CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Home Science paper on 22 May in Shift 2. CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 45 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Home Science.

CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

CUET 2024 Home Science​ Question Paper with Solution download icon Download Check Solution

CUET Home Science Question Paper with Solution

Question 1.
Identify the type of processed foods prepared by mixing and processing of individual ingredients resulting in relatively shelf-stable food products.
  • (1) Formulated foods
  • (2) Food derivatives
  • (3) Functional foods
  • (4) Medical foods
Correct Answer: (1) Formulated foods
View Solution

Formulated foods are produced by combining various individual ingredients through specific processing methods. These foods are designed to be safe, stable, and convenient for storage and distribution.

Formulated foods include products like instant noodles, protein bars, and infant formula — all designed for shelf stability and consistency.

Question 2.
Which among the following are physical hazards present in foods?
  • (A) Stones
  • (B) Pesticide residues
  • (C) Match sticks
  • (D) Stems and seeds
  • (E) Veterinary residues

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (D) only
  • (2) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C), (E) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (C), (D) only
View Solution

Question 3.
Mr. X sells gol gappas/pani puri and bhel puri in an urban slum of Delhi. Identify the type of food service system.
  • (1) Conventional food service system
  • (2) Assembly-service system
  • (3) Ready-prepared food service system
  • (4) Commissary food service system
Correct Answer: (2) Assembly-service system
View Solution

Mr. X is assembling and serving pre-prepared ingredients directly to the customer, which characterizes an assembly-service food system — where food is purchased pre-cooked and only assembled before service.

Assembly-service = minimal preparation, mostly reheating or combining ready items.

Question 4.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Nutrition Programmes)

  • (A) Saksham Anganwadi (ICDS)
  • (B) PM POSHAN (Mid Day Meal Programme)
  • (C) Antodaya Anna Yojana
  • (D) NIDDCP

List-II (Type/aim of Nutrition Programmes)

  • (I) Nutrient Deficiency Control Programme
  • (II) Food Security Programme
  • (III) Outreach programme for ECC
  • (IV) Food Supplementation Programme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (3) (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
View Solution

Question 5.
Which among the following is NOT the personal skill required to pursue career in the food service industry?
  • (1) Interest in food and regular update of trends in national and international cuisines
  • (2) Communication and negotiation skill
  • (3) Good leadership and regular update in food safety and hygiene
  • (4) Arithmetic and algebra knowledge professionally
Correct Answer: (4) Arithmetic and algebra knowledge professionally
View Solution

While basic numeracy is helpful, professional-level knowledge of arithmetic and algebra is not a core skill for success in food service. Skills like communication, hygiene knowledge, and culinary trends are more critical.

Focus on people skills, hygiene awareness, and food trends for a career in food services.

Question 6.
______ is the set of methods and techniques used to transform raw ingredients into finished and semi-finished food products.
  • (1) Food Science
  • (2) Food Processing
  • (3) Food Technology
  • (4) Food Manufacturing
Correct Answer: (2) Food Processing
View Solution

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is incorrect in the context of HACCP?
  • (1) Enables to detect hazards at any stage of processing or manufacture
  • (2) Enables producers, processors, distributors and exporters to utilise resources efficiently and in a cost-effective manner for assuring food safety
  • (3) Promote the development of standardisation and related activities in the world with a view to facilitate the international exchange of goods and services
  • (4) Assures consistently good quality products
Correct Answer: (3) Promote the development of standardisation and related activities in the world with a view to facilitate the international exchange of goods and services
View Solution

This statement relates to the objectives of international organizations like ISO, not HACCP. HACCP is focused solely on food safety by identifying and controlling hazards in the production process.

HACCP = Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points — it's about food safety, not trade standardization.

Question 8.
Children whose families are not traceable, or are unfit/dead or simply unwilling to take the child back stay in:
  • (1) Observation homes
  • (2) Special homes
  • (3) Adoption homes
  • (4) Children homes
Correct Answer: (4) Children homes
View Solution

Children homes are designed to provide long-term shelter, care, and protection for children who have no family or whose families cannot care for them.

Children homes serve as safe residential facilities for orphaned or abandoned minors.

