| Updated On - Nov 21, 2024
CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 (Set D) is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Economics paper on 16 May in Shift 1A from 10 AM to 11 AM. CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 60 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Economics.
CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 (Set D) PDF Download
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CUET Economics Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution
| Ques No. | Question | Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | During festive season, the currency deposit ratio: (1) decreases (2) increases (3) has no impact on it (4) first decreases then increases |
(2) increases. | During festivals, people withdraw more cash for spending, leading to an increase in the currency deposit ratio. |
| 2 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I | List-II (A) Great Leap Forward | (I) Protecting the future generation (B) Mao Zedong | (II) Aimed at industrialising the country (C) Brundtland Commission | (III) Introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution (D) Our Common Future | (IV) Seminal Report that explained sustainable development Choose the correct answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV). | - (A) Great Leap Forward: Focused on rapid industrialization (II). - (B) Mao Zedong: Introduced the Cultural Revolution (III). - (C) Brundtland Commission: Focused on future generation sustainability (I). - (D) Our Common Future: Explained sustainable development (IV). |
| 3 | Second phase of Green Revolution is termed from: (1) mid 1960s to mid 1970s (2) mid 1970s to mid 1980s (3) mid 1950s to mid 1960s (4) mid 1980s to mid 1990s |
(2) mid 1970s to mid 1980s. | The second phase of the Green Revolution (1970s–1980s) focused on crop diversification and technological advancements. . |
| 4 | During 1980s, the growth rate in Pakistan improved on account of which of the following reasons? (1) Institutionalised process of technical change (2) A good harvest (3) Sustainable export of manufactured goods (4) High amount of foreign direct investment inflow |
(2) A good harvest. | Improved agricultural performance due to favorable weather and good harvests drove Pakistan’s growth during the 1980s. . |
| 5 | When there is unexpected rise in the sales: (1) Aggregate demand would decline. (2) There will be unplanned accumulation of inventories. (3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories. (4) Normal profit would be lower. |
(3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories. | When sales unexpectedly rise, inventories decrease faster than planned, leading to unplanned decumulation. |
| 6 | European Monetary Union was created in: (1) 1996 (2) 1994 (3) 1999 (4) 2002 |
(3) 1999. | The European Monetary Union (EMU) was officially established in 1999, introducing the euro for non-cash transactions. |
| 7 | Identify the correct statement in the context of Circular Flow of Income in a two-sector economy: (1) Household receives factor services from firms. (2) Household invests while firm saves. (3) Firms produce goods and services. (4) Household supplies factor services to Government. |
(3) Firms produce goods and services. | In a two-sector economy, firms use factor services provided by households to produce goods and services. |
| 8 | Identify the correct set of statements: (A) Ex Ante Saving represents what is actually planned to save. (B) Ex Post Saving represents what is actually planned to save. (C) Ex Post Saving depicts what has actually happened. (D) Ex Ante Post Saving represents what is actually saved. Choose the correct answer: (1) (A) and (D) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (B) and (D) only (4) (C) and (D) only |
(2) (A) and (C) only. | - (A): Correct. Ex Ante Saving refers to planned savings. - (C): Correct. Ex Post Saving represents actual savings. - (B) and (D): Incorrect, as they misrepresent the definitions. . |
| 9 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Elements) | List-II (Features) (A) Annual Financial Statement | (I) Create liabilities or reduce financial assets (B) Capital Receipts | (II) Trade surplus (C) Capital Payment | (III) Main budget document (D) Export > Import | (IV) Create financial assets or reduce liabilities Choose the correct answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II). | - (A) Financial Statement: Main budget document (III). - (B) Capital Receipts: Liabilities or reduced assets (I). - (C) Capital Payment: Financial assets or reduced liabilities (IV). - (D) Export > Import: Trade surplus (II). |
| 10 | How is civic authority getting benefitted due to biocomposting? (1) They have to dispose increased quantity of waste. (2) They don’t have to dispose any waste. (3) Because civic authority has no role in waste management. (4) They have to dispose reduced quantity of waste. |
