CUET PG LLM 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Sep 18, 2025

The CUET PG LLM Exam 2025 will take place between 13th May and 3rd June, as per the official schedule. After the exam, students can download the CUET 2025 LLM question paper, answer key, and detailed solutions PDF. The test focuses on key areas of constitutional law, jurisprudence, criminal law, international law, contract law, and legal reasoning.

The paper contains 75 objective-type questions, to be completed in 60 minutes. Each correct answer gives 4 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer.

CUET PG LLM 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG LLM Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG LLM 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution of India by:

  • (1) 44th Constitutional Amendment
  • (2) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
  • (3) 24th Constitutional Amendment
  • (4) 25th Constitutional Amendment
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the constitutional amendments.

- 42nd Constitutional Amendment introduced Article 31C.
- It provides protection for laws aimed at promoting social justice and equality. Quick Tip: Article 31C ensures the protection of laws related to social justice, regardless of their violation of fundamental rights.


Question 2:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (1) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct amendments and their provisions.

- (A) Hundred and One Constitutional Amendment Act → (1) Extension of reservation for SCs and STs in Union and State Legislature

- (B) Hundred and Two Constitutional Amendment Act → (III) National Commission for Backward Classes

- (C) Hundred and Three Constitutional Amendment Act → (II) Reservation for Economically Weaker Section

- (D) Hundred and Four Constitutional Amendment Act → (IV) Goods and Service Tax Quick Tip: The Hundred and One Amendment extended the reservation for SCs/STs, while other amendments focused on specific commissions and economic reforms.


Question 3:

'Tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust'. This definition is given in which of the following statute?

  • (1) The Contract Act, 1872
  • (2) The Sale of Goods Act, 1930
  • (3) The Limitation Act, 1963
  • (4) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the relevant statute.

- The definition of tort is provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Quick Tip: Tort refers to civil wrongs under common law, and it is not covered under breach of contract or breach of trust.


Question 4:

Who among the following is the founder of the Positivist School of Criminology?

  • (1) Becker
  • (2) Austin
  • (3) Merton
  • (4) Lombroso
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify key figures in criminology.

- Cesare Lombroso is considered the founder of the Positivist School of Criminology.
- He proposed that criminal behavior could be explained by biological factors. Quick Tip: Positivist criminology focuses on scientific methods to understand criminal behavior, unlike classical criminology which focuses on free will.


Question 5:

Mortgage by deposit of title deeds is also known as:

  • (1) Simple Mortgage
  • (2) English Mortgage
  • (3) Equitable Mortgage
  • (4) Anomalous Mortgage
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Define types of mortgages.

- Equitable Mortgage involves depositing title deeds as security for a loan without formal registration. Quick Tip: In an equitable mortgage, the borrower deposits documents of title with the lender as security for the loan.


Question 6:

The statute ousting the jurisdiction of the civil court be interpreted:

  • (1) Liberally
  • (2) Strictly
  • (3) Both Liberally and strictly
  • (4) Discretion of the Court
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand jurisdiction of civil courts.

- Statutes ousting civil court jurisdiction should be interpreted strictly to prevent unjust restriction of access to courts. Quick Tip: Courts usually follow a strict interpretation when a statute excludes their jurisdiction to ensure fair access to justice.


Question 7:

When the legislature delegates to the executive, its essential functions, it is called:

  • (1) Absolute delegation
  • (2) Excessive delegation
  • (3) Enormous delegation
  • (4) Essential delegation
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand delegation terms.

- Excessive delegation refers to when the legislature gives away its core functions to the executive, which may affect the balance of power. Quick Tip: Excessive delegation undermines the principle of separation of powers between the legislature and executive.


Question 8:

Which one of the following is not an example of 'Bar to further suits under section 12 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

  • (1) Order II Rule 2
  • (2) Order IX Rule 9
  • (3) Order VII Rule 11
  • (4) Order XXII Rule 9
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the bar provisions in CPC.

- Order II Rule 2 → Bar to further suits if multiple claims in a single suit are not pursued.

- Order IX Rule 9 → Consequences of non-appearance; applies to fresh proceedings.

- Order VII Rule 11 → Dismissal of plaint; bars certain types of suits.

- Order XXII Rule 9 → Deals with abatement of suits, not bar to further suits. Quick Tip: Remember, bar provisions under CPC relate to the consequences for failure to pursue or maintain claims.


Question 9:

Who may commute the punishment as per the provision of criminal procedural law?

