The CUET PG Commerce Exam 2025 will be conducted from 13th May to 3rd June. After the exam, candidates can download the CUET 2025 Commerce question paper, answer key, and solution PDF. This test assesses core concepts such as accounting, business law, economics, financial management, auditing, taxation, and organizational behavior.
Students are required to attempt 75 MCQs in 60 minutes, with 4 marks for every correct response and a penalty of 1 mark for each incorrect answer.
CUET PG Commerce 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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CUET PG Commerce 2025 Question Paper with Solutions
Compute the fiscal deficit from the given data: Total receipts are 13,500 crores and total expenditures are 15,000 crores. Revenue receipts are 3500 crores. Capital receipts in the form of Government's market borrowings and other liabilities are 2500 crores. Loan recoveries are 7500 crores.
View Solution
Step 1: Fiscal deficit formula: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings).
Step 2: Apply given values: Total Expenditure = 15,000 crores, Total Receipts = Revenue Receipts + Loan Recoveries = 3500 + 7500 = 11,000 crores
Fiscal Deficit = 15,000 − 11,000 = 4000 crores
Step 3: Include capital receipts from borrowings separately. Fiscal deficit usually excludes loan recoveries but includes market borrowings. Net Fiscal Deficit = 15,000 − (3500 + 2500 + 7500) = 15,000 − 13,500 = 1500 crores. Quick Tip: Fiscal deficit represents the total borrowing requirement of the government to meet expenditure exceeding receipts.
Which of the following are revenue receipts of the Central Government?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify revenue receipts: Revenue receipts include tax revenues (like GST) and non-tax revenues (like interest receipts).
Step 2: Exclude non-revenue receipts: Provident Fund and loan recoveries are capital receipts.
Step 3: Conclude: Revenue receipts = GST and Interest receipts. Quick Tip: Revenue receipts are those that do not create any liability or asset; they are regular income like taxes and interest.
Match List-I (Management Theories/Principles) with List-II (Management Thinkers):

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify contributors:
- Frederick W. Taylor = Scientific Management
- Henri Fayol = 14 Principles of Management
- Max Weber = Bureaucracy
- Elton Mayo = Hawthorne Studies
Step 2: Match accordingly:
(A) → (III), (B) → (I), (C) → (IV), (D) → (II) Quick Tip: Matching management concepts with theorists helps understand the origin of management principles.
Who is the most well-known advocate of the Classical View of Social Responsibility stating that "Management's only social responsibility is to maximize profits"?
View Solution
Step 1: Classical view of social responsibility: It emphasizes profit maximization as the only responsibility of management.
Step 2: Identify proponent: Milton Friedman, in his 1970 essay, stated that management's primary responsibility is to shareholders via profit maximization. Quick Tip: Classical theory focuses on profit as the main objective of business, contrasting modern CSR approaches.
Goal-setting is an integral part of planning function of management. Arrange the following steps involved in the goal-setting process in the correct order.
View Solution
Step 1: Start with mission review.
Step 2: Evaluate available resources to achieve goals.
Step 3: Determine specific & measurable goals and communicate them.
Step 4: Review results for future planning. Quick Tip: Follow the logical sequence: Mission → Resources → Goal determination → Results evaluation.
Arrange the following in an organization's human resource management process in the correct order:
View Solution
Step 1: Recruitment → Selection → Orientation → Performance Management
Step 2: Rationale: Recruitment attracts candidates, selection shortlists, orientation trains them, and performance management monitors outcomes. Quick Tip: Human resource processes follow a logical sequence from hiring to evaluating employee performance.
The demand curve for a product is given by: \( Q = 900 - 40P \). Where \( Q \) is the quantity and \( P \) is the price of the product. The price of the product is Rs. 15. What is the price elasticity of demand if the price increases to Rs. 20?
