CUET PG Water Engineering and Management 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Sep 30, 2025

The CUET PG 2025 Water Engineering and Management exam in 2025 will be conducted between 13th May and 3rd June, and candidates will be able to download the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF after the exam. The test evaluates a candidate’s understanding of media theories, communication models, journalism, advertising, public relations, and current affairs relevant to the field of mass communication.

Students are required to attempt 75 questions in 60 minutes, with a total of 300 marks. Each correct answer awards 4 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect response.

CUET PG 2025 Water Engineering and Management 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG 2025 Water Engineering and Management Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions


CUET PG 2025 Water Engineering and Management 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The minimum size of glass tubing that can be used to measure water level, if the capillary rise in the tube is not to exceed 0.25 cm. (Take surface tension of water in contact air as 0.0075 kg(f)/m).

  • (A) 1.2 cm
  • (B) 1 cm
  • (C) 0.8 cm
  • (D) 0.6 cm

Question 2:

For the flow through a pipe, if Reynolds's number is greater than 4000, it indicates:

  • (A) Streamline flow
  • (B) Laminar flow
  • (C) Steady flow
  • (D) Turbulent flow

Question 3:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 4:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (V)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 5:

Dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 2.2 poise and specific gravity is 0.7. Then kinematic viscosity in SI units is:

  • (1) \( 3.14 \times 10^{-4} \, m^2/s \)
  • (2) \( 3.14 \times 10^{-3} \, m^2/s \)
  • (3) \( 1.5 \times 10^{-4} \, stokes \)
  • (4) \( 1.5 \times 10^{-3} \, stokes \)

Question 6:

In order to determine the workability of a concrete mixture, the recommended tests are:

  • (A) Flow test
  • (B) Compaction Factor test
  • (C) Flexural strength test
  • (D) Slump test
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (A), (B) and (D) only

Question 7:

In proportion of concrete mix, 1:12 (M 25) represents

  • (A) Cement : fine aggregates : water
  • (B) Fine aggregates : cement : coarse aggregates
  • (C) Coarse aggregates : fine aggregates : cement
  • (D) Cement : fine aggregates : coarse aggregates

Question 8:

As per IS code, the standard size of the brick in mm is:

  • (A) 220 x 120 x 120
  • (B) 190 x 90 x 90
  • (C) 200 x 100 x 50
  • (D) 210 x 110 x 110

Question 9:

Consider the following compounds of cement:

  • (A) C\(_2\)S
  • (B) C\(_4\)AF
  • (C) C\(_3\)S
  • (D) C\(_3\)A
    The correct sequence of these compounds in the decreasing order of rate of hydration is:
  • (1) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (2) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Question 10:

The length of the survey line was measured with a 30 m tape and was found to be 1000 m. As a check, the length was again measured with another 20 m tape, and was found to be 1010 m. On comparing the 30 m tape with a test gauge, it was found to be 0.10 m too long. Find the actual length of the 20 m chain.

  • (1) 19.87 m
  • (2) 20.87 m
  • (3) 21.87 m
  • (4) 22.87 m

Question 11:

The magnetic bearing of line AB is 88°45'. Calculate the true bearing if the magnetic declination is 5°30' east.

  • (1) 93°15'
  • (2) 83°15'
  • (3) 94°15'
  • (4) 84°15'

Question 12:

The R.L. of the floor of a factory is 30.500. Staff reading on the floor is 1.610 m and staff reading when the staff is held inverted with the bottom touching the tie beam of the roof truss is 3.700 m. Find the height of the tie beam above the floor.

  • (1) 6.310 m
  • (2) 5.310 m
  • (3) 7.310 m
  • (4) 4.310 m

Question 13:

The fore bearing of line AB is 15°30'. What will be the back bearing of the line AB?

  • (1) 196°30'
  • (2) 197°30'
  • (3) 165°30'
  • (4) 195°30'

Question 14:

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Question 15:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Question 16:

Consider the following characteristics of contour:

  • (A) A uniform slope is indicated when contour lines are spaced uniformly
  • (B) Contour lines cannot go anywhere but can close on themselves
  • (C) A set of closed contours indicates a depression or a summit, according to the lower or higher values being respectively inward
  • (D) A contour is an imaginary line passing through the points of an equal level on the surface of earth
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 17:

Consider the following statements:

  • (A) Engineering survey is used to collect requisite data for planning, design and execution of engineering projects.
  • (B) Reconnaissance survey is used to determine the feasibility and estimation of a scheme.
  • (C) Route survey is used for depiction of topography of a region.
  • (D) Archaeological survey is used for determining unearthing relics of antiquity.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), and (D) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 18:

As per Indian standard specifications, the length of one link in 30 meter chain is:

  • (1) 20 cm
  • (2) 30 cm
  • (3) 40 cm
  • (4) 50 cm

Question 19:

What is the volume of a 6 m deep tank having rectangular shaped top 6 m \(\times\) 4 m and bottom 4 m \(\times\) 2 m? (use mean-area method)

  • (1) 92 m\(^3\)
  • (2) 94 m\(^3\)
  • (3) 96 m\(^3\)
  • (4) 90 m\(^3\)

Question 20:

Match List-I with List-II.

  • Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Question 21:

What will be the degree of BMD curve, if the load intensity is of \(n\) degree?

  • (1) \(n + 2\)
  • (2) \(n + 1\)
  • (3) \(n + 3\)
  • (4) \(n + 4\)

Question 22:

A beam of triangular cross-section is subjected to a shear force of 50kN. The base width of the section is 250 mm and the height is 200 mm. The beam is placed with its base horizontal. The shear stress at the neutral axis will be nearly-

  • (1) 1.2 N/mm\(^2\)
  • (2) 3.2 N/mm\(^2\)
  • (3) 3.7 N/mm\(^2\)
  • (4) 2.4 N/mm\(^2\)

Question 23:

Earliest finish of an activity is always:

  • (1) Less than earliest event of the following node
  • (2) Greater than earliest event of the following node
  • (3) Less than or equal to earliest event of the following node
  • (4) Greater than or equal to earliest event of the following node

Question 24:

Consider the following salient points in a stress-strain curve of mild steel bar:

(A) Yield point
(B) Breaking point
(C) Proportionality limit
(D) Ultimate point

The correct sequence in which they occur while testing the mild steel bar in tension from initial zero strain to failure is:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C) only
  • (3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 25:

What are the support reactions at the fixed end of the cantilever beam of 3 m length as shown in the diagram below?


  • (1) 120 kN, 120 kN-m
  • (2) 120 kN, 240 kN-m
  • (3) 240 kN, 120 kN-m
  • (4) 120 kN, 60 kN-m

Question 26:

The failure theory which is the most conservative for ductile materials is

  • (1) Maximum principal stress theory
  • (2) Maximum shear stress theory
  • (3) Maximum shear strain energy theory
  • (4) Maximum principal strain theory

Question 27:

The reduction in project time normally results in

  • (1) Increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost
  • (2) Decreasing the direct cost and increasing the indirect cost
  • (3) Increasing the direct cost and the indirect cost both
  • (4) Decreasing the direct cost and the indirect cost both

Question 28:

A point load applied at shear center induces

  • (1) Zero shear force
  • (2) Zero bending
  • (3) Pure twisting
  • (4) Pure bending

Question 29:

A beam has the same section throughout its length with moment of inertia \(I = 1 \times 10^8 \, mm^4\). It is subjected to a uniform BM = 40 kN·m, \(E = 2 \times 10^5 \, N/mm^2\). What is the radius of curvature of the circle into which the beam will bend in the form of an arc of a circle?

  • (1) 1000 m
  • (2) 500 m
  • (3) 400 m
  • (4) 350 m

Question 30:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to air pressure?


(A) High pressure is related to cloudy sky and wet weather

(B) Low pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies

(C) The air always moves from high pressure to low pressure areas

(D) Low pressure involves air rising from earth's surface



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (C) and (D) only

Question 31:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 32:

The Penman’s evapotranspiration equation is based on

  • (1) Water budget method
  • (2) Energy balance approach only
  • (3) Mass transfer approach only
  • (4) Energy balance and mass transfer approach

Question 33:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (2) . (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) . (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) . (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Question 34:

The coefficient of variation of the rainfall for existing six rain gauge stations in the catchment was found to be 29.54%. The optimum number of stations in the catchment for an admissible 10% error in the estimation of mean rainfall will be:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 12

Question 35:

Potential evapotranspiration (PET) be denoted as

  • (1) Evapotranspiration when there is sufficient moisture available in a fully vegetated area
  • (2) Evapotranspiration of a forest area
  • (3) Actual evapotranspiration of a crop before application of irrigation water
  • (4) Amount of water needed to bring the moisture content of soil to its field capacity

Question 36:

What would be the evaporation from the pond (in mm), if the pan evaporation is 45 mm and the pan coefficient is 0.70?