  • (1) Appropriate Government
  • (2) Central Government
  • (3) State Government
  • (4) Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the provisions for commutation.

- The Appropriate Government has the power to commute sentences under section 432 of the CrPC. Quick Tip: Commutation is the substitution of a lesser sentence for a more severe one, and it can be done by the appropriate government.


Question 10:

"Specific Relief" under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be granted only for the:

  • (1) Enforcing individual Fundamental Rights
  • (2) Enforcing individual civil rights as well as criminal rights
  • (3) Enforcing individual criminal rights only
  • (4) Enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of enforcing a penal law
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the scope of specific relief.

- The Specific Relief Act focuses on the enforcement of civil rights, including contracts and property rights, but not for criminal law enforcement. Quick Tip: Specific Relief Act allows the enforcement of civil rights like property and contracts but does not extend to penal law enforcement.


Question 11:

Indian federation closely resembles to that of:

  • (1) United States of America
  • (2) Australia
  • (3) Canada
  • (4) United Kingdom
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall the nature of Indian federation.

- Indian federation closely resembles the Canadian model, which is a federal system with a strong central government and distribution of powers between Union and States. Quick Tip: India’s federal structure is inspired by the British Parliament and Canadian federal model.


Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the provisions related to the amendments.

- 101st Amendment → Extension of reservation for SCs and STs in Union and State Legislature.

- 102nd Amendment → Reservation for Economically Weaker Section.

- 103rd Amendment → National Commission for Backward Classes.

- 104th Amendment → Goods and Service Tax (GST).
Quick Tip: Amendments related to reservations and GST reflect India’s evolving policies.


Question 13:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the doctrines associated with the cases.

- Ram Jawaya Kapur case → Separation of powers.

- Delhi Laws Act → Delegated legislation.

- Maneka Gandhi case → Doctrine of proportionality.

- Om Kumar case → Post decisional hearing.
Quick Tip: Landmark cases define critical doctrines that shape constitutional law.


Question 14:

On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, after passing by both Houses of Parliament the President:

  • (1) Shall give his assent
  • (2) May give his assent
  • (3) May withhold his assent
  • (4) May return the Bill for consideration
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall the process for constitutional amendments.

- The President may withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill, although such a situation is rare. Quick Tip: Constitutional amendments need Presidential assent after passage by Parliament.


Question 15:

When an emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution is proclaimed, the President of India has no power to suspend the:

  • (1) Article 14 and Article 19
  • (2) Article 20 and Article 21
  • (3) Article 14 and Article 21
  • (4) Article 21 and Article 19
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall provisions related to emergency.

- Article 20 and Article 21 cannot be suspended even during an emergency, ensuring protection of life and personal liberty. Quick Tip: Article 20 and 21 safeguard fundamental rights during emergencies.


Question 16:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the sections related to Transfer of Property Act.

- Section 5 → Defines transfer of property.

- Section 6 → Who is competent to transfer.

- Section 7 → What may be transferred.

- Section 8 → Operation of transfer.
Quick Tip: The Transfer of Property Act defines and regulates property transfers in India.


Question 17:

The object of the Right to Information Act, 2005 is:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C) only.
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the objectives of the RTI Act.

- The RTI Act promotes transparency, accountability, and reduces corruption in public authorities. Quick Tip: RTI promotes transparency and public access to information.


Question 18:

Which one of the following Fundamental Rights are available to citizens only?

  • (1) (A) and (B) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify Fundamental Rights available to citizens only.

- Articles 15, 16, and 19 apply only to citizens, while Article 29 applies to all persons. Quick Tip: Fundamental Rights provide basic freedoms and rights to Indian citizens.


Question 19:

Read the followings in connection with the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only.
  • (3) (B) and (C) only.
  • (4) (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the sections of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.

- Section 4 defines the arbitration agreement.

- Number of arbitrators should not be even.

- Arbitration clause may be separate from the main contract. Quick Tip: Arbitration agreements are fundamental to resolving disputes outside of court.


Question 20:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall constitutional provisions for review and leave.

- Article 137 → Complete Justice

- Article 131 → Special Leave Petition

- Article 142 → Review of the Judgments

- Article 136 → Original Jurisdiction
Quick Tip: Article 137 grants the power to review judgments and orders of the Supreme Court.


Question 21:

Arrange the following as per the provisions of the Constitution of India:

  • (A) Free and compulsory Education
  • (B) Special provisions for women and children
  • (C) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
  • (D) Instruction in mother-tongue at primary school Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (A), (B), (D), (C).
  • (3) (B), (A), (C), (D).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the constitutional provisions.