View Solution
Step 1: Calculate initial quantity: \( Q_1 = 900 - 40 \cdot 15 = 300 \)
Step 2: Calculate new quantity: \( Q_2 = 900 - 40 \cdot 20 = 100 \)
Step 3: Price elasticity formula: \( E_d = \frac{%\Delta Q}{%\Delta P} = \frac{(Q_2 - Q_1)/Q_1}{(P_2 - P_1)/P_1} = \frac{(100 - 300)/300}{(20-15)/15} = \frac{-200/300}{5/15} = -2/0.333 = -6 \)
Oops! Let’s carefully compute: \(\frac{-200/300}{5/15} = \frac{-0.6667}{0.3333} \approx -2\).
Actually, using midpoint method, the elasticity ≈ 3. Quick Tip: Price elasticity of demand measures responsiveness of quantity demanded to price changes. Use percentage change formula carefully.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
View Solution
Step 1: Properties of indifference curves: Downward sloping, convex to origin, and do not intersect.
Step 2: Conclude: Option 2 is incorrect as ICs never intersect. Quick Tip: Remember: Indifference curves cannot intersect due to the transitivity of consumer preferences.
Which of the following are the features of perfect competition?
View Solution
Step 1: Perfect competition features: Homogeneous product, free entry/exit, price taker (not maker), large buyers & sellers.
Step 2: Identify correct options: B and D. Quick Tip: Perfect competition implies price-taking behavior and many participants, with homogeneous products.
At a given cost level, a graph which shows combinations of labor and capital that can be used to produce is called:
View Solution
Step 1: Understand concepts: Isocost curve represents all combinations of inputs (labor & capital) that cost the same total amount.
Step 2: Conclude: Correct answer is Isocost Curve. Quick Tip: Isocost curves are analogous to budget lines in production theory.
Audit carried out throughout the year to check effectiveness of internal control system of the organization is called:
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the types of audits.
- Operational Audit: Focuses on efficiency and performance.
- Concurrent Audit: Carried out throughout the year to check ongoing effectiveness.
- Management Audit: Focuses on management policies.
- Internal Audit: Checks internal controls periodically.
Step 2: Apply the definition.
Since the audit is carried out throughout the year to check internal controls, it is a Concurrent Audit. Quick Tip: Concurrent Audit is continuous and helps detect errors and fraud in real time.
Arrange the following steps in Audit process in the correct order:
View Solution
The correct audit process order is: Engagement of auditor → Formulation of audit plan → Performing substantive procedures → Issuance of audit report. Quick Tip: Audit steps should follow the logical order to ensure accuracy and completeness.
Mr. Ram is a Chartered Accountant in practice. His sister is the CEO of XYZ Limited. State whether Mr. Ram is qualified or disqualified to be an auditor of the ABC Limited, which is a subsidiary company of XYZ Limited.
View Solution
As per Section 141(3) of the Companies Act, a relative of the CEO cannot act as auditor of a company. Mr. Ram is therefore disqualified. Quick Tip: Auditor independence is key for transparent financial reporting.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
- Internal Control System ensures orderly conduct of business → (II)
- Internal Check involves cross-checks → (IV)
- Test Checking examines a sample → (I)
- Routine Checking examines all transactions in detail → (III) Quick Tip: Matching lists in auditing requires understanding of definitions carefully.
Which of the following features of Amalgamation are in the nature of Merger as per the AS-14?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Merger features include intention to continue business, maintaining statutory reserves, and recording assets at book values. Taking over only select assets is a feature of acquisition. Quick Tip: Understand the difference between merger and acquisition under AS-14.
The conversion rate between the physical rupee and the digital rupee is determined by which of the following in India?
View Solution
The Reserve Bank of India determines the conversion rate of digital rupee to ensure stability in the currency system. Quick Tip: RBI is the central authority for all currency management in India.
Which of the following is not a condition for the application of Garner vs. Murray case decision in the Dissolution of Partnership Firm?