(4) They have to dispose reduced quantity of waste. | Biocomposting reduces the volume of waste requiring disposal, helping civic authorities lower their workload. |
| 11 | Choose the correct statement concerned with the passage: (1) Earthworm takes equal time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process. (2) Earthworm takes more time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process. (3) Earthworm takes less time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process. (4) Comparison between earthworm-based composting and normal composting cannot be made. |
(3) Earthworm takes less time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process. | The passage explicitly mentions that earthworms accelerate the composting process compared to normal composting methods. |
| 12 | Water bodies including ground water system have suffered due to: (1) Biocomposting (2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation (3) Organic farming (4) Increased fertility of land |
(2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation. | The passage indicates that extensive use of chemical fertilizers has contaminated water bodies and led to increased irrigation demand. |
| 13 | In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they: (1) Produce milk to increase income of farmers. (2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner. (3) Work as insect repellants. (4) Are a symbol of traditional ethics and values. |
(2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner. | Dung from cattle is a natural fertilizer and soil conditioner, making it valuable for sustainable agriculture. Quick Tip: Cattle dung is crucial for maintaining soil fertility in organic farming. |
| 14 | What should be the suitable title for the above passage? (1) Biocomposting (2) Biopest Control (3) Traditional Knowledge and Practice (4) Uses of Chemical Fertilizers |
(1) Biocomposting. | The passage primarily discusses the process and benefits of biocomposting as a sustainable alternative to chemical fertilizers. |
| 15 | Before the British rule, India was well known for which manufacturing industries’ products? (1) Cotton and Silk or Khadi textiles (2) Cotton and Engineering products (3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal and precious stones, etc. (4) Engineering goods and precious metals |
(3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal and precious stones, etc. | India’s pre-colonial economy was renowned for high-quality textiles, metals, and precious stone craftsmanship. |
| 16 | What kind of interests was the colonial government concerned with in the economic policy for Indian industries? (1) To promote the handicraft industries of India. (2) Promote and protect small-scale industries of India. (3) Protect and promote the economic interests of Indian industry along with their home country. (4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country. |
(4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country. | The colonial government focused on advancing Britain’s economic interests at the expense of Indian industries. . |
| 17 | Choose the economists who estimated India’s National Income and Per Capita Income: (1) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Bernier, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai (2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai (3) Dadabhai Naoroji, Jagdish Bhagwati, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai (4) Dadabhai Naoroji, Findlay Shirras, and V.K.R.V. Rao |
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai. | These economists made significant attempts to estimate India’s National Income and Per Capita Income during colonial times. . |
| 18 | What was the country’s growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20th century? (1) Less than two percent aggregate growth and one percent per capita output growth. (2) Less than two percent aggregate growth and 1.5 percent per capita output growth. (3) Less than 2.5 percent aggregate growth and 0.5 percent per capita output growth. (4) Less than two percent aggregate growth and 0.5 percent per capita output growth. |
(4) Less than two percent aggregate growth and 0.5 percent per capita output growth. | India’s economic growth during the colonial era was less than 2%. Quick Tip: Colonial-era economic growth was minimal: aggregate < 2%. |
| 19 | According to the passage, which of the following statement was true about Indian industries’ products? (1) Indian products were of inferior quality and cheap in the worldwide market. (2) Indian products were promoted by the colonial government and competed with other countries’ markets. (3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship. (4) Indian products’ raw material for primary goods was imported from other countries and it helped to increase export. |