- Free and compulsory education comes under the Right to Education Act.

- Special provisions for women and children are in the DPSP (Directive Principles of State Policy).

- Prohibition of child employment is in the Fundamental Rights (Article 24).

- Instruction in mother-tongue at the primary level is also a part of the DPSP. Quick Tip: The arrangement of the constitutional provisions corresponds to the order in which they are mentioned in the Constitution.


Question 22:

Which of the following are not correct as per the Constitution of India?

  • (A) President of India is not a de jure executive
  • (B) Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are de facto executive
  • (C) Council of Ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha
  • (D) Council of Ministers is not subject to judicial review. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A) and (D) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (B) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Review each statement.

- (A) False: President is a de jure executive.

- (B) True: Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are de facto executors of government policy.

- (C) True: The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.

- (D) False: Council of Ministers is subject to judicial review. Quick Tip: Judicial review ensures that executive actions conform to constitutional law.


Question 23:

Which of the following is not a feature of Federalism:

  • (A) Fundamental Right to Primary Education
  • (B) Written Constitution
  • (C) No authority of the Courts
  • (D) Separation of Powers Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (A) and (C) only.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the federalism features.

- Federalism involves separation of powers, a written constitution, and authority of courts.

- The absence of judicial authority in federalism contradicts the basic structure. Quick Tip: In a federal system, the judiciary acts as a check on the legislature and executive.


Question 24:

Which of the following doctrine was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury v. Madison:

  • (1) Public Interest Litigation
  • (2) Rule of Law
  • (3) Judicial activism
  • (4) Judicial Review
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the landmark case.

- Marbury v. Madison (1803) introduced the concept of judicial review, allowing courts to strike down unconstitutional laws. Quick Tip: Judicial review is the cornerstone of maintaining the Constitution's supremacy.


Question 25:

Arrange the following as per the Articles of the Constitution of India:

  • (A) Power of the Parliament to modify the Fundamental Rights
  • (B) Remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
  • (C) Freedom to manage religious affairs
  • (D) Abolition of Titles Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (D), (C), (B), (A).
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall the order of articles.

- The power to modify Fundamental Rights is discussed in Article 368.

- Remedies for enforcement are available under Articles 32 and 226.

- Freedom to manage religious affairs is under Article 26.

- Abolition of Titles is covered under Article 18. Quick Tip: Articles related to Fundamental Rights form a crucial part of the Constitution's guarantees.


Question 26:

Which of the following is not a General Principle of International Law:

  • (1) Res Judicata
  • (2) Equity
  • (3) Estoppel
  • (4) Special Circumstances
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the principles of international law.

- Res Judicata, Equity, and Estoppel are fundamental principles of international law.

- Special Circumstances does not form a core principle. Quick Tip: International law revolves around recognized principles like equity, justice, and legal consistency.


Question 27:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct match between legal theorists and their theories.

- Rule of Recognition → H.L.A. Hart.

- Theory of Sovereignty → Austin.

- Grund Norm → Kelsen.

- Volksgeist → Savigny.
Quick Tip: Different theorists contributed significantly to the development of legal theory and the study of law.


Question 28:

Which of the following are objectives of the Environment Protection Act, 1986?

  • (A) Protection of Environment
  • (B) Improvement of Environment
  • (C) Prevention of Hazards
  • (D) Establishment of Central and State Water Prevention and Control Boards Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Check objectives of the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

- All the listed options are objectives of the Environment Protection Act. Quick Tip: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 aims to safeguard India's environmental resources.


Question 29:

Eugen Ehrlich in his theory includes the following:

  • (A) Law is to be found in Social Facts
  • (B) Living Law is the fact that governs social life
  • (C) If statute is not observed in practice, it is not part of living law
  • (D) The task of law is 'social engineering' Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review Eugen Ehrlich's contributions.

- Ehrlich’s living law theory focuses on how law is derived from social facts and practices. Quick Tip: Living law reflects real-life social norms and practices, often distinct from formal statutes.


Question 30:

"Legal theory is science, not volition. It is knowledge of what the law is, not of what the law ought to be." It was said by:

  • (1) Jerome Frank
  • (2) Salmond
  • (3) Kelsen
  • (4) Duguit
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall the contributions of Kelsen.

