The CUET PG Nanoscience exam in 2025 will be conducted between 13th May and 3rd June, and candidates will be able to download the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF after the exam. The test assesses a candidate’s knowledge in areas such as nanomaterials, quantum mechanics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, surface science, and applications of nanotechnology across interdisciplinary domains.
Students are required to attempt 75 questions in 60 minutes, with a total of 300 marks. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect response.
CUET PG Nanoscience 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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CUET PG Nanoscience 2025 Question Paper with Solutions
Question 1:
Micro-organisms responsible for nitrification are
- (1) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
- (2) Nostoc and Anabaena
- (3) Rhizobium and Azotobacter
- (4) Clostridium and Pseudomonas
Question 2:
Widal test is designed specifically for the diagnosis of
- (1) Tuberculosis
- (2) Typhoid
- (3) Dengue
- (4) Chikungunya
Question 3:
The genetic material in retroviruses are
- (1) RNA
- (2) ssDNA
- (3) dsDNA
- (4) ds circular DNA
Question 4:
Barr body is found in
- (1) Normal female germ cell
- (2) Normal male germ cells
- (3) Normal female somatic cells
- (4) Normal male somatic cells
Question 5:
Superoxide dismutase is involved in the conversion of
- (1) NADP to NADPH
- (2) Superoxide to Hydrogen peroxide
- (3) Hydrogen peroxide to hyphohalite
- (4) FAD to FADH
Question 6:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a secondary immune response?
- (1) IgG isotype
- (2) Low affinity antibodies
- (3) High affinity antibodies
- (4) Short or no Lag phase
Question 7:
Malignant cancer cells have all of the following properties except
- (1) unregulated cell division
- (2) inhibition of angiogenesis
- (3) resistance to apoptosis
- (4) cellular immortality
Question 8:
How do eukaryotic genome differ from prokaryotic genomes?
- (1) DNA is circular and single stranded in prokaryotes
- (2) Intervening sequences are present in eukaryotic DNA
- (3) DNA is complexed with histones in prokaryotes
- (4) DNA is organised into operons in eukaryotes
Question 9:
Each individual antigenic determinant of the variable region of the antibody is referred to as:
- (1) paratope
- (2) epitope
- (3) agretope
- (4) idiotope
Question 10:
Which of the following physiological effects is caused in plants by gibberellic acid?
- (1) Shortening of genetically tall plants
- (2) Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
- (3) Rooting in stem cuttings
- (4) Yellowing of young leaves
Question 11:
Which of the following is incorrect about racemic mixture?
- (1) Racemic mixture causes finite rotation of plane polarized light
- (2) It is often designated as (±)
- (3) (+)-2-butanol is a racemic mixture
- (4) Plane polarized light remains invariant inside a racemic mixture
Question 12:
The Russian Chemist, Mendeleev, is remembered for organizing the elements into periodic table. He received many honours, the greatest of which is having an element named after him. Element Mendelevium.
- (1) 100
- (2) 101
- (3) 102
- (4) 103
Question 13:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a catalyst?
- (1) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction
- (2) A catalyst increases the speed of a reaction
- (3) Only a small quantity of catalyst is needed in a chemical reaction
- (4) A catalyst is used up during the reaction
Question 14:
Reduction has taken place if a substance......
- (1) gains oxygen
- (2) increase its oxidation state
- (3) gains hydrogen
- (4) loses electrons
Question 15:
Reaction of alkanes with halogens such as chlorine and bromine proceeds through.......
- (1) Free radical substitution mechanism
- (2) Electrophilic substitution mechanism
- (3) Nucleophilic substitution mechanism
- (4) Decomposition mechanism
Question 16:
…………is the breaking down of long chain hydrocarbons into smaller molecules.
- (1) Decomposition
- (2) Catenation
- (3) Cracking
- (4) Combustion
Question 17:
Which of the following set consists of only planar species?
- (1) XeF\(_4\), BF\(_3\), PCl\(_3\)
- (2) XeF\(_4\), AlF\(_3\), NCl\(_3\)
- (3) XeF\(_6\), BF\(_3\), AlCl\(_3\)
- (4) XeF\(_4\), BF\(_3\), BCl\(_3\)
Question 18:
Which of the following is the most reactive aldehyde towards nucleophilic addition reactions?
