CUET Chemistry Question Paper 2024 SET A (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

CUET Chemistry Question Paper (Set A) 2024 is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Chemistry paper on 15 May in Shift 1A from 10 AM to 11 AM. CUET Chemistry Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 60 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Chemistry.

Download CUET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDFs

CUET Chemistry Question Paper 2024 (Set A) PDF Download

CUET 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Set A with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions
CUET 2024 Chemistry Question Paper Set A(New) with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

CUET 2024 Chemistry Set A Question Paper with Solution

Question 1.
The total number of ions produced from the complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 in aqueous solution will be:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

Question 2.
Arrange the following in decreasing order of number of molecules contained in:

(A) 16 g of O₂
(B) 16 g of CO₂
(C) 16 g of CO
(D) 16 g of H₂

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 3.
A molecule X associates in a given solvent as per the following equation:

X ⇌ (X)n
For a given concentration of X, the van't Hoff factor was found to be 0.80 and the fraction of associated molecules was 0.3. The correct value of ‘n’ is:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 5

Question 4.
The oxidation number of Co in the complex [Co(H₂NCH₂CH₂NH₂)₃]₂(SO₄)₃ is:

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

Question 5.
The correct structure of dipeptide Gly-Ala (glycyl alanine) is:

(1) H₂N – CH₂ – CO – NH – CH(CH₃) – COOH
(2) HOOC – CH₂ – NH – CO – CH(CH₃) – NH₂
(3) HOOC – CH(CH₃) – NH – CO – CH₂ – NH₂
(4) H₂N – CH(CH₃) – CO – NH – CH₂ – COOH

Question 6.
The Cu metal crystallises into an FCC lattice with a unit cell edge length of 361 pm. The radius of Cu atom is:

(1) 127 pm
(2) 181 pm
(3) 157 pm
(4) 108 pm

Question 7.
If 75% of a first-order reaction gets completed in 32 minutes, time taken for 50% completion of this reaction is:

(1) 16 minutes
(2) 78 minutes
(3) 8 minutes
(4) 4 minutes

Question 8.
Which of the following compounds will be repelled when placed in an external magnetic field?

(1) Na₂[CuCl₄]
(2) Na₂[CdCl₄]
(3) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(4) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]

Question 9.
The spin-only magnetic moment of Hexacyanidomanganate(II) ion is __________ BM.

(1) 5.90
(2) 1.73
(3) 4.90
(4) 3.87

Question 10.
The correct order of increasing boiling points of the following compounds is:

Pentan-1-ol, n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane

(1) Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, n-Butane, Pentan-1-ol
(2) Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(3) n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(4) n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, Pentan-1-ol
Question 11.
In the following reaction, identify the product D:


(1) o-Nitrobenzoic acid
(2) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(3) o,p-Dinitrobenzoic acid
(4) m-Nitrobenzoic acid

Question 12.
The gold number range of some of the lyophilic colloids is given below:
A: 0.005 – 0.01, B: 0.15 – 0.25, C: 0.04 – 1.0, D: 15 – 25.
Which among these can be used as a better protective colloid?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

Question 13.
Reaction of aniline with conc. HNO₃ and conc. H₂SO₄ at 298 K will produce 47% of:

(1) p-Nitroaniline
(2) o-Nitroaniline
(3) m-Nitroaniline
(4) 2,4-Dinitroaniline

Question 14.
What will be the increasing order of basic strength of the following compounds?

C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₃N, C₆H₅NH₂

(1) C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < (C₂H₅)₃N < C₆H₅NH₂
(2) C₆H₅NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₃N < (C₂H₅)₂NH
(3) (C₂H₅)₃N < (C₂H₅)₂NH < C₆H₅NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂
(4) (C₂H₅)₂NH < (C₂H₅)₃N < C₂H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅NH₂

Question 15.
Which of the following compounds will give the Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction?