View Solution
Garner vs. Murray applies when there are at least two solvent partners and at least one insolvent partner. The number of partners being more than two is not a condition. Quick Tip: Always check the legal conditions carefully for partnership dissolution cases.
Which of the following transactions will not be recorded in the Branch Account maintained by the Head Office under the Debtors System?
View Solution
Under Debtors System, transactions between branch and customers are recorded. Expenses paid directly by head office are not recorded in branch account. Quick Tip: Debtors system focuses on sales and cash flows via debtors.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
- Nomination → (III)
- Indemnity → (IV)
- Assignment → (II)
- Guarantee → (I) Quick Tip: Matching insurance terms requires understanding legal definitions.
Mr. A insures his house worth Rs. 10 crores with two insurers HDFC for Rs. 7.50 crores and Bajaj Allianz for Rs. 7.50 crores. The actual loss of house destroyed is Rs. 7 crores. Now, Mr. A can claim full loss of Rs. 7 crores either from HDFC or Bajaj Allianz or proportionately Rs. 3.5 crores from each of them.
Which principle of insurance is applicable in this situation?
View Solution
When a loss is insured by multiple insurers, the claim is shared proportionately. This is the Principle of Contribution. Quick Tip: Principle of Contribution prevents the insured from claiming more than the actual loss.
Which of the following principles distinguishes an insurance contract from a wagering contract?
View Solution
An insurance contract requires the insured to have a legitimate financial interest in the subject matter, unlike a wagering contract. This is governed by the principle of Insurable Interest. Quick Tip: Insurable Interest is what legally differentiates insurance from gambling.
The sum of deviations of the items from ignoring signs is the least?
View Solution
The sum of absolute deviations from the Median is always minimum compared to mean or mode. Quick Tip: Median minimizes the sum of absolute deviations in a data set.
The relationship between mean, median and mode is:
View Solution
The empirical relationship for moderately skewed distributions is: \[ Mode = 3 \times Median - 2 \times Mean. \] Quick Tip: This formula helps estimate the mode when only mean and median are known.
Arrange the following cost concepts in the correct order in which they appear in the Cost Sheet.
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Cost Sheet sequence: Prime Cost → Works Cost → Cost of Production → Cost of Sales. Quick Tip: Understanding cost flow is essential for preparing an accurate cost sheet.
In a factory 1,000 workers were idle because of a power failure. As a result, a loss of production of 2,000 units of Product X and 4,000 units of Product Y occurred. Each employee was paid a normal wage at the rate of Rs. 100 per hour. One standard hour is required to manufacture five units of Product X and four units of Product Y. How much is the Idle Time Variance due to power failure?
View Solution
Step 1: Calculate total standard hours lost.
Product X: \( \frac{2000}{5} = 400 \) hours, Product Y: \( \frac{4000}{4} = 1000 \) hours. Total = 1400 hours.
Step 2: Multiply by wage rate per hour.
\[ 1400 \times 100 = 1,40,000 Rs. \]
(Actually, we have 1000 workers idle, so 1,40,000 × 2 = 2,40,000 Rs adverse.) Quick Tip: Idle Time Variance = Idle hours × Standard wage rate. Include all idle workers.
Arrange the following needs in the order in which they appear in the Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, starting from bottom to top.
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Maslow’s hierarchy from bottom to top: Physiological → Safety → Social → Esteem → Self-actualization. Quick Tip: Always start with basic needs (physiological) when arranging Maslow’s hierarchy.
Disbursing organisational authority for making decisions in an organised structure is called:
View Solution
Delegation is the process of assigning authority to others to make decisions while holding them responsible for outcomes. Quick Tip: Delegation is the key to effective management and organizational efficiency.
As per the scalar principle, which term is used for the relationship in which a superior exercises direct supervision over a subordinate?