Question 9.
In India, the first SOS village was set up in which year?
  • (1) 1961
  • (2) 1962
  • (3) 1964
  • (4) 1963
Correct Answer: (1) 1961
View Solution

Question 10.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Name of the Programme/Scheme/Initiative)

  • (A) The National Service Volunteer Scheme (NSVS)
  • (B) NSS
  • (C) Multi-Service Centres for Older Persons
  • (D) SOS Children's Villages

List-II (Objective)

  • (I) Provide a family approach to the long-term care of orphaned and abandoned children
  • (II) Provide day-care, educational and entertainment opportunities, healthcare, companionship
  • (III) Provides opportunities to students (who have completed their studies) to involve themselves on a whole-time basis for a short period of one or two years in programmes of national development
  • (IV) Aims at involving college level students in programmes of social service and national development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-IV
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
View Solution

Question 11.
Which of the following programmes in India provides medical care to the older persons living in backward and backward areas?
  • (1) Respite Care Homes
  • (2) Continuous Care Homes
  • (3) Multi-Service Centres for Older Persons
  • (4) Mobile Medicare Units
Correct Answer: (4) Mobile Medicare Units
View Solution

Mobile Medicare Units provide healthcare and medical support directly to older persons in remote and backward areas, where permanent facilities may not be available.

Mobile Medicare Units bring services to the doorstep, especially in rural and hard-to-reach areas.

Question 12.
Which among the following is NOT the condition that affects communication, social interaction and play behaviour?
  • (1) Cerebral Palsy
  • (2) Autism
  • (3) ADHD
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Cerebral Palsy
View Solution

Cerebral palsy primarily affects motor function and muscle coordination. While it may impact communication secondarily, it is not categorized mainly under conditions like autism or ADHD, which directly impact communication and social behavior.

Autism and ADHD are neurodevelopmental disorders that directly impact social and communication skills.

Question 13.
The most commonly used term to refer to the density of knitted fabric measured by the weight of the given area is:
  • (1) Ends per Inch (EPI)
  • (2) Picks per Inch (PPI)
  • (3) Grams per Square Metre (GSM)
  • (4) Thread Count
Correct Answer: (3) Grams per Square Metre (GSM)
View Solution

GSM (Grams per Square Metre) is the standard unit to measure fabric density, especially for knitted and woven fabrics. Higher GSM indicates heavier, thicker fabric.

GSM is key in textiles to compare fabric weights across different types and uses.

Question 14.
Arrange the stages of fashion cycle in correct order:
  • (A) Increase in popularity
  • (B) Introduction of a style
  • (C) Peak of popularity
  • (D) Decline in popularity
  • (E) Obsolescence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
  • (2) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
  • (3) (B), (D), (C), (E), (A)
  • (4) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
View Solution

Question 15.
Identify the given standardisation mark:ISI mark image
  • (1) ISI
  • (2) FPO
  • (3) Hallmark
  • (4) AGMARK
Correct Answer: (1) ISI
View Solution

The logo shown in the image is the ISI mark (Indian Standards Institute), which certifies that a product conforms to Indian standards of quality and safety.

ISI is used for industrial products; Hallmark is for gold, AGMARK is for agricultural products, and FPO for processed food.

Question 16.
Which of the following is NOT a consumer responsibility?
  • (1) Consumer should read all the information given on the brochure/label
  • (2) Consumer should be honest in all their dealings and must pay for all their purchases
  • (3) Consumer should keep receipts and relevant documents of purchase
  • (4) Consumer should avoid buying products with standardisation marks
Correct Answer: (4) Consumer should avoid buying products with standardisation marks
View Solution

Standardisation marks like ISI, AGMARK, and Hallmark assure quality and safety. Avoiding such marks contradicts consumer responsibility, making this the incorrect statement.

Responsible consumers should always check for standardisation marks to ensure product quality and safety.

Question 17.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Fabric Defects)

  • (A) Slub
  • (B) Misreed
  • (C) Shaded
  • (D) Baggy

List-II (Source of Faults)

  • (I) Weaving fault
  • (II) Yarn fault
  • (III) Dyeing fault
  • (IV) Finishing fault

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (2) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
  • (3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-IV, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-I
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
View Solution

Question 18.
Ms. K is fond of wearing hot pants, baggy pants and unmatched buttons. Which among the following concepts has she been following?
  • (1) Classic
  • (2) Style
  • (3) Fads
  • (4) Fashion
Correct Answer: (3) Fads
View Solution

Fads are short-lived trends that are often extreme or unconventional, such as mismatched buttons or unusual clothing styles.