(3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship. | Indian handicrafts were globally famous for their superior materials and craftsmanship. . |
| 20 | is a market where economic agents can freely exchange their endowments with each other. (1) Market economy (2) Centrally planned economy (3) Aggregate demand-based economy (4) Aggregate supply-based economy |
(1) Market economy. | A market economy allows agents to freely trade goods and services, with prices determined by supply and demand. |
| 21 | Which of the following are correct statements? (A) Marginal Utility is the change in Total Utility due to consumption of one additional unit of commodity. (B) Two Indifference Curves intersect each other. (C) Marginal Utility becomes Zero at a level when Total Utility remains constant. (D) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution does not affect Indifference Curve. (E) Indifference Curve slopes downwards from left to right. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), and (E) only (2) (A), (C), and (E) only (3) (A), (D), and (E) only (4) (B), (D), and (E) only |
(2) (A), (C), and (E) only. | - (A): Correct. Marginal Utility is the additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good. - (B): Incorrect. Indifference Curves cannot intersect, as this would violate consistency in preferences. - (C): Correct. Marginal Utility equals zero when Total Utility reaches its maximum. - (D): Incorrect. Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution affects the curvature of the Indifference Curve. - (E): Correct. Indifference Curves slope downward to reflect trade-offs between goods. |
| 22 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Characteristic) | List-II (Implication) (A) Equilibrium (I) Plans of all the consumers and firms in the market match (B) Excess supply (II) Demand decreases with an increase in income (C) Inferior good (III) Supply is greater than market demand (D) Price ceiling (IV) Imposition of upper limit by government Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV). | - (A) Equilibrium - (I): Reflects balance between consumers’ and firms’ plans. - (B) Excess supply - (III): Occurs when supply exceeds demand. - (C) Inferior good - (II): Demand decreases with higher income. - (D) Price ceiling - (IV): Government imposes an upper price limit. |
| 23 | When Elasticity of Demand Curve is 1 at every point on the Demand Curve, this curve is known as: (1) Perfectly inelastic demand curve (2) Perfectly elastic demand curve (3) Rectangular Hyperbola (4) Greater than unitary demand curve |
(3) Rectangular Hyperbola. | A demand curve shaped like a rectangular hyperbola reflects unitary elasticity (Ed = 1) throughout. |
| 24 | According to the Theory of Consumer Behaviour, inequality p1x1 + p2x2 ≤ M is called the Consumer’s: (1) Budget (2) Budget Set (3) Budget Constraint (4) Budget Behaviour |
(3) Budget Constraint. | The inequality describes the maximum expenditure on goods within the consumer’s income (M). Quick Tip: Budget Constraint: Expenditure cannot exceed income. |
| 25 | Choose the correct statements from the following: (A) Adam Smith is termed as Father of Modern Economics. (B) J.M. Keynes gave the Theory of Income, Output, and Employment. (C) Four Sector Model = C + I + G + (X − M). (D) Store of value is primary function of money. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only (2) (A), (B), and (C) only (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D) (4) (B), (C), and (D) only |
(2) (A), (B), and (C) only. | - (A): Correct. Adam Smith is called the Father of Modern Economics. - (B): Correct. Keynes contributed the Theory of Income, Output, and Employment. - (C): Correct. The Four-Sector Model is accurately represented. - (D): Incorrect. Store of value is a secondary function of money. |
| 26 | Rearrange the given statements in proper chronological sequence in ascending order (earliest to latest): (A) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money by Keynes. (B) Mahalanobis was made a fellow of Britain’s Royal Society. (C) An Inquiry into the Nature and Cause of the Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith. (D) The Economic Consequences of the Peace by Keynes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (C), (D), (A), (B) (2) (A), (B), (C), (D) (3) (A), (C), (B), (D) (4) (D), (A), (C), (B) |
(1) (C), (D), (A), (B) | Chronological Order: - (C) Wealth of Nations (Adam Smith, 1776) - (D) Economic Consequences of Peace (Keynes, 1919) - (A) General Theory (Keynes, 1936) - (B) Mahalanobis Fellow (1945) |
| 27 | If there is no government and no foreign trade, then: (1) G = T = M = X > 1 (2) G = T = M = X = 1 (3) G = T = M = X = 0 (4) G = T = M = X < 1 |
(3) G = T = M = X = 0 | Without government or foreign trade, G (Government Spending), T (Taxes), M (Imports), and X (Exports) are all zero. |
| 28 | The value of Nominal GDP is $1100 and the value of Real GDP is $1000. Find the value of GDP deflator: (1) 0.9 (2) 1.1 (3) 1 (4) 0.8 |