View Solution
Line authority is direct authority flowing vertically from superior to subordinate, following the scalar chain. Quick Tip: Line authority ensures clarity of command in hierarchical structures.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
- Chain of command → (A)
- Authority → (B)
- Unity of command → (C)
- Span of control → (D) Quick Tip: Matching organisational principles requires identifying key management definitions.
Arrange the following steps in the process of delegation of authority in the correct order.
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step sequence in delegation:
Determine results → Assign tasks → Delegate authority → Hold responsible. Quick Tip: Delegation is a structured process that ensures accountability.
Which type of computer is a large, powerful and expensive one that can support many users at one time, store vast amounts of data, and perform many tasks at the same time?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify types of computers.
- Personal Computer: Small, single-user system
- Mini Computer: Mid-range system, supports few users
- Micro Computer: Small computer with microprocessor
- Mainframe Computer: Large, powerful, supports multiple users and huge data storage
Step 2: Match with description.
The given description fits Mainframe Computer.
Quick Tip: Mainframe computers are used in banks, airlines, and large organizations for high-volume data processing.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
View Solution
Step 1: Review each statement.
- Linux: Open-source OS → Correct
- Unix: Multi-user OS → Correct
- MS DOS: Microsoft Disk Operating System → Correct
- Google Chrome: Web browser, not an OS → Incorrect
Quick Tip: Distinguish between operating systems (Linux, Windows) and applications (Chrome, Word).
Which of the following statements are correct?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze each statement.
- (A) Seasonal variation → correct, period < 1 year
- (B) Cyclical variation → correct, period > 1 year
- (C) Incorrect, seasonality is not forecasting
- (D) Cyclical behaviour = business cycle → correct
Quick Tip: Seasonal vs cyclical: Seasonal is short-term (<1 year), cyclical is long-term (>1 year).
Match List-I (Management Theories/Principles) with List-II (Management Thinkers):

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify contributors:
- Frederick W. Taylor = Scientific Management
- Henri Fayol = 14 Principles of Management
- Max Weber = Bureaucracy
- Elton Mayo = Hawthorne Studies
Step 2: Match accordingly:
(A) → (III), (B) → (I), (C) → (IV), (D) → (II) Quick Tip: Matching management concepts with theorists helps understand the origin of management principles.
Which method of measurement of cyclical variation consists of eliminating seasonal variation and trend, for obtaining the cyclical irregularities?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify method function.
- Residual Method: Removes trend and seasonal variation → isolates cyclical component
- Reference cycle, direct, harmonic: other methods, do not isolate residuals in this way
Quick Tip: Residual method is the simplest way to study cyclical variations after removing trend and seasonality.
A square matrix having all the elements above the leading diagonal equal to zero is known as:
View Solution
Step 1: Recall matrix definitions.
- Upper Triangular: all elements below the diagonal = 0
- Lower Triangular: all elements above the diagonal = 0
- Null/Zero matrix: all elements = 0
Step 2: Match with description.
All elements above diagonal = 0 → Lower Triangular
Quick Tip: Remember: "Upper → zeros below, Lower → zeros above".
Which is the term used for a contract where both the parties to the contract have fulfilled their obligations under the contract?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify contract types.
- Executed: obligations completed by both parties
- Unilateral: one party makes promise
- Reciprocal: mutual obligations, may not be fulfilled
- Quasi: imposed by law
Quick Tip: Executed contracts are “fully performed” contracts.
In a contract of sale, there is no implied condition as to quality or fitness for any particular purpose of goods supplied. According to which rule, it is the duty of buyer to see and satisfy whether the goods purchased will be suitable for his purpose or not?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify rules.
- Caveat Emptor = "Let the buyer beware", responsibility on buyer
- Express condition: stated conditions
- Contingent warranty: depends on event
Quick Tip: Caveat Emptor applies unless seller gives express warranties.
Which of the following are true statements relating to delivery of goods?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze statements.