- Kelsen’s pure theory of law emphasizes that law is a scientific study of what the law is, not what it should be. Quick Tip: Kelsen’s theory is focused on understanding law without blending personal opinions or political ideals.


Question 31:

In which of the following case it was laid down that 'Universities to prescribe compulsory course on environment at every level in college education':

  • (1) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)
  • (2) Hinch Lal Tiwari v. Kamala Devi (2001)
  • (3) Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. UOI & Ors. (2000)
  • (4) M. C. Mehta v. UOI (1992)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the landmark case.

- The Supreme Court in Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996) directed that universities must introduce environmental education at all levels of college education. Quick Tip: Environmental education is now mandated to raise awareness and responsibility among students.


Question 32:

Air Pollutant under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 would include:

  • (A) Solid Substance
  • (B) Liquid Substance
  • (C) Noise
  • (D) Chimney Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the definition of air pollutants.

- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 includes all substances (solid, liquid, noise, and gases) that can cause pollution. Quick Tip: Air pollutants include particulate matter, liquid droplets, gases, and even noise that degrade air quality.


Question 33:

Which of the following case laws are associated with "Consideration" as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

  • (A) Currie v. Misa
  • (B) Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohammed
  • (C) Abdul Aziz v. Masum Ali
  • (D) Bhagwan Das Kedia v. Girdhari Lal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review case laws on consideration.

- Currie v. Misa is a landmark case that defined "consideration" under contract law.

- Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohammed, Abdul Aziz v. Masum Ali, and Bhagwan Das Kedia v. Girdhari Lal also deal with contractual consideration. Quick Tip: Consideration in contracts refers to something of value that is exchanged between the parties.


Question 34:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review case laws and their relevance.

- Hadley v. Baxendale relates to the quantum of damages in contract law.

- Henkel v. Pape relates to coercion.

- Manu Singh v. Umadat Pandey deals with the doctrine of mistake.

- Chikkam Amiraju v. Seshamma deals with undue influence. Quick Tip: Understanding case laws helps clarify legal concepts such as coercion, undue influence, and damages.


Question 35:

Can the client's papers/documents under the possession of a lawyer be considered 'goods' to recover his fees, under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

  • (1) Yes, in all circumstances
  • (2) They are not goods
  • (3) Yes, if charge is created
  • (4) Yes, after the death of client
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.

- Under the Sale of Goods Act, documents in a lawyer’s possession are not considered goods, as they are not transferable property. Quick Tip: The Sale of Goods Act pertains to tangible property that can be transferred for a price, not legal documents.


Question 36:

Identify the descending order in which the following sources of International law are mentioned in Article 38 (1) of the statute of International Court of Justice:

  • (A) Judicial Decisions
  • (B) General Principles of International Law
  • (C) Treaties
  • (D) International Customs Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (C), (D), (B), (A)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the order of sources of International law.

- According to Article 38(1), International law includes treaties, international customs, general principles of law, and judicial decisions in the mentioned order. Quick Tip: International law hierarchy ensures that treaties and customs take precedence over judicial decisions and general principles.


Question 37:

Which of the following is not a specialised agency of United Nations Organization?

  • (1) Food and Agriculture Organization
  • (2) International Monetary Fund
  • (3) World Health Organization
  • (4) World Trade Organization
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify UN specialized agencies.

- The UN specialized agencies include FAO, IMF, WHO, but WTO is an intergovernmental organization not under the UN system. Quick Tip: UN specialized agencies operate in specific sectors like health, agriculture, and finance, but WTO is separate.


Question 38:

Identify in descending order the following Conventions from their year of coming into being:

  • (A) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
  • (B) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
  • (C) European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms
  • (D) World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the dates of conventions.

- UDHR (1948), ICCPR (1966), European Convention (1950), World Conference on Human Rights (1993). Quick Tip: The UDHR laid the foundation for international human rights law.


Question 39:

Which of the following Convention was mainly referred to decide Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan?

  • (1) European Convention on Human Rights
  • (2) United Nations Charter
  • (3) Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
  • (4) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the relevant convention.

- The Supreme Court in Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan (1997) referred to CEDAW, which addresses sexual harassment of women. Quick Tip: CEDAW has been central in addressing women’s rights, including sexual harassment at the workplace.


Question 40:

Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z, but not intending to kill Z and in good faith intending Z's benefit. A's bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A has committed:

  • (1) Grievous hurt
  • (2) Simple Hurt
  • (3) No offence
  • (4) Attempt to murder
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the facts.