(2) 1.1 | GDP Deflator = Nominal GDP / Real GDP: GDP Deflator = 1100 / 1000 = 1.1 |
| 29 | Identify the correct statements: (A) Stocks are defined over a period of time. (B) Flows are defined over a period of time. (C) Flows are defined at a particular point of time. (D) Stocks are defined at a particular point of time. (E) GVA at factor costs + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies = GVA at market prices. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (C), and (E) only (2) (B), (C), and (D) only (3) (B), (D), and (E) only (4) (C), (D), and (E) only |
(3) (B), (D), and (E) only | - (B): Correct. Flows are defined over time (e.g., income). - (D): Correct. Stocks are defined at a point in time (e.g., wealth). - (E): Correct. Formula for GVA. |
| 30 | If the supply of final goods is assumed to be infinitely elastic at constant price over a short period of time, Aggregate output is determined solely by the value of Aggregate demand. This is called: (1) Aggregate supply (2) Aggregate demand (3) Effective demand (4) Perfectly inelastic demand |
(3) Effective demand | Effective demand determines output when supply is perfectly elastic, as per Keynesian economics. |
| 31 | Nominal Interest Rate: (1) Real Interest Rate × Inflation Rate (2) Real Interest Rate – Inflation Rate (3) Real Interest Rate / Inflation Rate (4) Real Interest Rate + Inflation Rate |
(4) Real Interest Rate + Inflation Rate | The Fisher Equation explains that: Nominal Interest Rate = Real Interest Rate + Inflation Rate. |
| 32 | Value of MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save) is increased from 0.4 to 0.5. What would be the impact on Multiplier? (1) The size of the multiplier would be increased. (2) The size of the multiplier would remain the same. (3) Value of multiplier is undetermined with the given information. (4) The size of the multiplier would be decreased. |
(4) The size of the multiplier would be decreased | The multiplier (k) is given by: k = 1 / MPS. If MPS increases from 0.4 to 0.5, the multiplier decreases: k1 = 1 / 0.4 = 2.5 k2 = 1 / 0.5 = 2. |
| 33 | Paradox of Thrift means: (1) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of investment in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. (2) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they spend, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. (3) If all the people of the economy decrease the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. (4) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. |
(4) | The Paradox of Thrift occurs when higher savings reduce aggregate demand, leading to a decline in income and ultimately reduced total savings. |
| 34 | depicts what has actually happened: (1) Ex-Ante (2) Ex-Post (3) Constant (4) Variable |
(2) Ex-Post | Ex-Post refers to actual values or outcomes that have occurred, as opposed to Ex-Ante, which refers to planned or intended outcomes. |
| 35 | If the value of Investment Multiplier is 5 and the increased income is 800 crore in an economy, then find the value of change in the investment in the economy: (1) 4000 crore (2) 120 crore (3) 400 crore (4) 160 crore |
(4) 160 crore | The formula for the Investment Multiplier (k) is: k = ∆Y / ∆I Where: - k = 5 (Investment Multiplier) - ∆Y = 800 crore (Increased income) - ∆I = Change in investment Rearranging: ∆I = ∆Y / k = 800 / 5 = 160 crore. |
| 36 | Which of the following statements are true? (A) Quantitative tools control the extent of money supply by changing the CRR. (B) There are two types of open market operations – outright and upright. (C) A fall in the bank rate can decrease the money supply. (D) Selling of a bond by RBI leads to reduction in quantity of reserves. (E) The RBI can influence money supply by changing the rate at which it gives loans to the commercial banks. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (C), and (D) only (2) (A), (B), and (D) only (3) (B), (D), and (E) only (4) (A), (D), and (E) only |
(4) (A), (D), and (E) only | - (A): Correct. Quantitative tools (like CRR) regulate money supply. - (B): Incorrect. Open market operations include outright and repo/reverse repo transactions, not "upright." - (C): Incorrect. A fall in the bank rate increases the money supply. - (D): Correct. Selling bonds reduces liquidity in the banking system. - (E): Correct. The repo rate influences commercial bank borrowing. |
| 37 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I | List-II (A) Bank Rate | (I) Securities are pledged in order to repurchase (B) Marginal Standing Facility | (II) Minimum rate at which funds are provided for long term (C) Repo Rate | (III) Also known as Penal Interest Rate (D) Reverse Repo Rate | (IV) Central Bank borrows funds from commercial banks Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | - (A) Bank Rate: Minimum rate for long-term funds (II). - (B) Marginal Standing Facility: Penal interest rate (III). - (C) Repo Rate: Securities pledged for repurchase (I). - (D) Reverse Repo Rate: Central bank borrows funds from banks (IV). |