- (A) Correct: Delivery/payment often concurrent
- (B) Correct: Delivery modes = actual, symbolic, constructive
- (C) Incorrect: no restriction on time of day
- (D) Correct: Wrong quality delivery is covered by law
Quick Tip: Delivery types: actual = handing over, symbolic = token, constructive = control passed.
Which of the following tests are often employed to measure advertising effectiveness?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Explain each test.
- Recognition test: Measures recall of ads
- Inquiry test: Measures consumer inquiries
- Reason-why test: Measures comprehension of ad message
- Sales test: Measures impact on sales → all correct
Quick Tip: Advertising effectiveness tests check awareness, comprehension, inquiries, and actual sales impact.
"Every person dealing with the company is presumed to have read the memorandum and articles of associations and understood them in their true perspective, irrespective of the fact whether one has actually read them or not." The underlying doctrine in this regard is known as
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the concept of constructive notice.
- Doctrine of constructive notice assumes that everyone dealing with a company has knowledge of its memorandum and articles of association.
Step 2: Compare with other doctrines.
- Indoor management relates to protecting outsiders dealing with the company against irregularities (different from constructive notice).
- Lapse doctrine relates to shareholders’ rights ceasing after certain events.
Step 3: Conclude.
- The statement clearly refers to the doctrine of constructive notice. Quick Tip: Constructive notice = "You are assumed to know the company's rules, whether you read them or not."
Which of the following lays down that the affairs of the company are conducted perfectly consistent with the articles of association of the company, consequently the persons dealing with them are not to be affected by any irregularity which might have taken place in the management of the company?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the doctrine of indoor management.
- Protects outsiders dealing with the company from internal irregularities.
Step 2: Compare with other doctrines.
- Constructive notice protects the company, not outsiders.
- Lapse doctrine and Top management doctrine are not relevant here.
Step 3: Conclude.
- Doctrine of Indoor Management applies. Quick Tip: Indoor management doctrine = "outsiders are not affected by internal irregularities."
Which of the following generative AI applications is considered as the most disruptive?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify AI applications.
- Chat GPT is widely recognized for its generative capabilities and disruption in multiple industries.
- Gemini, Copilot, and Deepseek are significant but less disruptive comparatively.
Step 2: Conclude.
- Chat GPT is the most disruptive generative AI application. Quick Tip: Disruptive AI = significantly changes workflows and creates new opportunities.
Match the following committees with their mandates in List I and List II:

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify correct committees and mandates.
- Malhotra Committee → Insurance Sector Reforms
- Narsimham Committee → Financial Sector Reforms
- Vaghul Committee → NBFC Reforms
- Shah Committee → Money Market Reforms
Step 2: Match with options.
- Option 2 correctly aligns all committees with their mandates. Quick Tip: Committee reforms often focus on a specific sector; always memorize key committee mandates.
Arrange the following steps involved in the book building process in the correct order:
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Start with planning the IPO/FPO.
- D: Planning IPO/FPO and appointment of lead book runners
Step 2: Submit RHP and appoint syndicate members.
- C: Filing of RHP and forming syndicate
Step 3: Price determination and bidding.
- B: Determine price, ask for bids, revise if necessary
Step 4: Issue of prospectus, final allotment.
- A: Issue prospectus, allot shares
Step 5: Conclude correct sequence.
- D → C → B → A Quick Tip: Book building = orderly sequence from planning → filing → bidding → allotment.
Match the following terms in List I with their respective definitions in List II:

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify correct matches.
- System Software = II
- Operating System = I
- Compiler = IV
- Application Software = III
Step 2: Conclude.
- Option 3 is correct. Quick Tip: System software manages resources; Application software solves user-specific tasks.
Arrange the following steps for solving Simplex linear programming problems in the correct order:

View Solution
Step 1: Introduce slack variables.
- Convert inequalities into equalities → (A)
Step 2: Set up initial basic feasible solution.
- Identify feasible solution → (B)
Step 3: Set up initial Simplex tableau and test for optimality.
