Question 56:

Which one of the following zones is absent in pond ecosystems?

  • (A) Littoral Zone
  • (B) Limnetic Zone
  • (C) Profundal Zone
  • (D) Euphotic Zone

Question 57:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 58:

Arrange the following stages of ecological succession in the correct sequence

A. Ecesis
B. Nudation
C. Aggregation
D. Reaction

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, C, D
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 59:

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Photochemical Smog?

A. It is an oxidizing smog.
B. It is formed by the reaction between NO\(_2\) and hydrocarbons.
C. It is a reducing smog.
D. It is formed in the presence of UV-radiation.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) C and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 60:

The Air Quality Index is measured using the Criteria Pollutants. Which one of the following is not a Criteria Pollutant?

  • (A) Sulfur Dioxide
  • (B) Lead
  • (C) Carbon dioxide
  • (D) Ozone

Question 61:

Which of the following factors can influence the process of weathering?

A. Rock type and structure
B. Slope
C. Climatic Conditions
D. Time

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A and D only

Question 62:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Question 63:

Monoclonal antibodies differ from polyclonal antibodies in their property of reacting with specific

  • (A) Antigen
  • (B) Clone of cell
  • (C) Epitope
  • (D) Antibody

Question 64:

Which of the following diseases is not an autoimmune disease?

  • (A) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (B) Lupus erythematosus
  • (C) Grave's disease
  • (D) Bovine spongiform encephalitis

Question 65:

Which of the following cells instruct the abnormal or virally infected cells to commit suicide?

  • (A) Natural killer cells
  • (B) B-cells
  • (C) Dendritic cells
  • (D) T-cells

Question 66:

Which one of the following immunoglobulin is responsible for atopic allergy?

  • (A) IgG
  • (B) IgM
  • (C) IgE
  • (D) IgA

Question 67:

Class I MHC molecules present peptides to which of the following cell type?

  • (A) CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells
  • (B) CD4+ T-helper cells
  • (C) Dendritic cells
  • (D) Macrophages

Question 68:

Which one of the following best describes the innate immune response?

  • (A) It is an immediate and relatively broad acting response.
  • (B) It is a delayed response but highly specific.
  • (C) It is acquired by vaccination.
  • (D) It is acquired in life.

Question 69:

What are chemokines?

  • (A) Cell surface receptors
  • (B) Specialized chemotactic cytokine
  • (C) Any foreign antigen
  • (D) Chemical based antibodies

Question 70:

Which one of the following best describes the application of DNA microarray?

  • (A) To investigate the level of gene expression in a cancerous cell
  • (B) To separate small biomolecules based on their charge.
  • (C) To amplify a DNA sequence.
  • (D) To study the protein synthesis in a cell.

Question 71:

What is the correct sequence of steps in the genetic engineering of E.coli for insulin production?

A. Obtaining a copy of the human insulin gene by isolating mRNA
B. Switching on gene action.
C. Identifying transformed bacteria prior to cloning
D. Inserting the DNA into a plasmid vector and inserting the plasmid vector into the host bacterium

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A,B,C, D
  • (B) A,C,B,D
  • (C) A,D,C,B
  • (D) C,B,D,A

Question 72:

A multiple cloning site:

  • (A) Contains several copies of a cloned gene.
  • (B) Allows multiple choices for choosing organisms for cloning.
  • (C) Allows multiple choices for choosing restriction enzymes for cloning.
  • (D) Contains multiple copies of the same restriction enzyme.

Question 73:

Southern blotting procedure does not include:

  • (A) Digestion and separation of DNA fragments using agarose gel electrophoresis.
  • (B) Ligation of the target DNA into a cloning vector.
  • (C) Transfer of DNA fragments to a nitrocellulose membrane.
  • (D) Hybridization of the membrane with a labelled probe.

Question 74:

The brain and spinal cord develop from ectoderm arranged in a tubular structure called the neural tube. The anterior part of the neural tube expands, and constrictions appear that create multiple regions. Arrange the parts of the embryonic brain chambers in a 5 week embryo from top to bottom.

A. Diencephalon
B. Myelencephalon
C. Metencephalon
D. Mesencephalon
E. Telencephalon

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D, E
  • (B) A, E, C, D, B
  • (C) E, A, D, C, B
  • (D) C, B, D, A, E

Question 75:

Which one of the following diseases can be corrected by gene therapy?

  • (A) Sleeping sickness
  • (B) Measles
  • (C) AIDS
  • (D) Cystic fibrosis

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