Fads are temporary and often driven by peer influence or media, unlike lasting styles or classic fashion.

Question 19.
Preeti is wearing a red dress with green flowers on it. Which colour scheme is represented in her dress?
  • (1) Analogous colour scheme
  • (2) Complementary colour scheme
  • (3) Monochromatic colour scheme
  • (4) Split complementary colour scheme
Correct Answer: (2) Complementary colour scheme
View Solution

Red and green are opposite each other on the colour wheel, making them complementary colours, often used for strong contrast and vibrant aesthetics.

Complementary colours create bold contrast — often used in design and fashion for impact.

Question 20.
Arrange the specific methods and procedures of special education in correct order of their implementation:
  • (A) Undertaking regular evaluation of the Individualised Education Programme
  • (B) Facilitating all inclusion, access and use of support services
  • (C) Developing Individualised Education Programme for each student
  • (D) Assessing the child’s/student’s level in different areas of development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (2) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (3) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (4) (C), (D), (A), (B)
Correct Answer: (2) (D), (C), (B), (A)
View Solution

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct answer for the given sequence?

Sorry, no full question text is visible for Q21 in the image above. Please upload the missing content or question so I can help with it.


Question 22.
Which stage of Guest Cycle is focused on 'Guest Satisfaction and Customer Loyalty'?
  • (1) Pre-arrival stage
  • (2) Arrival stage
  • (3) Occupancy
  • (4) Departure
Correct Answer: (4) Departure
View Solution

Question 25.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Type of Media)

  • (A) Print
  • (B) Interactive
  • (C) Out of home
  • (D) Broadcast

List-II (Example)

  • (I) Television
  • (II) Internet
  • (III) Poster
  • (IV) Magazine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-IV, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-I
  • (2) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
  • (3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
  • (4) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-IV, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-I
View Solution

Question 26.
As a function of Human Resource Management, the systematic development of attitudes, knowledge, skills required by a person to perform a given task or job adequately is termed as:
  • (1) Training
  • (2) Development
  • (3) Appraisal
  • (4) Retention
Correct Answer: (1) Training
View Solution

Training is the HR function focused on equipping employees with the necessary skills, attitudes, and knowledge to effectively perform specific job tasks.

Training = job-specific skill development; Development = broader career growth.

Question 27.
Whom among the following is head of the kitchen, and is responsible for planning, organising and controlling the kitchen operations?
  • (1) Kitchen stewarding
  • (2) Chef-de-cuisine
  • (3) Restaurant manager
  • (4) Chef-de-parties
Correct Answer: (2) Chef-de-cuisine
View Solution

The Chef-de-cuisine (also known as Executive Chef) is in charge of the entire kitchen operation, including menu planning, staff management, and kitchen organization.

Chef-de-cuisine = Kitchen Head; Chef-de-partie = Station chef.

Question 28.
Which among the following personnel in the front office is responsible for determining shifts of the employees, welcoming guests and ensuring all arrivals ensuring accurate and speedy rooming procedure as well as checking occupancy?
  • (1) Front Office Supervisor
  • (2) Assistant Manager - Front Office
  • (3) Lobby Manager
  • (4) Receptionist
Correct Answer: (1) Front Office Supervisor
View Solution

The Front Office Supervisor manages the daily operations of the front desk, including staff schedules, guest check-ins/check-outs, and overall front office coordination.

The Front Office Supervisor ensures smooth workflow and guest service at the reception desk.