- (C)
Step 4: Revision and repeat until optimal solution.
- (D)
Quick Tip: Simplex method = Slack → Initial solution → Tableau → Iterate until optimal.
According to the Indian Budget Estimates 2025-26, arrange the following tax receipts from lower to higher order:
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Corporate Taxes
(C) Income Tax
(D) GST Collection
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify approximate receipts.
- Custom Duty < Corporate Taxes < GST Collection < Income Tax
Step 2: Conclude order.
- Option 1 is correct. Quick Tip: Custom Duty = smallest; Income Tax = largest component of direct taxes.
Sale price = Rs. 50/unit, Variable cost = Rs. 30/unit, Fixed cost = Rs. 20000. Find units to earn Rs. 5000 profit.
View Solution
Step 1: Use the formula:
\[ Profit = (Selling price - Variable cost) \times Q - Fixed cost \]
Step 2: Substitute values:
\[ 5000 = (50-30) \times Q - 20000 \] \[ 5000 = 20 Q - 20000 \] \[ 20 Q = 25000 \] \[ Q = \frac{25000}{20} = 1250 \] Quick Tip: Break-even units + desired profit = (Fixed cost + Profit)/(Price - Variable cost)
The exchange rate differential between the currencies of two countries is explained by:
View Solution
Step 1: Understand exchange rate determination.
- Major factors = interest rate, inflation differential, and purchasing power parity.
Step 2: Conclude.
- Option 4 (Interest-Inflation rate differential) explains exchange rate differences. Quick Tip: Interest-inflation differential = key driver of currency value fluctuations.
Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify taxable heads for each income source.
- Sale of jewelry → Capital gain/loss
- Pension from former employer → Income from Salary
- Salary received from partnership firm → Profits and gains from business or profession
- Income from sub-letting → Income from other sources
Step 2: Match accordingly.
Correct matching: (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Quick Tip: Capital gains, salary, business income, and other sources are the main taxable heads under Income Tax. Always categorize income carefully.
Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify sections for deductions.
- Deposit in Sukanya Samriddhi Account → 80C
- Interest on loan for higher education → 80E
- Preventive health checkup → 80D
- Rent paid for accommodation → 80GG
Step 2: Match accordingly.
Correct matching: (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Quick Tip: Remember 80C for savings schemes, 80D for health, 80E for education loans, and 80GG for house rent allowance.
Which of the following statements are true?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Verify each statement.
- (A) True → Agricultural income is exempt
- (B) True → Partial integration available to mentioned entities
- (C) False → No such Rs. 5000 limit
- (D) True → Non-agricultural income must exceed exemption limit
Step 2: Identify correct combination.
Correct statements: (A), (B), (D)
Quick Tip: Partial integration allows some agricultural income to be taxed along with non-agricultural income, but it has no Rs. 5000 cap.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
View Solution
Step 1: Definitions.
- Tax planning → Legal and encourages efficiency
- Tax avoidance → Legal, reduces tax liability within law
- Tax evasion → Illegal
Step 2: Identify incorrect statement.
“Tax avoidance is unlawful” is incorrect
Quick Tip: Tax planning and tax avoidance are legal, but tax evasion is illegal. Never confuse avoidance with evasion.
Who has given the concept of 4P's of Marketing?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall marketing history.
The concept of 4P’s (Product, Price, Place, Promotion) was introduced by E.J. McCarthy
Quick Tip: Remember: 4P’s = McCarthy, 4C’s = Customer-centric approach.
Which of the following statements are true about Niche marketing?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Check definitions.
- Niche marketing → Focus on a narrow, specialised segment
- Undifferentiated marketing → Targets mass market, opposite of niche
- (D) Incorrect → Niche does not target multiple wider segments
Step 2: Correct statements.
(A) and (B) only
Quick Tip: Niche marketing = narrow focus. Mass marketing = broad focus. Never mix the two.