- (1) Formaldehyde
- (2) Acetaldehyde
- (3) Crotonaldehyde
- (4) Benzaldehyde
Question 19:
Two isotonic solutions cannot have the same value of
- (1) osmotic pressure
- (2) density
- (3) elevation in boiling point
- (4) depression in freezing point
Question 20:
An aromatic compound will
(A) have (4n+2) \(\pi\) electrons
(B) be conjugated
(C) be planar
(D) be cyclic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
- (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
- (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
- (4) (A), (B) and (C) only
Question 21:
SI unit of pressure is
- (1) pascal
- (2) atm
- (3) torr
- (4) newton
Question 22:
The statement "There is a plenty of room at the bottom" was given by
- (1) Albert Einstein
- (2) Isaac Newton
- (3) Richard Feynman
- (4) Linus Pauling
Question 23:
Which of the following is a top down approach for the synthesis of nanomaterials?
- (1) Chemical vapour deposition
- (2) Physical vapour deposition
- (3) Ball Milling
- (4) Sol gel process
Question 24:
Millikan's famous oil drop experiment established that
- (1) Electric charge is quantized
- (2) Mass is quantized
- (3) Energy of an atom is quantized
- (4) Workfunction is quantized
Question 25:
Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
- (1) Electron-volt
- (2) Joule
- (3) Newton-metre
- (4) Pascal
Question 26:
An element naturally occurs in two isotopic forms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- (1) Mass number of the two isotopes are same.
- (2) Atomic number of the two isotopes are same.
- (3) Number of nucleons are same.
- (4) Number of neutrons are same.
Question 27:
The laws of reflection and refraction are true for all surfaces and pairs of media at the
- (1) point of incidence
- (2) point of refraction
- (3) angle of incidence
- (4) angle of reflection
Question 28:
The dimensions of electrical conductivity is
- (1) [TA]
- (2) [ML\(^3\)T\(^{-3}\)A\(^{-2}\)]
- (3) [M\(^{-1}\)L\(^{-3}\)T\(^3\)A\(^2\)]
- (4) [MLT\(^{-3}\)A\(^{-1}\)]
Question 29:
For the given carbon resistor, the resistance is \(2.4 \times 10^6 \, \Omega\). The sequence of colours in the strips provided on resistor is
- (1) red, yellow and green
- (2) red, yellow and blue
- (3) brown, orange and green
- (4) red, green and yellow
Question 30:
The packing fraction of a crystal structure is 74%. The crystal structure is
- (1) Simple cubic structure
- (2) Face-centred cubic structure
- (3) Body-centred cubic structure
- (4) Crystal structure of Tungsten
Question 31:
An s-orbital may combine with p-orbital provided that lobes of p-orbital are
- (1) perpendicular to the axis joining the nuclei
- (2) pointing along the axis joining the nuclei
- (3) making an acute angle with the axis joining the nuclei
- (4) making an obtuse angle with the axis joining the nuclei
Question 32:
Lyman spectral series is found in region of spectrum
- (1) Ultraviolet
- (2) Visible
- (3) Infra red
- (4) Microwave
Question 33:
Newton's laws of classical mechanics are replaced in quantum mechanics by.....
- (1) Snell's Law
- (2) Schrödinger's equations
- (3) Maxwell's equations
- (4) Laplace equation
Question 34:
Principal Quantum number represents
- (1) Quantization of angular momentum magnitude
- (2) Quantization of angular momentum direction
- (3) Quantization of energy
- (4) Space quantization
Question 35:
Which of the following is incorrect as per rules for Linear Combination of Atomic Orbitals (LCAO)?
- (1) The atomic orbitals overlap as much as possible
- (2) Overlap of orbitals has to be as low as possible
- (3) The atomic orbitals should be of same energy
- (4) Symmetry of two atomic orbitals must remain unchanged or both change symmetry in the same manner
Question 36:
If an element of high electronegativity combines with an electropositive metal then the product will be
- (1) an interstitial alloy
- (2) an ionic compound
- (3) a substitutional alloy
- (4) a simple mixture
Question 37:
Acetophenone and Benzaldehyde can be distinguished by:
- (A) Tollen's reagent
- (B) DNP test
- (C) Iodoform test
- (D) Carbylamine test
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
- (2) (A) and (C) only
- (3) (A) and (B) only
- (4) (B) and (D) only
Question 38:
Explanation for occurrence of monovalency in Group 13 is given by............