Question 29.
Identify the major functions of Human Resource/Talent Management:
  • (A) Gain knowledge about the goals of the company
  • (B) Recruiting and staffing
  • (C) Managing back office departments
  • (D) Training and developing employees
  • (E) Retention and Reversal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (2) (B), (C), (D) only
  • (3) (A), (D), (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C), (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (B), (D), (E) only
View Solution

Question 30.
Arrange the following housekeeping department personnel in top to bottom hierarchical order, below the level of executive housekeeper:
  • (A) Assistant Housekeeper
  • (B) Housemen
  • (C) Public Area Supervisor
  • (D) Head Housemen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (D), (B)
  • (2) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (4) (A), (D), (B), (C)
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (C), (D), (B)
View Solution

Question 31.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Types of Hospitality Establishment)

  • (A) Hotel
  • (B) Lodge
  • (C) Resort
  • (D) Furnished camps

List-II (Services)

  • (I) Offers lodging, meals
  • (II) Offers range of amenities, sports facilities and leisure activities
  • (III) Offers rented accommodation especially for sleeping but may not offer food
  • (IV) Hospitality to people undertaking adventure sports etc.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-II
  • (2) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III
  • (3) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
View Solution

Question 32.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a consumer problem regarding inadequate or erroneous information given by the manufacturer?
  • (1) Labels not factually correct, deceptive and misleading
  • (2) Incorrect weights and measures
  • (3) Non-informative advertisements
  • (4) Lack of buying guides to aid the consumer in decision-making
Correct Answer: (2) Incorrect weights and measures
View Solution

Incorrect weights and measures are examples of physical cheating, not information-related consumer issues. The others relate to misleading or incomplete product information.

Consumer problems related to information involve how the product is described or advertised, not its physical attributes.

Question 33.
Arrange the steps of nutritional care during illness in correct sequence:
  • (A) Assessing nutritional status
  • (B) Diagnosis of nutritional problems
  • (C) Planning and prioritising nutrition intervention(s) to meet nutritional needs
  • (D) Monitoring and evaluating nutritional care outcomes and making changes, if necessary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
View Solution

Question 34.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Consumer Organisation)

  • (A) Consumer Union
  • (B) VOICE
  • (C) Australian Consumer Association
  • (D) CERC

List-II (Publication)

  • (I) Consumer Voice
  • (II) Insight
  • (III) Consumer Report
  • (IV) Choice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
  • (2) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
View Solution

Question 35.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Medium of Communication)

  • (A) Educational Satellite
  • (B) Television
  • (C) ICTs
  • (D) Print Media

List-II (Development Communication Initiatives)

  • (I) Project Village Chhatera
  • (II) Sustainable Access in Rural India
  • (III) Kyunki Jeena Isi Ka Naam Hai
  • (IV) EDUSAT

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-III, (B)-II, (C)-IV, (D)-I
  • (2) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
  • (3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
View Solution

Question 36.
A brief 10 – 60 second message between programmes, generally in the form of jingles, is called as:
  • (1) Public Social Advertisement
  • (2) Public-Social Media Communication
  • (3) Public Service Announcement
  • (4) Participatory Service Announcement
Correct Answer: (3) Public Service Announcement
View Solution

Public Service Announcements (PSAs) are short messages aired between programs to educate or inform the public on health, safety, or social welfare topics.

PSAs are usually free and used by governments/NGOs for awareness drives.

Question 37.
Which among the following is a combination of different communication methods and materials about a theme for a predefined period of time?
  • (1) Radio programming
  • (2) Campaign
  • (3) Networking
  • (4) Counselling
Correct Answer: (2) Campaign
View Solution

A campaign involves coordinated use of multiple communication methods (radio, print, social media, etc.) focused on a central theme or issue for a set time period.

Campaigns = Planned multi-channel communication to achieve awareness or behavior change.

Question 38.
Which newspaper published a regular fortnightly column describing the lives of the people of a small village named Chhatera in Northwest Delhi under the Project Village Chhatera?
  • (1) The Times of India
  • (2) The Indian Express
  • (3) The Hindustan Times
  • (4) The Hindu
Correct Answer: (2) The Indian Express
View Solution

As part of the Project Village Chhatera, The Indian Express ran a special series highlighting rural livelihoods and developmental issues through real-life columns.

Newspapers often collaborate with development agencies to showcase grassroots initiatives.

Question 39.
Who among the following comprehended and explained that young children have different ways of understanding the world, due to which they need a supportive environment?
  • (1) Jean Piaget
  • (2) Lev Vygotsky
  • (3) Sigmund Freud
  • (4) Erik Erikson
Correct Answer: (2) Lev Vygotsky
View Solution

Lev Vygotsky emphasized the importance of social interaction and a supportive environment in cognitive development. He believed that children learn through guided participation and cultural context.