  • (1) 13.5 mm
  • (2) 19.28 mm
  • (3) 31.5 mm
  • (4) 64.28 mm

Question 37:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Question 38:

The rainfall on five successive days on a catchment was 2 cm, 6 cm, 9 cm, 5 cm, and 3 cm. If the φ-index for the storm is taken as 3 cm/day, the total direct runoff from the catchment will be:

  • (1) 26 cm
  • (2) 16 cm
  • (3) 11 cm
  • (4) 13 cm

Question 39:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Question 40:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 41:

A sample of saturated soil has a water content of 29.6%. If the specific gravity of solids is 2.7, the dry unit weight (in gram/cm\(^3\)) of the soil is equal to:

  • (1) 0.5
  • (2) 0.75
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 1.5

Question 42:

The most expansive clay mineral is:

  • (1) Quartz
  • (2) Montmorillonite
  • (3) Kaolinite
  • (4) Illite

Question 43:

The levels of soil density are given below:

  • (A) Saturated density
  • (B) Submerged density
  • (C) Wet density
  • (D) Dry density
    Choose the most appropriate sequence in the decreasing order of magnitude of the densities of a soil sample:
  • (1) (C), (B), (A), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (3) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Question 44:

By placing a soil sample at 105° C for 24 hours in an oven, which of the following statements are correct?

  • (A) Hygroscopic moisture is lost
  • (B) Capillary water is lost
  • (C) Free water is lost
  • (D) Structural water is lost
    Which of the above statements are correct?
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Question 45:

Consider the following statements related to pore pressure parameter \( A \), \( A_f \) (value of \( A \) at failure) and \( R \) (over consolidation ratio):

  • (A) \( A_f \) is zero when \( R = 1 \)
  • (B) \( A_f \) is negative when \( R > 4 \)
  • (C) \( A_f \) increases as \( R \) decreases
  • (D) \( A_f \) decreases as \( R \) decreases
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) and (C) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B) and (D) only

Question 46:

If a sample of clay has a cohesion of 80 kPa and an angle of shearing resistance of 10°, the shear strength of clay at a normal stress of 100 kPa will be:

  • (1) 97.63 kPa
  • (2) 98.48 kPa
  • (3) 78.78 kPa
  • (4) 95.34 kPa

Question 47:

When effective stress on a normally consolidated clay is increased from 25 kN/m\(^2\) to 50 kN/m\(^2\), settlement becomes 5mm. If the stress is increased to 175 kN/m\(^2\), settlement will increase to (assuming coefficient of volume-decrease to be constant):

  • (1) 25 mm
  • (2) 30 mm
  • (3) 35 mm
  • (4) 40 mm

Question 48:

An open channel of symmetric right-angled triangular cross-section is conveying a discharge \( Q \). If \( g \) is the acceleration due to gravity, what is the critical depth for this channel?

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{Q^2}{g} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}} \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{Q^2}{g} \right)^{\frac{1}{5}} \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{Q^2}{g} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}} \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{Q^2}{g} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} \)

Question 49:

The sequent ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in a horizontal rectangular channel is 16.48. The Froude number of the Supercritical stream is:

  • (1) 4.0
  • (2) 3.0
  • (3) 12.0
  • (4) 14.0

Question 50:

Which one of the following condition is a typical characteristics of critical flow? (Symbols have their usual meaning)

  • (1) \( \frac{Q^2 T}{gA^3} = 1 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{Q^2}{gA^2} = 1 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{Q^2}{gA^2} = 2 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{Q^2 T}{gA^2} = 1 \)

Question 51:

In a field test of a formation having a porosity of 25%, the hydraulic gradient was found to be 0.04, and the velocity of a tracer added to the ground water was 6 cm/h. The permeability of the aquifer is about:

  • (1) 1 cm/s
  • (2) 4 cm/s
  • (3) 0.004 cm/s
  • (4) 0.01 cm/s

Question 52:

Sequentially arrange the following steps in the water treatment process:

(A). Screening
(B). Filtration
(C). Sedimentation
(D). Disinfection

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 53:

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Question 54:

The maximum rainfall intensity at a given location

  • (A) increases with increase in duration
  • (B) decreases with increase in duration
  • (C) is independent of the duration of the rainfall
  • (D) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases with increase in duration

Question 55:

Consider the following statements regarding the design of channels by the theory of Lacey’s or Kennedy’s.