- (1) Pauli's Exclusion Principle
- (2) Hund's Rule
- (3) Inert Pair effect
- (4) Isotope effect
Question 39:
Which of the following is an example of electromagnetic waves?
- (1) Alpha rays
- (2) Beta plus rays
- (3) Beta minus rays
- (4) Gamma rays
Question 40:
Which of the following properties is not observed in the case of Superconductors?
- (1) Meissner Effect
- (2) Formation of Cooper pairs
- (3) Paramagnetism
- (4) Zero resistivity
Question 41:
Newton's law of cooling is a special case of
- (1) Wien's displacement law
- (2) Kirchhoff's law
- (3) Stefan's law
- (4) Planck's law
Question 42:
The centre of negative charge distribution in a molecule may or may not coincide with the centre of the positive charge distribution. If it does not coincide, each molecule has a permanent dipole moment. Such materials are called
- (1) polar materials
- (2) non-polar materials
- (3) ionic materials
- (4) covalent bonded materials
Question 43:
A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an isolated capacitor. The force between the plates will
- (1) increase
- (2) remain unchanged
- (3) decrease
- (4) become zero
Question 44:
If no thermal energy is developed as the charge goes through the battery, then such a battery is called
- (1) an ideal battery
- (2) an ideal dielectric
- (3) an ideal capacitor
- (4) an ideal resistor
Question 45:
In a discharge tube electric conduction does not occur due to the movement of
- (1) positive ions
- (2) negative ions
- (3) electrons
- (4) protons
Question 46:
Arrange the following in the order of increasing acidic strength
- (A) HCl
- (B) HBr
- (C) HI
- (D) HF
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (D), (A), (B), (C).
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (4) (C), (B), (A), (D).
Question 47:
Arrange the following in the order of increasing wavelength
- (A) Lyman
- (B) Balmer
- (C) Paschen
- (D) Brackett
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (D), (C), (B), (A).
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Question 48:
Arrange the following metals in the order of increasing work function
- (A) Potassium (K)
- (B) Cesium (Cs)
- (C) Platinum (Pt)
- (D) Calcium (Ca)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (3) (B), (A), (C), (D).
- (4) (C), (D), (A), (B).
Question 49:
Arrange the following in the order of increasing first ionization energy
- (A) Beryllium (Be)
- (B) Boron (B)
- (C) Lithium (Li)
- (D) Carbon (C)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (C), (B), (A), (D).
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (4) (D), (B), (A), (C).
Question 50:
Arrange the following components in the order of their function in power supply
- (A) Voltage regulator
- (B) Rectifier
- (C) Transformer
- (D) Filter
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (B), (A), (C), (D).
- (2) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Question 51:
Arrange the following events in an increasing order (calendar year)
- (A) Nobel Prize in Physics for Photoelectric Effect
- (B) Nobel Prize in Chemistry for Quantum Dots synthesis and Applications
- (C) Nobel Prize for the invention of Scanning Tunneling Electron Microscope
- (D) Nobel Prize to Max Planck for his Quantum Theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (A), (D), (C), (B).
- (3) (D), (A), (C), (B).
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Question 52:
Arrange the following nanomaterials in the order of increasing degree of freedom
- (A) Bulk material
- (B) Graphene Sheet
- (C) Quantum Dot
- (D) Carbon Nanotubes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (C), (D), (B), (A).
- (2) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Question 53:
Which of the following exists as a covalent crystal in the solid state?
- (A) Sulphur
- (B) Iodine
- (C) Phosphorus
- (D) Silicon
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) and (C) only
- (2) (D) only
- (3) (B) and (D) only
- (4) (A), (B) and (C) only
Question 54:
Arrange the following electron acceptors of Z-scheme of photosynthesis based on the movement of electron from P680 onwards.
- (A) Iron-Sulphur Proteins
- (B) Ferrodoxin
- (C) Plastocyanin
- (D) Plastoquinones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (D), (C), (B), (A).
- (3) (D), (A), (B), (C).
- (4) (D), (C), (A), (B).
Question 55:
Arrange the following electron acceptors of Z-scheme of photosynthesis based on the movement of electron from P680 onwards.