Vygotsky’s theory highlights the Zone of Proximal Development and the role of adult guidance.

Question 40.
Ms. Y purchased a geyser, which got burst when she switched it on. Which consumer right of hers is violated in this case?
  • (1) Right to be informed
  • (2) Right to choose
  • (3) Right to safety
  • (4) Right to be heard
Correct Answer: (3) Right to safety
View Solution

The right to safety protects consumers against products that are hazardous to life or property. A bursting geyser poses a serious safety risk, thus violating this right.

Products must meet safety standards. Defective or unsafe products violate consumer protection laws.

Question 41.
Which method of washing is used in front loading machine?
  • (1) Agitating
  • (2) Tumbling
  • (3) Pulsation
  • (4) Friction
Correct Answer: (2) Tumbling
View Solution

Front-loading washing machines use the tumbling method, where the drum rotates to gently lift and drop clothes. This method is energy-efficient and suitable for delicate clothes.

Tumbling = gentle motion, ideal for energy saving and fabric care in front-load washers.

Question 42.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

There are two types of institutions which have in-house laundry and maintenance setups i.e. within their organisation. These are hotels and hospitals. Both have a large quantity of bed linen and other room furnishing requirements as also staff uniforms and accessories such as aprons, caps, head dresses and masks.

The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. However, a number of hospitals have started using disposables where there is a threat of infection, which are then destroyed by burning. In the hospitality sector i.e. for hotel and restaurants, aesthetics and final finish of the articles are most important. As compared to hospitals, the articles here may be of different blend or fiber content. Final finishing of laundered goods, i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding, are emphasized. They also have to take care of guests’ personal laundry when required. The smaller hotels may have link ups with commercial laundries from outside.

Which fabric is used for hospital clothing?
  • (1) Synthetic
  • (2) Silk
  • (3) Cotton
  • (4) Rayon
Correct Answer: (3) Cotton
View Solution

Question 43.
Which sector lays stress on aesthetics and finishes of the articles?
  • (1) Hospital
  • (2) Hostel
  • (3) Hotel
  • (4) Prison
Correct Answer: (3) Hotel
View Solution

The hospitality sector (hotels and restaurants) focuses on the aesthetics and final presentation of laundry items, including pressing, folding, and appearance to maintain customer satisfaction and brand image.

Hotels emphasize neat presentation and visual appeal as part of guest experience.

Question 44.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

There are two types of institutions which have in-house laundry and maintenance setups i.e. within their organisation. These are hotels and hospitals. Both have a large quantum of bed linen and other room furnishing requirements as also staff uniforms and accessories such as aprons, caps, head dresses and masks.

The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. However, a number of hospitals have started using disposables where there is a threat of infection, which are then destroyed by burning. In the hospitality sector i.e. for hotel and restaurants, aesthetics and final finish of the articles are most important. As compared to hospitals, the articles here may be of different blend or fiber content. Final finishing of laundered goods, i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding, are emphasized. They also have to take care of guests’ personal laundry when required. The smaller hotels may have link ups with commercial laundries from outside.

How many types of institutions have in-house laundry and maintenance set-ups?
  • (1) Four
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Five
Correct Answer: (2) Two
View Solution

Question 45.
Which of the following methods can be applied for disinfecting laundry in hospitals?
  • (A) Use of disposables
  • (B) Use of anti-bacterial finishes on garments
  • (C) Use of disinfectants
  • (D) Use of chemicals and high temperature washing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
View Solution

Question 46.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

There are two types of institutions which have in-house laundry and maintenance setups i.e. within their organisation. These are hotels and hospitals. Both have a large quantum of bed linen and other room furnishing requirements as also staff uniforms and accessories such as aprons, caps, head dresses and masks.

The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. However, a number of hospitals have started using disposables where there is a threat of infection, which are then destroyed by burning. In the hospitality sector i.e. for hotel and restaurants, aesthetics and final finish of the articles are most important. As compared to hospitals, the articles here may be of different blend or fiber content. Final finishing of laundered goods, i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding, are emphasized. They also have to take care of guests’ personal laundry when required. The smaller hotels may have link ups with commercial laundries from outside.