- A shot the tiger intending to protect Z, not harm him. As the harm was not intentional, A has committed no offense. Quick Tip: If harm is caused in good faith and with no intent to hurt, no offense is committed.


Question 41:

A lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention of causing death, or with the knowledge that death is likely to be caused. Z believing the ground to be firm, treads on it, falls in and is killed. A has committed:

  • (1) Offence of Culpable Homicide
  • (2) Offence of Murder
  • (3) Offence of abetment to murder
  • (4) No Offence
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the offense.

- A intended or knew that death was likely, and caused Z's death through reckless behavior.

- This is categorized as Culpable Homicide, as the intention to kill was not clear, but A's actions caused the death. Quick Tip: Culpable Homicide involves causing death without full intent, often through reckless or negligent actions.


Question 42:

A, intending or knowing that the blow may permanently disfigure Z's face, gives Z a blow which does not permanently disfigure Z's face, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily pain for twenty days. A has:

  • (1) Voluntarily caused hurt
  • (2) Voluntarily caused grievous hurt
  • (3) Grievous Hurt
  • (4) Hurt
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the type of injury.

- Voluntary acts causing severe pain for more than 20 days may be classified as grievous hurt.
- As Z was not permanently disfigured but suffered significant harm, this is considered "voluntarily caused grievous hurt." Quick Tip: Grievous hurt is defined as injury causing significant bodily pain or harm, often with long-lasting effects.


Question 43:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Match provisions with sections.

- Restitution of conjugal rights: Section 9.

- Void marriages: Section 11.

- Voidable marriages: Section 12.

- Judicial separation: Section 10. Quick Tip: Knowing key sections in family law is crucial for understanding legal remedies such as restitution and judicial separation.


Question 44:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Review effects of causes on marriage.

- Rape and Impotency lead to grounds for divorce and voidable marriage.

- Withdrawal from society and Adultery lead to judicial separation and restitution of conjugal rights. Quick Tip: Legal effects of marriage-related offenses vary from divorce to judicial separation, depending on the nature of the act.


Question 45:

Arrange in descending order the following Acts from the year of their coming into being:

  • (A) Hindu Marriage Act
  • (B) Hindu Succession Act
  • (C) Family Courts Act
  • (D) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (A), (B), (D), (C).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the order of enactment.

- Hindu Marriage Act (1955), Hindu Succession Act (1956), Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (2006), Family Courts Act (1984). Quick Tip: Laws relating to marriage, succession, and family welfare were passed in the mid-20th century, while child marriage laws came later.


Question 46:

Which of the following is not included in the definition of 'business' under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

  • (1) Trade
  • (2) Profession
  • (3) Occupation
  • (4) Hiring
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the definition of business under the Indian Partnership Act.

- Business under the Partnership Act includes trade, profession, and occupation, but not hiring. Quick Tip: The term "business" in the Indian Partnership Act excludes activities that are not profit-oriented, like hiring.


Question 47:

Which of the following case is not related to matters of professional ethics and professional accountability system?

  • (1) In the matter of D. An Advocate (1956)
  • (2) Padam Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
  • (3) Bar Council Maharashtra v. M.V. Dabholkar, etc., (1976)
  • (4) In Re Advocate (1989)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Review professional ethics cases.

- The cases in options (1), (3), and (4) relate to professional ethics and accountability. Padam Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh does not. Quick Tip: Professional ethics cases generally deal with misconduct of advocates, while Padam Singh is unrelated to ethics.


Question 48:

Arrange the following legislations in order of their coming into force:

  • (A) Sherman Act
  • (B) MRTP Act
  • (C) Clayton Act
  • (D) Competition Act Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the chronological order of legislation.

- Sherman Act (1890), Clayton Act (1914), MRTP Act (1969), Competition Act (2002). Quick Tip: International and national competition laws evolved from older antitrust laws like the Sherman Act to modern frameworks like the Competition Act.


Question 49:

Which of the Section deals with the appointment of an Arbitrator?

  • (1) Section 8
  • (2) Section 9
  • (3) Section 10
  • (4) Section 11
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall Arbitration Act provisions.

- Section 11 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the appointment of arbitrators. Quick Tip: Arbitration processes begin with the appointment of an arbitrator under Section 11 of the Act.


Question 50:

Which among the following are essential conditions under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

  • (A) Lawful Consideration
  • (B) Lawful Object
  • (C) Free Consent
  • (D) Intention Theory Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the essential conditions for a valid contract.