| 38 | Which of the following is not a function of Central Bank? (1) It controls the money supply in the economy through different rates. (2) It acts as a banker to the government. (3) It accepts deposits and gives loans to people. (4) It issues the currency of the country. |
(3) | The central bank does not provide retail banking services like accepting deposits or issuing personal loans; these are functions of commercial banks. |
| 39 | Article 112 deals with: (1) Consolidated Fund of India (2) Public Account (3) Union Budget (4) Contingency Fund |
(3) Union Budget | Article 112 of the Indian Constitution refers to the Union Budget, which presents the government's annual financial statement. |
| 40 | All those elements which create liability and decrease the assets of government are known as: (1) Capital Receipts (2) Capital Payments (3) Revenue Receipts (4) Revenue Payments |
(1) Capital Receipts | Capital Receipts include borrowings or liabilities that increase obligations and decrease the government’s net worth. |
| 41 | Arrange the following elements in correct chronological sequence (earliest to latest): (A) Smithsonian Agreement (B) Bretton Woods Conference (C) Establishment of WTO (D) Gold Standard Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (D), (B), (A), (C) (3) (D), (A), (B), (C) (4) (C), (B), (D), (A) |
(2) (D), (B), (A), (C) | - (D) Gold Standard: Prevalent before WWII. - (B) Bretton Woods Conference: 1944. - (A) Smithsonian Agreement: 1971. - (C) Establishment of WTO: 1995. |
| 42 | Under flexible exchange rate, when the price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency increases, it is called: (1) Depreciation of domestic currency (2) Appreciation of domestic currency (3) Devaluation of domestic currency (4) Revaluation of domestic currency |
(2) Appreciation of domestic currency | Appreciation occurs when the domestic currency gains value, meaning fewer domestic currency units are required to buy the same amount of foreign currency. |
| 43 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I | List-II (A) Pegged exchange rate system | (I) Setting up of IMF and World Bank (B) Managed floating | (II) Fixed exchange rate system (C) Bretton Woods Conference | (III) Dirty floating (D) Third element in BOP | (IV) Error and Omission Account Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | - (A) Pegged Exchange Rate: Fixed exchange system (II). - (B) Managed Floating: Dirty floating exchange (III). - (C) Bretton Woods: Established IMF and World Bank (I). - (D) Third Element in BOP: Error and Omission Account (IV). |
| 44 | Casualization of workforce would result in: (1) Decrease in the vulnerability of the workforce. (2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce. (3) Increase in the number of regular workers. (4) Income and employment stability. |
(2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce | Casualization increases temporary jobs, reducing job security and benefits, thereby increasing vulnerability. |
| 45 | Choose the correct chronological sequence in ascending order (earliest to latest): (A) Establishment of NABARD (B) FRBMA (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act) (C) Third Five Year Plan (D) Nationalization of RBI Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D) (3) (D), (A), (B), (C) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
(4) (D), (C), (A), (B) | - (D) Nationalization of RBI: 1949. - (C) Third Five Year Plan: 1961–66. - (A) NABARD Establishment: 1982. - (B) FRBMA Act: 2003. |
| 46 | implies that resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of resources and the wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment: (1) Absorptive capacity (2) Carrying capacity (3) Subsistence capacity (4) Exhaustive capacity |
(2) Carrying capacity | Carrying capacity ensures sustainable resource extraction and waste assimilation without harming the environment. |
| 47 | Government of India enacted the Right to Education Act in 2009 to make free education a Fundamental Right of all children in the age group of: (1) 4–10 (2) 6–12 (3) 6–14 (4) 8–15 |
(3) 6–14 | The Right to Education Act guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years. |
| 48 | Following are the sources of electricity generation in India. Arrange them in correct sequence on the basis of total power generation capacity (higher to lower): (A) Nuclear (B) Thermal (C) New and Renewable Energy (D) Hydro Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D) (3) (B), (C), (D), (A) (4) (B), (D), (C), (A) |
(4) (B), (D), (C), (A) | Order of capacity: - (B) Thermal: Largest contributor. - (D) Hydro: Second-largest. - (C) Renewable: Third-largest. - (A) Nuclear: Smallest. |