Identify the correct sequence for different levels of product:
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Sequence of product levels.
- Basic → core benefit
- Expected → attributes customers expect
- Augmented → additional features
- Potential → all possible future enhancements
Step 2: Apply sequence.
Correct order: (B), (C), (A), (D)
Quick Tip: Remember: Think of a product from core benefit → expected → added features → future possibilities.
Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Identify pricing techniques.
- Mark-up pricing → Adds a predetermined profit margin to cost → (III)
- Perceived value pricing → Based on consumer perception of value → (IV)
- Differential pricing → Different prices for same offering → (I)
- Price skimming → Initial high price for new product → (II)
Step 2: Match accordingly.
Correct matching: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Quick Tip: Mark-up = cost + profit, Perceived value = consumer perception, Differential = different segments, Skimming = high introductory price.
Which of the following is not a part of the traditional 4 Ps of marketing?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall 4 Ps.
- Product, Price, Place, Promotion
Step 2: Identify extra option.
Packaging is not part of the original 4 Ps
Quick Tip: 4 Ps = Product, Price, Place, Promotion. Packaging can be part of Product strategy but is not a separate P.
Which of the following contributes maximum in the Indian Gross Domestic Production (GDP)?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall sector contributions to GDP.
- Agriculture → ~15-18%
- Manufacturing → ~25%
- Services → ~55-60%
Step 2: Identify the maximum contributor.
The Services sector contributes the most.
Quick Tip: Services sector includes IT, banking, telecom, trade, and transport; it dominates India’s GDP.
Which of the following is a method for selecting and qualifying advertising goals and for using those goals to measure advertising performance?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall the advertising models.
- AIDA model → Attention, Interest, Desire, Action; focuses on customer response
- DAGMAR → Defining Advertising Goals for Measured Advertising Results; selects & qualifies goals and measures performance
Step 2: Identify the correct model.
DAGMAR is specifically designed to set and measure advertising objectives
Quick Tip: DAGMAR = Advertising goals + measurable results; AIDA = consumer response sequence.
Unified Payment Interface (UPI) is developed, promoted and owned by which of the following?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall UPI ownership.
UPI is a digital payment system developed, promoted, and managed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
Quick Tip: UPI allows instant inter-bank transfers via mobile apps and is India’s leading digital payment platform.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Check each statement.
- (A) True → Proportional tax stabilises income automatically
- (B) True → Increase in autonomous spending increases equilibrium income
- (C) False → Higher MPC → higher multiplier, not lower
- (D) True → Lower transfer payments reduce aggregate output
Step 2: Select correct combination.
(A), (B) and (D) are correct
Quick Tip: Multiplier rises with higher marginal propensity to consume; automatic stabilisers include proportional taxes.
Which of the following represents the inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of increase in money wages?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall macroeconomic curves.
- Phillips Curve shows the inverse relationship between wage inflation and unemployment
Quick Tip: Phillips Curve: Lower unemployment → higher wage inflation, and vice versa.
Which of the following is not a part of the Circular flow of Income in a closed economy?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall closed economy circular flow.
- Participants: Households, Firms, Government
- Foreign entities are part of open economy flow, not closed economy
Quick Tip: Closed economy = no foreign trade; open economy includes exports/imports and foreign investors.
Among the following theories of international trade, which one is the oldest?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall historical order.
- Mercantilist Doctrine (16th–18th century) → oldest trade theory
- Absolute Advantage → Adam Smith, 1776
- Comparative Advantage → David Ricardo, 1817
- Factor Proportions → Heckscher-Ohlin, 20th century
Quick Tip: Mercantilism focused on accumulation of gold and trade surplus, predating classical trade theories.
Which of the following records the flow of foreign exchange from all international transactions over a period of time?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify definitions.
- Balance of Payments (BOP) records all international transactions (goods, services, capital, transfers) over time
Quick Tip: BOP = Current Account + Capital Account + Financial Account; shows total foreign exchange flow.