Which of the following statement is NOT correct with regard to in-house laundry set-ups?
  • (1) They exist within the organisation
  • (2) They are responsible for washing organisational laundry only
  • (3) They also provide final finishing to laundered garments
  • (4) They have link ups with commercial laundries
Correct Answer: (2) They are responsible for washing organisational laundry only
View Solution

Question 47.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question based on it:

RRE was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS. The aim of the campaign was to spread information regarding impact, prevention, treatment services, proper usage of condoms and available support to HIV/AIDS patients. It also addressed stigma associated with AIDS and enable people to respond through preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle.

A specially designed train traveled over 9000 km across 180 towns / districts / halting locations and held programs in more than 4300 villages. It comprised of coaches converted into exhibition rooms, and held street plays, folk performances and 3-D models, services in the context of HIV-TB co-infection, anti-retroviral treatment, stigma and discrimination, condom usage and NACO services.

RRE started its journey from Kanyakumari, followed the ‘parkarma’ style and halted at 180 stations and covered the most backward areas. During the halts, station staff, safai workers and nearby villagers participated in the awareness drives. Efforts were undertaken to interlink communication activities such as street plays with those carried by village councils like panchayats.

The RRE project was supported by National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), Nehru Yuva Sangathan (NYKS), UNICEF and UNAIDS in co-operation with Indian Railways.

What was the focus area of Red Ribbon Express campaign?
  • (1) Maternal and child health
  • (2) Immunisation
  • (3) HIV/AIDS
  • (4) Promotion of Literacy
Correct Answer: (3) HIV/AIDS
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Question 48.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

RRE was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS. The aim of the campaign was to spread information regarding primary prevention services, develop an understanding of the disease, reduce the stigma and discrimination against people with AIDS and enhance people’s knowledge about the preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle.

A specially designed train traveled over 9000 km across 180 towns / districts / halt stations, and held programmes in more than 4300 villages. It comprised of seven coaches, equipped with educational material, interactive touch screens and 3-D models, services in the context of HIV-TB co-infection, an LCD Projector and folk performances, counselling cabins and two doctor’s cabins for providing counseling and treatment.

RRE started its journey from Kanyakumari, followed the ‘parikrama’ style and halted at 180 stations and covered almost all states of India. During the halts, station staff, performing artists including actors and performers went to different villages to undertake information communication activities such as street plays, folk songs, stories and group counselling sessions.

The project was implemented by National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), Nehru Yuva Sangathan (NYKS), UNICEF and UNAIDS in co-operation with Indian Railways.

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Red Ribbon Express initiative?
  • (1) To reduce stigma and discrimination against people with AIDS
  • (2) To provide an umbrella of health services related to nutrition and care only to youth
  • (3) To enhance knowledge of people about preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle
  • (4) To spread awareness regarding primary prevention services
Correct Answer: (2) To provide an umbrella of health services related to nutrition and care only to youth
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Question 49.
What is the full form of NACO?
  • (1) National AIDS Co-operative Organisation
  • (2) National Alliance Control Organisation
  • (3) National AIDS Co-ordination Organisation
  • (4) National AIDS Control Organisation
Correct Answer: (4) National AIDS Control Organisation
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Question 50.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

RRE was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS. The aim of the campaign was to spread information regarding primary prevention services, develop an understanding of the disease, reduce stigma and discrimination against people with AIDS and enhance people’s knowledge about the preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle.

A specially designed train traveled over 9000 km a year covering 180 districts/halt stations, and held programmes and activities in 43,200 villages. It comprised of seven coaches, equipped with educational material, interactive touch screens and 3-D models, services in the context of HIV-TB co-infection, an LCD Projector and platform for folk performances, counselling cabins and two doctors’ cabins for providing counselling and treatment.

RRE started its journey from Kanyakumari, followed the ‘parikrama’ style and halted at 180 stations and covered almost all the states of India. During the halt at each station, performing artists including actors and performers went to different villages to undertake information communication activities such as street plays, folk songs, stories and group counselling sessions.

The project was implemented by National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), Nehru Yuva Sangathan (NYKS), UNICEF and UNAIDS in co-operation with Indian Railways.

How many coaches were installed in the Red Ribbon Express?
  • (1) 5
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (2) 7
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