- (A) Iron-Sulphur Proteins
- (B) Ferrodoxin
- (C) Plastocyanin
- (D) Plastoquinones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (D), (C), (B), (A).
- (3) (D), (A), (B), (C).
- (4) (D), (C), (A), (B).
Question 56:
Arrange the following events in an order that explains the bulk flow of substances in the phloem from the source.
- (A) Water diffuses into the sieve tube elements
- (B) Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis
- (C) Solutes are actively transported into sieve elements
- (D) Sugar is transported from cell to cell via the apoplast and/or symplast
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
- (2) (B), (D), (C), (A).
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Question 57:
Ionic compounds are
- (A) Made up of positive and negative ions and attraction between ions is electrostatic
- (B) Ionic bonds are non-directional
- (C) Melting point and boiling point are usually low
- (D) Usually soft
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) and (D) only
- (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
- (3) (A) only
- (4) (A) and (B) only
Question 58:
Which of the following are three-terminal devices?
- (A) Zener diode
- (B) Photodiode
- (C) Bipolar Junction Transistor
- (D) Field Effect Transistor
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
- (3) (C) and (D) only.
- (4) (B) and (D) only.
Question 59:
When the elements react to form compounds, a negative free energy change (\(\Delta G\)) means
- (A) Spontaneous reaction
- (B) Free energy of the products is higher than that of reactants
- (C) Very high activation barrier
- (D) Exergonic reactions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
- (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
- (4) (A) and (D) only.
Question 60:
On descending the group from Li to Na to K to Rb to Cs
- (A) Metallic radius increases
- (B) Melting point and boiling point decrease
- (C) Density decreases
- (D) Ionization energy decreases
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) and (B) only.
- (2) (B) and (C) only.
- (3) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (4) (A), (C) and (D) only.
Question 61:
In Cubic lattice,
- (A) For face centered cubic (fcc) lattice, effective number of atoms per unit cell is 2
- (B) For body centered cubic (bcc) lattice, effective number of atoms per unit cell is 4
- (C) \(a = b = c\), and \(\alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ\), where \(a\), \(b\), \(c\) are edge lengths and \(\alpha\), \(\beta\), \(\gamma\) are axial angles
- (D) For simple cubic (sc) lattice, effective number of atoms per unit cell is 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
- (3) (C) and (D) only.
- (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Question 62:
Which of the following are correct statements?
- (A) Hydrogen bond is weaker than covalent bond.
- (B) CH\(_4\) has covalent bonds.
- (C) Covalent compounds do not conduct electricity except diamond.
- (D) Graphite is a soft solid and a good conductor of electricity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
- (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
- (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Question 63:
Which option is true for Fischer projection formulas?
- (A) They must be kept in the plane of paper.
- (B) They are not allowed to flip them over.
- (C) They must be rotated in the plane of paper by 90°.
- (D) They must be rotated in the plane of paper by 180°.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
- (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
- (4) (B) and (D) only.
Question 64:
Which of the following halides will undergo S\(_2\) reaction?
- (A) Chlorobenzene
- (B) Benzyl chloride
- (C) Tertiary-butyl chloride
- (D) n-butyl chloride
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (B) and (D) only.
- (2) (B), (C) and (D) only.
- (3) (A), (B) and (D) only.
- (4) (A), (C) and (D) only.
Question 65:
The third law of thermodynamics relates to
1. The entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero temperature.
2. The relation between work and heat.
3. Evolution of entropy of a system with time.
4. Conservation of mass.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) only.
- (2) (B) only.
- (3) (C) only.
- (4) (D) only.
Question 66:
Match List-I with List-II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (II), (B) (1), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
- (2) (A) (II), (B) (III), (C) (I), (D) (IV)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 67:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (II)
- (2) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 68:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III)
- (2) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II)
- (3) (A) (II), (B) (III), (C) (I)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (II), (C) (I)
Question 69:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (II), (B) (I), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (2) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 70:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (1), (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (II)
- (2) (A) (1), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (3) (A) (1), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (1), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
Question 71:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
- (2) (A) (II), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (III)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 72:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
- (2) (A) (II), (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (I)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 73:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
- (2) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (3) (A) (III), (B) (I), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 74:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (2) (A) (II), (B) (II), (C) (I), (D) (III)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
- (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Question 75:
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) (III), (B) (I), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (2) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
- (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
- (4) (A) (IV), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (I)
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