Which of the following is not an objective of Economic Planning in India?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall economic planning goals.
- Goals: Employment, Growth, Reduce Inequality, Poverty Alleviation
- Increasing population growth is not a goal
Quick Tip: Economic planning aims to improve welfare, not increase population.
The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum for three years at 5% per annum is Rs. 76.30. Find the sum.
View Solution
Step 1: Recall formula for difference between CI and SI.
Difference for n years at rate r: \( CI - SI = P \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right)^n - P - P \cdot n \cdot \frac{r}{100} \)
Step 2: Apply values.
\[ 76.30 = P \left[\left(1 + \frac{5}{100}\right)^3 - 1 - 3 \cdot \frac{5}{100}\right] \] \[ 76.30 = P \left[(1.05)^3 - 1 - 0.15\right] \] \[ (1.05)^3 = 1.157625 \] \[ 1.157625 - 1 - 0.15 = 0.007625 \] \[ 76.30 = P \cdot 0.007625 \] \[ P = \frac{76.30}{0.007625} = 10,000 \] Quick Tip: Difference between compound and simple interest is small for low rates and short periods; always use the formula \(CI-SI = P[(1 + r/100)^n - 1 - n \cdot r/100]\).
Which of the following terms is used in economics parlance to describe a person who receives the benefits of a good but avoids paying for it?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall economic terms.
- Free Rider → Consumes a good/service without paying for it
- Debtor → Owes money
- Willful Defaulter → Deliberately avoids payment of dues
- Ungrateful Beneficiary → Not an economic term
Quick Tip: Public goods often suffer from free rider problem because individuals can benefit without contributing.
Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall the definition of negotiable instruments.
- Negotiable instruments are transferable documents that guarantee payment of a specific amount to the bearer or the order of a specified person.
- Examples: Bill of exchange, Promissory notes, Cheques.
- Letter of credit is a banking instrument used in trade, but it is not transferable in the sense of negotiable instruments. Quick Tip: Negotiable instruments must be freely transferable and guarantee payment; letters of credit are conditional instruments.
Specifies the minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers, which commercial banks have to hold as reserves either in cash or as deposits with the Central Bank.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the terms.
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) → Minimum fraction of deposits banks must hold with RBI in cash.
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) → Minimum fraction of deposits banks must maintain in approved securities.
- Repo Rate / Reverse Repo Rate → Interest rates, not reserves. Quick Tip: CRR controls liquidity in the economy by ensuring banks keep a fraction of deposits with the central bank.
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Match institutions to functions.
- NABARD → Agricultural & rural finance → (III)
- SFC → Promote industrialisation in backward areas → (II)
- IDBI → Industrial finance → (1)
- SIDC → Support small scale units at state level → (IV)
Quick Tip: Remember: NABARD → Agriculture, SFC → Backward areas, IDBI → Industry, SIDC → Small scale units.
Which of the following are the main functions of RBI?
Choose the Correct one from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Recall the main functions of RBI.
- Maintain monetary stability → Yes (A)
- Maintain stable payments system → Yes (B)
- Regulate money and credit volume → Yes (C)
- Promote financial infrastructure → Yes (D)
Quick Tip: RBI is both a monetary authority and a regulator of banking/financial infrastructure.
The recent increase in the tariffs by the USA on its trading partners undermines the institutional validity of which of the following?
View Solution
Step 1: Recall the role of institutions.
- WTO → World Trade Organization → enforces trade rules, ensures free and fair trade.
- GATT → Predecessor of WTO.
- UNCTAD → Promotes trade/development for developing countries.
- SAARC → Regional cooperation in South Asia.
- When a major country raises tariffs unilaterally, it undermines WTO principles of trade liberalization. Quick Tip: WTO ensures multilateral trade agreements are respected; unilateral tariff hikes violate these agreements.



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