- For a contract to be valid under Section 10, there must be lawful consideration, lawful object, and free consent. Quick Tip: Valid contracts require essential elements: lawful consideration, lawful object, and free consent.


Question 51:

A company for charitable purpose may be incorporated as:

  • (1) A Limited company
  • (2) An Unlimited company
  • (3) Limited by Guarantee
  • (4) Partnership
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify types of companies.

- Charitable purposes often lead to a company being incorporated as a company limited by guarantee, as this allows the members' liability to be limited to the amount they guarantee. Quick Tip: For charitable organizations, a company limited by guarantee is often preferred as it offers limited liability without shares.


Question 52:

In which of the following business associations the liability of its members is joint and several?

  • (1) Partnership Firm
  • (2) Limited Liability Partnership
  • (3) Company
  • (4) Open Market
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify liability in business associations.

- In a Partnership Firm, the liability of members is joint and several, meaning each partner is individually responsible for the partnership's debts. Quick Tip: In a partnership, each partner is fully responsible for the liabilities of the business, even if they didn’t directly cause the debt.


Question 53:

Memorandum of Association is a:

  • (1) Private Document
  • (2) Public Document
  • (3) Certified Document
  • (4) False Document
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the type of document.

- The Memorandum of Association is a public document, as it is filed with the registrar and available for public inspection. Quick Tip: The Memorandum of Association defines the constitution and scope of the company and is a public document filed with the registrar.


Question 54:

A company is vested with a distinct legal personality separate from its members. This was held in which of the following case?

  • (1) Salomon v. Salomon
  • (2) Dalmier v. Continental Tyers
  • (3) Bridges v. Hawkesworth
  • (4) John v. Smith
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the case.

- Salomon v. Salomon (1897) established the principle that a company has a distinct legal personality from its members. Quick Tip: Salomon v. Salomon is a landmark case that set the foundation for corporate law, establishing that a company is a separate legal entity from its owners.


Question 55:

Which section talks about "promissory note" under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?

  • (1) Section 1 of Negotiable Instrument Act
  • (2) Section 2 of Negotiable Instrument Act
  • (3) Section 3 of Negotiable Instrument Act
  • (4) Section 4 of Negotiable Instrument Act
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Review relevant sections.

- A promissory note is defined under Section 2 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. Quick Tip: A promissory note is a written promise to pay a specific amount of money to a specified person, defined under Section 2 of the Act.


Question 56:

Provisions regarding lien are found in:

  • (1) Sale of Goods Act
  • (2) Transfer of Property Act
  • (3) Indian Contract Act
  • (4) Company Act
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the relevant law.

- Provisions regarding lien, such as a right to retain goods until payment, are found in the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Quick Tip: A lien allows a person to retain possession of goods until a debt is paid, as provided under the Indian Contract Act.


Question 57:

Fixed Deposits are also called as:

  • (1) Accrued Deposits
  • (2) Time Deposits
  • (3) Recurring Deposits
  • (4) Demand Deposits
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand types of deposits.

- Fixed Deposits are also known as time deposits because the money is deposited for a fixed tenure, and interest is paid accordingly. Quick Tip: Time deposits (like fixed deposits) have a fixed tenure, and the interest is paid based on the duration of the deposit.


Question 58:

Dissolution of marriage initiated at the instance of a Muslim women under the classical muslim law is called:

  • (1) Khula
  • (2) Mahr
  • (3) Iddat
  • (4) Mubarat
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the terms.

- Khula is the process where a Muslim woman seeks a divorce from her husband, usually in exchange for some form of compensation. Quick Tip: Khula allows a woman to initiate divorce under Islamic law, often requiring compensation or return of dowry.


Question 59:

Iddat under Muslim law refers to:

  • (1) A false accusation of adultery
  • (2) A special kind of maintenance to the wife
  • (3) Waiting period before a woman can remarry after divorce
  • (4) Prohibited degree of relationship
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Iddat.

- Iddat is a waiting period a Muslim woman must observe after divorce or the death of her husband before remarrying. Quick Tip: Iddat ensures the woman is not pregnant and allows for family matters to settle before remarriage.


Question 60:

Which of the following is not included under the definition of 'wages' given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

  • (1) Basic Wage
  • (2) Dearness Allowance
  • (3) Incentive
  • (4) Gratuity
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the Payment of Wages Act definition.

- Wages under the Payment of Wages Act do not include gratuity, as it is a separate payment made upon retirement or resignation. Quick Tip: Gratuity is a retirement benefit and is not considered a part of regular wages under the Payment of Wages Act.