| 49 | Arrange the following items in correct sequence: (A) Competition Act (B) FEMA (C) FERA (D) MRTP Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D) (3) (D), (C), (B), (A) (4) (C), (B), (D), (A) |
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A) | Chronological Order: - (D) MRTP: 1969. - (C) FERA: 1973. - (B) FEMA: 1999. - (A) Competition Act: 2002. |
| 50 | The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign was initiated in: (1) 1948 (2) 1938 (3) 1958 (4) 1942 |
(3) 1958 | The Great Leap Forward (GLF) was launched in 1958 by Mao Zedong to rapidly industrialize China. |
CUET Questions
1. If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 1 \\ -2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( B^T = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \), then the matrix \( AB \) is:
If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 1 \\ -2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( B^T = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \), then the matrix \( AB \) is:
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 15 & -11 \\ -2 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \)
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 49 \\ -2 & -20 \end{bmatrix} \)
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 9 \\ -2 & -20 \end{bmatrix} \)
2. Vibhuti bought a car worth ₹10,25,000 and made a down payment of ₹4,00,000. The balance is to be paid in 3 years by equal monthly installments at an interest rate of 12% p.a. The EMI that Vibhuti has to pay for the car is:
(Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))
Vibhuti bought a car worth ₹10,25,000 and made a down payment of ₹4,00,000. The balance is to be paid in 3 years by equal monthly installments at an interest rate of 12% p.a. The EMI that Vibhuti has to pay for the car is:
(Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))
(Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))
- ₹20,700.85
- ₹27,058.87
- ₹20,833.33
- ₹25,708.89
3. A sample size of \(x\) is considered to be sufficient to hold the Central Limit Theorem (CLT). The value of \(x\) should be:
A sample size of \(x\) is considered to be sufficient to hold the Central Limit Theorem (CLT). The value of \(x\) should be:
- less than 20
- greater than or equal to 30
- less than 30
- sample size does not affect the CLT
4. The correct solution of \(-22 < 8x - 6 \leq 26\) is the interval:
The correct solution of \(-22 < 8x - 6 \leq 26\) is the interval:
- \([-2, 4]\)
- \((-2, 4]\)
- \((-2, 4)\)
- \([-2, 4)\)
5.
A furniture trader deals in tables and chairs. He has Rs. 75,000 to invest and a space to store at most 60 items. A table costs him Rs. 1,500 and a chair costs him Rs. 1,000. The trader earns a profit of Rs. 400 and Rs. 250 on a table and chair, respectively. Assuming that he can sell all the items that he can buy, which of the following is/are true for the above problem:
(A) Let the trader buy \( x \) tables and \( y \) chairs. Let \( Z \) denote the total profit. Thus, the mathematical formulation of the given problem is:
\[
Z = 400x + 250y,
\]
subject to constraints:
\[
x + y \leq 60, \quad 3x + 2y \leq 150, \quad x \geq 0, \quad y \geq 0.
\]
(B) The corner points of the feasible region are (0, 0), (50, 0), (30, 30), and (0, 60).
(C) Maximum profit is Rs. 19,500 when trader purchases 60 chairs only.
(D) Maximum profit is Rs. 20,000 when trader purchases 50 tables only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A furniture trader deals in tables and chairs. He has Rs. 75,000 to invest and a space to store at most 60 items. A table costs him Rs. 1,500 and a chair costs him Rs. 1,000. The trader earns a profit of Rs. 400 and Rs. 250 on a table and chair, respectively. Assuming that he can sell all the items that he can buy, which of the following is/are true for the above problem:
(A) Let the trader buy \( x \) tables and \( y \) chairs. Let \( Z \) denote the total profit. Thus, the mathematical formulation of the given problem is:
\[ Z = 400x + 250y, \]
subject to constraints:
\[ x + y \leq 60, \quad 3x + 2y \leq 150, \quad x \geq 0, \quad y \geq 0. \]
(B) The corner points of the feasible region are (0, 0), (50, 0), (30, 30), and (0, 60).
(C) Maximum profit is Rs. 19,500 when trader purchases 60 chairs only.
(D) Maximum profit is Rs. 20,000 when trader purchases 50 tables only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A), (B), and (C) only
- (A), (B), and (D) only
- (B) and (C) only
- (B), (C), and (D) only
6. For the curve \( y(1 + x^2) = 2 - x \), if \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{A}\) at the point where the curve crosses the x-axis, then the value of \( A \) is:
For the curve \( y(1 + x^2) = 2 - x \), if \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{A}\) at the point where the curve crosses the x-axis, then the value of \( A \) is:
- 5
- -5
- -1
- 0
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