  • (A) Theoretical concept of silt transportation remains same in both the theories.
  • (B) Lacey improves upon Kennedy theory.
  • (C) There are no defects in either the theories of Lacey or of Kennedy.
  • (D) Lacey and Kennedy theory related to designing a lined canal/channels. % Choose the correct answer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A) and (D) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 56:

Dibbling is the process of:

  • (1) placing seeds in holes made in seedbed and covering them
  • (2) applying fertilizer by hand with the main objective of spreading it uniformly over the entire field
  • (3) removing weeds with the use of a tool through cutting vegetative parts
  • (4) applying chemicals in powder form

Question 57:

Which of the following remain useful for engine selection and in choosing desirable operating points for an engine?

  • (1) Engine performance map
  • (2) Engine efficiency map
  • (3) Engine testing map
  • (4) Engine speed map

Question 58:

Which of the following irrigation method is not suitable for those crops having high water demand?

  • (1) Border strip method
  • (2) Check basin method
  • (3) Sprinkler method
  • (4) Furrow method

Question 59:

Which of the following expression stands true for the WME (mechanization index)?
- LM = Average sum of the total work done by Tractor machine.
- LT = Average sum of the total work done by Human + Average sum of the total work done by Tractor machine.

  • (1) WME = LM \(\times\) LT
  • (2) WME = \(\dfrac{LM}{LT}\) \(\times\) 100
  • (3) WME = \(\dfrac{LM}{LT}\)
  • (4) WME = LM / LT

Question 60:

Traction prediction equations developed by Brixius can be used for the prediction of:

  • (A) gross traction ratio
  • (B) motion resistance ratio
  • (C) coefficient of traction
  • (D) cone index
    % Choose the correct answer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 61:

The plough consists of a:

  • (A) Common main frame
  • (B) Disc beam assemblies
  • (C) Heavy spring-loaded furrow wheel
  • (D) Gauge wheel
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 62:

Which of the following is not connected with tractor performance test?

  • (1) Engine output (measured by belt or power take off dynamometers)
  • (2) Fuel economy
  • (3) Drawbar pull, drawbar horsepower and drawbar fuel company
  • (4) Braked and driven force

Question 63:

A heat engine remain as a device which converts heat energy into:

  • (1) Chemical energy
  • (2) Mechanical energy
  • (3) Kinetic energy
  • (4) Potential energy

Question 64:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 65:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 66:

The desert development program was initiated in the year of:

  • (1) 1967-68
  • (2) 1977-78
  • (3) 1987-88
  • (4) 1997-98

Question 67:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 68:

A watershed of 1500 hectares is discharging through a drain at an average rate of 2.5 m³/s. Calculate the drainage coefficient. If the drainage coefficient is 3 cm, what would be the discharge through the drain?

  • (1) 0.11 m³/s
  • (2) 0.22 m³/s
  • (3) 0.33 m³/s
  • (4) 0.44 m³/s

Question 69:

Which of the following is not a colour order system?

  • (1) Munsell
  • (2) CIELAB
  • (3) MATALAB
  • (4) Hunter Lab

Question 70:

In general, the storage principles that may help to prevent the loss and spoilage of the commodity includes:

  • (A) Lower the moisture content, longer the storage life
  • (B) Lower the temperature, longer the shelf-life of the commodity
  • (C) Airtight/thermally insulated structures that prevent spoilage of perishables and semi-perishables
  • (D) Enzymatic activities do not play a major role
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 71:

The essential proteins present in wheat grain include:

  • (A) Albumins
  • (B) Globulins
  • (C) Glutenin
  • (D) Gliadins
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 72:

Radappertization is a method used for food preservation in which:

  • (1) Food is preserved by addition of bacteriocin
  • (2) Food is sterilized by radiation
  • (3) Food is preserved by heating
  • (4) Food is preserved by dehydration

Question 73:

Probiotics usually consist of:

  • (A) Lactobacillus
  • (B) Saccharomyces boulardii
  • (C) Bifidobacterium
  • (D) Zymomonas
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 74:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 75:

The maximum limit of grain moisture content (% wet basis) for safe storage of raw and parboiled rice be:

  • (1) 11 and 12
  • (2) 13 and 14
  • (3) 14 and 15
  • (4) 15 and 16

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General1750
sc1650

In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

Comments


No Comments To Show