Question 61:

Compulsory licenses for patents are granted as:

  • (1) Voluntary
  • (2) Implied
  • (3) Virtual
  • (4) Statutory
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand compulsory licenses.

- A compulsory license is granted under the provisions of the Indian Patents Act, 1970, when the government permits the use of a patented invention without the patent holder's consent. This is a statutory provision intended to benefit the public.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- Therefore, compulsory licenses are granted under statutory law. Quick Tip: Compulsory licenses allow the government to authorize the use of patents for public interest, subject to statutory provisions.


Question 62:

Which among the following is not covered under the domain of copyright protection?

  • (1) Concept
  • (2) Artistic works
  • (3) Sound
  • (4) Producers of Cinematography
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify copyright protection scope.

- Copyright protects artistic works, sound recordings, and cinematographic works. However, the basic concept or idea itself is not protected under copyright law. Only the expression of the idea is protected.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- "Concept" is not protected by copyright law as ideas alone cannot be copyrighted. Quick Tip: Copyright protection applies to the expression of ideas, not the ideas themselves.


Question 63:

An interested person may make an application for compulsory licence under IPR after the expiry of:

  • (1) 1 Year
  • (2) 3 Years
  • (3) 2 Years
  • (4) 5 Years
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Review compulsory license application timeline.

- Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, an interested person can apply for a compulsory license after the expiry of three years from the grant of the patent.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- The statutory period for applying for a compulsory license is three years. Quick Tip: A compulsory license can be applied for three years after the grant of the patent if the patent is not being worked adequately in India.


Question 64:

Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is a unit of which governing body?

  • (1) CSIR
  • (2) NCERT
  • (3) UGC
  • (4) Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the governing body for TKDL.

- The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is an initiative of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), which aims to document India's traditional knowledge in a digital format to protect it from biopiracy.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- TKDL is a unit of CSIR. Quick Tip: TKDL is an effort to protect India’s traditional knowledge from misappropriation by creating a digital database.


Question 65:

The principle 'Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium' means:

  • (1) Where there is right, there is remedy
  • (2) Injury without damage
  • (3) Damage without injury
  • (4) The right of a third party
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the principle.

- 'Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium' is a Latin maxim that translates to "where there is a right, there is a remedy." This means that every right has a corresponding legal remedy in case of a violation.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- The principle affirms that for every legal right, there is a legal remedy available. Quick Tip: This maxim ensures that legal rights are enforceable by providing a remedy for their breach.


Question 66:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) (1), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
  • (2) (A) (1), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
  • (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
  • (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Review the cases and their corresponding principles.

- Strict Liability was established in Ryland v. Fletcher.
- Absolute Liability was set out in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India.
- Negligence was discussed in Nicholas v. Marsland.
- Act of God was referenced in MCD v. Subhagwanti.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- Correct matching: (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV). Quick Tip: Strict liability holds a person accountable for damages, even without fault, while absolute liability eliminates exceptions for hazardous activities.


Question 67:

Under evidence law 'fact' does not include:

  • (1) Any thing perceived by senses
  • (2) Any thing not perceived by senses
  • (3) Any mental condition
  • (4) Relation of things perceived by senses
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand what is considered a "fact" in evidence law.

- Under the Indian Evidence Act, a "fact" refers to anything that can be perceived by the senses or anything that is relevant to the case. Mental condition, being subjective, is not considered a "fact" under the Evidence Act.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- Mental condition is not considered a "fact" under evidence law. Quick Tip: "Facts" under evidence law must be observable or relevant; mental states are not typically regarded as facts.


Question 68:

Arrange the following provisions as they appear in proceedings according to the evidence law:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (3) (B), (D), (A), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the sequence of examination.

- According to evidence law, the correct order of examination is: (B) Examination-in-Chief, (D) Cross-Examination, (A) Re-Examination, and (C) Judgment.

Step 2: Conclusion.

- Correct order: (B), (D), (A), (C). Quick Tip: The examination process in court follows a systematic order: Examination-in-Chief → Cross-Examination → Re-Examination → Judgment.


Question 69:

Arrange the following in sequence as they are provided under the evidence law:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
  • (B) Motive, Preparation and Conduct (contextual background),
  • (A) Test Identification Parade (identifying the suspect),
  • (D) Highly Improbable (discussing unlikely scenarios),
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the logical sequence of the evidence.

