NTA is conducting the CUET 2025 exam from 13th May to 3rd June. CUET Accountancy Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available here for download. the CUET Accountancy 2025 Question paper was difficult.
As per the exam pattern, the CUET Accountancy exam will consist of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes. 5 marks will be awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect answer.
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CUET Accountancy Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key
| CUET Accountancy Question Paper 2025 | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
Note: The CUET 2025 Accountancy paper will now include an option to the student (to choose between questions from 'Unit V' or 'optional to Unit V'). The rest of the question paper will continue to cover content from Units 1 to 4 as per the notified syllabus. Check details here

Question 1:
Match List – I with List – II.
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In the cash flow statement, activities are categorized as follows:
- (A) - (III): Sale of Investment is an investing activity since it involves managing long-term assets.
- (B) - (II): Depreciation is a non-cash expense and is added back under operating activities to adjust profit to cash flow.
- (C) - (I): Repayment of Long-Term Borrowings is a financing activity related to capital structure management.
- (D) - (IV): An increase in Current Assets reduces cash flow from operating activities, so it is deducted. Quick Tip: Investment sale = Investing activity. Depreciation = Non-cash, added back to operating cash flow. Loan repayment = Financing activity. Increase in current assets = Deduction from operating cash flow.
Correct sequence of Balance Sheet
A. Short term Loans and Advances
B. Deferred tax liability (Net)
C. Shareholders Fund
D. Capital (work in-progress)
E. Current Liabilities
Choose the correct Option:
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The proper sequence on the balance sheet typically follows:
1. Shareholders' Fund (C): Represents the owners’ equity.
2. Deferred Tax Liability (Net) (B): Long-term liabilities related to taxes.
3. Current Liabilities (E): Short-term debts payable within a year.
4. Capital Work in Progress (D): Long-term assets under development.
5. Short-term Loans and Advances (A): Current assets expected to be converted to cash soon. Quick Tip: Balance Sheet presentation flows from long-term liabilities to short-term, followed by long-term assets to short-term assets, helping evaluate liquidity and solvency effectively.
Identify the correct sequence for application of assets at the time of dissolution of firm:
A. Partner’s Loans or Advances
B. Partner’s Capital
C. Profit among the partners in their profit-sharing ratio
D. Third parties such as creditors and Bank Loans
Choose the correct option:
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Upon dissolution, assets are applied in this order:
1. Third-party liabilities (D): External creditors paid first to settle debts.
2. Partner’s loans or advances (A): Loans made by partners to the firm repaid next.
3. Partner’s capital (B): Return of capital invested by partners.
4. Profit distribution (C): Remaining profits distributed as per agreement. Quick Tip: During dissolution, prioritize settling external debts before repaying partners to avoid legal issues.
In Common size Balance Sheet, percentage of various items is expressed as a percentage of:
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In a common size balance sheet, every item (both assets and liabilities) is expressed as a percentage of the total assets. This standardization facilitates easy comparison between companies of different sizes and across different periods by removing the scale factor. It helps analysts understand the relative weight of each component in the financial structure. Quick Tip: Common-size financial statements present items as a percentage of total assets to enable meaningful comparisons regardless of company size.
Match the following:
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- (A) - (ii): Partner’s salary is an appropriation of profit, so it is debited to the Profit and Loss Appropriation Account, not the main P\&L account.
- (B) - (i): Manager’s salary is an operating expense and hence charged to the Profit and Loss Account.
- (C) - (iv): Interest on drawings is income for the firm and credited to the Profit and Loss Appropriation Account.
- (D) - (iii): Commission received is income and credited to the Profit and Loss Account. Quick Tip: Remember: Partner’s salary and interest on drawings go to Appropriation Account; manager’s salary and commissions go to Profit \& Loss Account.
Average profit of firm is Rs 3,00,000. Total tangible assets in the firm are Rs 28,00,000 and outside liabilities are Rs 8,00,000. In same type of business, normal rate of return is 10% of capital employed. Calculate goodwill by Capitalisation of Super Profit Method.
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Capital Employed = Total Assets - Outside Liabilities = Rs 28,00,000 - Rs 8,00,000 = Rs 20,00,000.
Normal Profit = Capital Employed × Normal Rate of Return = Rs 20,00,000 × 10% = Rs 2,00,000.
Super Profit = Average Profit - Normal Profit = Rs 3,00,000 - Rs 2,00,000 = Rs 1,00,000.
Goodwill = Super Profit × (100 / Normal Rate of Return) = Rs 1,00,000 × (100/10) = Rs 10,00,000. Quick Tip: Goodwill by Capitalisation of Super Profit = Super Profit × (100 / Normal Rate of Return). Super Profit = Average Profit - Normal Profit.
If the net profit of the company is Rs 35,000 after writing off goodwill of Rs 16,000 and loss on sale of machinery of Rs 5,000, then cash flow from operating activities will be:
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Cash flow from operating activities starts with net profit. Non-cash expenses (goodwill written off) and losses on sale of assets are added back because they reduce profit but do not affect cash.
Therefore, Cash flow from operating activities = Rs 35,000 + Rs 16,000 + Rs 5,000 = Rs 56,000. Quick Tip: Add back all non-cash expenses and losses on asset sales to net profit to calculate cash flow from operating activities.
Aman, a partner, is to bear all the expenses on realisation for which he is to be paid Rs 2,000. Aman has to pay realisation expenses of Rs 2,500. How much amount will be debited to realisation account?
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The realization account is used to record the actual expenses incurred by the firm during the process of dissolution. Since Aman agreed to bear the expenses and be reimbursed Rs 2,000, this is the amount the firm recognizes as realisation expenses (debited to realization account). The excess Rs 500 paid by Aman personally is not recorded in the firm's books and is a personal expense of Aman, thus not debited to the realization account. Quick Tip: Only the amount agreed upon and reimbursed by the firm is debited to the realization account. Personal expenses of partners are excluded from firm accounts.
Nominal share capital is:
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Nominal share capital, also known as authorized share capital, represents the maximum amount of capital that a company is legally permitted to raise through the issuance of shares to shareholders. It sets a ceiling on how much share capital the company can offer but does not mean the entire amount is issued or subscribed. Quick Tip: Remember: Nominal (Authorized) Capital = Maximum capital company can issue legally; Issued Capital \(\leq\) Nominal Capital.
Because of exclusion of non-liquid current assets which of the following ratio is considered better than current ratio as a measure of liquidity position of business?
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The Acid Test Ratio (or Quick Ratio) measures a firm's ability to meet its short-term obligations without relying on the sale of inventory or other less liquid current assets such as prepaid expenses. It includes only the most liquid assets — cash, marketable securities, and receivables. This makes it a more stringent and reliable indicator of liquidity compared to the current ratio, which includes inventory and prepaid expenses that might not be quickly convertible into cash. Quick Tip: Acid Test Ratio = (Current Assets – Inventory – Prepaid Expenses) ÷ Current Liabilities; provides a stricter liquidity measure than Current Ratio.



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