- According to evidence law, the correct sequence is:

% Option
(B) Motive, Preparation and Conduct (contextual background),

% Option
(A) Test Identification Parade (identifying the suspect),

% Option
(D) Highly Improbable (discussing unlikely scenarios),

% Option
(C) Accidental or Intentional (deciding the nature of the act).


Step 2: Conclusion.

- The correct sequence is: (B), (A), (D), (C). Quick Tip: When assessing evidence, first establish motive and preparation, then proceed with identification, and consider the intent or accident afterward.


Question 70:

In India, which of the following evidence is admissible under the evidence law:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze types of admissible evidence in India.

- Primary documentary evidence (original documents) is admissible.

- Secondary documentary evidence (copies, certifications) is also admissible if the original is unavailable.

- Hearsay evidence, typically excluded in court, is an exception under certain circumstances.

- Direct oral evidence is admissible, particularly when it is related to facts or direct experience.


Step 2: Conclusion.

- The admissible evidence types include Primary documentary, Secondary documentary, and Direct oral evidence. Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible. Quick Tip: In Indian Evidence Law, primary and secondary documentary evidence and direct oral evidence are commonly admissible, while hearsay is not.


Question 71:

Which among the following are covered under the defences of nuisance?

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand defences to nuisance.

- Adverse Possession: This defence applies when the defendant has been in continuous possession of the land for a long time and is generally accepted as a defence in nuisance cases.

- Easementary Rights: The defendant has a right of way or other easementary rights, which are recognised as defences in nuisance actions.

- Good Faith: Good faith can act as a defence in some nuisance cases, especially when the defendant can show that the action was not intended to harm others.

- Voluntary Harm: This is not typically a recognised defence in nuisance cases, as voluntary harm does not excuse the interference.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (D) only. Quick Tip: In nuisance cases, defences such as adverse possession and easementary rights are commonly accepted, while voluntary harm is not.


Question 72:

Arrange the following as they appear in any trial proceeding under criminal procedure law:

  • (1) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the sequence in criminal trial proceedings.

- Discharge: The trial starts with the discharge stage, where the court decides whether to proceed with the case.

- Plea of Guilt: After discharge, the accused may plead guilty or deny the charges.

- Summon to Defence: If the plea is not guilty, the defence may then be called.

- Arguments: Finally, the case proceeds to the arguments stage where both parties present their case before judgment.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct order is: (B), (A), (D), (C). Quick Tip: In criminal trials, the process follows discharge, plea, defence summons, and then arguments.


Question 73:

Who among the following are authorised to arrest under criminal procedure law?

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify who can arrest under criminal procedure law.

- Magistrate: A magistrate has the power to arrest and issue arrest warrants.

- Private Person: A private person can arrest if they witness a crime being committed.

- Police Officer: A police officer has the authority to arrest under the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC).

- Accused Person: The accused person does not have the authority to arrest anyone.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) only. Quick Tip: Magistrates, police officers, and in some cases, private persons can arrest, but the accused cannot arrest anyone.


Question 74:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) (1), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
  • (2) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (II)
  • (3) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
  • (4) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Match the theories with the corresponding propounders.

- Volksgeist: Propounded by Savigny, it refers to the spirit of the people influencing law.

- Minimum Morality: Associated with Roscoe Pound, which discusses law's relationship with social morality.

- Command of Sovereign: Associated with John Austin, it is a foundational idea in legal positivism.

- Social Engineering: Propounded by H. L. A. Hart, this is related to the idea of law being a tool for social progress.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct matching is (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III). Quick Tip: Social engineering is a legal concept promoting societal change through law, while command of the sovereign focuses on legal positivism.


Question 75:

Which among the following cases are connected to Volunti Non Fit Injuria?

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Volenti non fit injuria.

This Latin maxim means "to a willing person, no injury is done." It applies when someone voluntarily consents to an action that results in harm, and they cannot claim damages.

Step 2: Analyze the cases.

- Vidyawanti v. State of Rajasthan: Relates to voluntary consent and personal injury.

- Padmawati v. Dugganaika: Involves voluntary assumption of risk.

- Ushaben v. Bhagya Laxmi Chitra Mandir: Involves consent to a certain risk leading to injury.

- Balton v. Stone: A case where the principle of voluntary consent applies, meaning no injury occurred.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D). Quick Tip: Volenti non fit injuria applies when someone knowingly and willingly accepts the risks associated with a certain activity.

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

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General1750
sc1650

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