(1) R – CH₂ – COOH
(2) R₃C – CHO
(3) R₂CO
(4) H – COOH

Question 16.
Arrange the following acids in increasing order of their acidic strengths:

HCOOH, FCH₂COOH, NO₂CH₂COOH, ClCH₂COOH

(1) HCOOH < FCH₂COOH < NO₂CH₂COOH < ClCH₂COOH
(2) HCOOH < NO₂CH₂COOH < ClCH₂COOH < FCH₂COOH
(3) NO₂CH₂COOH < HCOOH < ClCH₂COOH < FCH₂COOH
(4) HCOOH < ClCH₂COOH < FCH₂COOH < NO₂CH₂COOH
Question 17.
In the following compounds, what is the increasing order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reactions?

Benzaldehyde, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone

(1) Benzaldehyde < p-Tolualdehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde < Acetophenone
(2) Acetophenone < Benzaldehyde < p-Tolualdehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(3) Acetophenone < p-Tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(4) Benzaldehyde < Acetophenone < p-Tolualdehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde

Question 18.
The Gatterman-Koch reaction is used in the industrial preparation of benzaldehyde. The electrophile involved in this reaction is:

(1) CO+
(2) HCl + CO₂ + anhydrous AlCl₃
(3) HCO+
(4) CO + anhydrous AlCl₃

Question 19.
Formaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction because:

(A) It has alpha-hydrogen atom.
(B) It does not have alpha-hydrogen atom.
(C) It does not undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
(D) It undergoes self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A) and (D) only

Question 20.
In the reaction, (CH₃)₃C – O – CH₃ + HI → Products
CH₃OH and (CH₃)₃CI are the products and not CH₃I and (CH₃)₃C – OH. It is because:

(A) In step 2 of the reaction the departure of the leaving group (HO – CH₃) creates less stable carbocation.
(B) In step 2 of the reaction the departure of the leaving group (HO – CH₃) creates a more stable carbocation.
(C) The reaction follows SN1 mechanism.
(D) The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (B) and (D) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

Question 21.
Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction because:

(A) It forms salt with the Lewis acid catalyst, AlCl₃.
(B) Nitrogen of aniline acquires a negative charge.
(C) Nitrogen of aniline acquires a positive charge.
(D) Nitrogen acts as a strong deactivating group in the further reaction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 22.
Although chlorine is an electron-withdrawing group, yet it is ortho- and para-directing in electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction because:

(A) Chlorine withdraws electrons through inductive effect.
(B) Chlorine destabilises the intermediate carbocation formed during electrophilic substitution.
(C) Chlorine accepts electrons through resonance.
(D) Chlorine releases electrons through resonance.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 23.
In the Etard reaction, the final product is:

(1) Aromatic aldehyde
(2) Aromatic chloride
(3) Aromatic amine
(4) Aromatic alcohol

Question 24.
Match List-I with List-II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 25.
Match List-I with List-II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Question 26.
Match List-I with List-II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 27.
Match List-I with List-II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer:

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

Question 28.
In the following table, match the reactants given in List-I with the correct product in List-II as per the reaction of hydration of alkene under acidic conditions:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 29.
Which among the following is not an Analgesic?

(1) Morphine
(2) Heroin
(3) Codeine
(4) Ranitidine

Question 30.
The increasing order of acidity of the following compounds based on pKa values is:

(A) BrCH₂COOH
(B) ClCH₂COOH
(C) FCH₂COOH
(D) HCOOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (D) < (A) < (B) < (C)
(2) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B)
(3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
(4) (C) < (B) < (D) < (A)
Question 31.
For SN2 reaction, the increasing order of the reactivity of the following alkyl halides is:

(A) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Br
(B) CH₃CH₂CH(Br)CH₃
(C) (CH₃)₃CBr
(D) (CH₃)₂CHCH₂Br
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
(2) (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)
(3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
(4) (C) < (B) < (D) < (A)

Question 32.
The number of moles of hydrogen oxidised in the reaction of 67.2 L of H₂ at STP is:

(1) 0.33 moles
(2) 33.3 moles
(3) 3.0 moles
(4) 1.33 moles

Question 33.
The number of moles of electrons produced in the oxidation of 67.2 L of H₂ at STP is:

(1) 2 moles
(2) 4 moles
(3) 1 mole
(4) 6 moles

Question 34.
The quantity of electricity produced in the oxidation of 67.2 L of H₂ at STP is:

(1) 96500 C
(2) 579000 C
(3) 193000 C
(4) 48250 C

Question 35.
If the entire current produced is used for the electrodeposition of Silver (atomic weight 108 g/mol) from Silver (I) solution, the amount of silver deposited will be:

(1) 324 g
(2) 648 g
(3) 108 g
(4) 216 g

Question 36.
The source of electrical energy on the Apollo moon flight was:

(1) Lead storage battery
(2) A generator set
(3) Ni-Cd cells
(4) H₂-O₂ Fuel cell

Question 37.
Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Second ionisation enthalpy of Ag is greater than second ionisation enthalpy of Pd.
(2) Zr and Hf share almost identical nuclear properties.
(3) Melting point of Mn is lower than that of Cr.
(4) Interstitial compounds are non-stoichiometric and neither ionic nor covalent in nature.

Question 38.
Which of the following is the correct order of second ionisation enthalpy?

(1) V > Cr > Mn
(2) V < Cr < Mn
(3) V < Cr > Mn
(4) V > Cr < Mn

Question 39.
Which of the following pair of compounds exhibits the same colour in aqueous solution?

(1) FeCl₂, CuCl₂
(2) VOCl₂, CuCl₂
(3) VOCl₂, FeCl₂
(4) VOCl₂, MnCl₂

Question 40.
Which metal has the highest oxidation state in the first row transition series?

(1) Cr
(2) Fe
(3) Mn
(4) V

Question 41.
Why do the actinoids exhibit higher number of oxidation states than lanthanoids?

(1) 4f orbitals are more diffused than the 5f orbitals.
(2) Energy difference between 5f and 6d is less with respect to the energy difference between 4f and 5d.
(3) Energy difference between 5f and 6d is more with respect to the energy difference between 4f and 5d.
(4) Actinoids are more reactive in nature than the lanthanoids.

Question 42.
Camphor in nitrogen gas is a type of solution:

(1) Gas – Gas
(2) Solid – Gas
(3) Liquid – Gas
(4) Solid – Liquid

Question 43.
Identify the correct order of organic compounds in the following chemical reaction:

(A) CH₃MgBr
(B) CH₃Br
(C) CH₃Cl
(D) CH₄
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(3) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer:

(3) (B), (A), (C), (D)

View Solution


Question 44.
Consider the following statements regarding osmotic pressure:

(A) Molar mass of a protein can be determined using osmotic pressure method.
(B) The osmotic pressure is proportional to the molarity.
(C) Reverse osmosis occurs when a pressure larger than osmotic pressure is applied to the concentrated solution side.
(D) Edema occurs due to retention of water in tissue cells as a result of osmosis.
Choose the correct statements with reference to osmotic pressure:
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 45.
Vapour pressures of pure liquids 'A' and 'D' at 50°C are 500 mm Hg and 800 mm Hg respectively. The binary solution of 'A' and 'D' boils at 50°C and 700 mm Hg pressure. The mole percentage of 'D' in the solution is:

(1) 33.33 mole percent
(2) 66.67 mole percent
(3) 25.75 mole percent
(4) 75.25 mole percent

Question 46.
For the following reaction:

2A₂(g) + ¼ X(g) → 2A₂X(g)
If the volume is increased to double its value by decreasing the pressure on it, and the reaction is first order with respect to X and second order with respect to A₂, the rate of reaction will:

(1) Decrease by eight times of its initial value
(2) Increase by eight times of its initial value
(3) Increase by four times of its initial value
(4) Remain unchanged

Question 47.
The total number of sigma bonds present in P₄O₁₀ are:

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 16
(4) 17

Question 48.
In the electrolysis of alumina to obtain Aluminium metal, the cryolite is added mainly to:

(1) Lower the melting point of alumina.
(2) Dissolve the alumina in the molten cryolite.
(3) Remove the impurities of alumina.
(4) Increase the electrical conductivity.

Question 49.
Identify the order of reaction if its rate constant is k = 2 × 10⁻² s⁻¹:

(1) Zero order
(2) First order
(3) Second order
(4) Half order

Question 50.
For a complex reaction, the order of reaction is equal to:

(1) Sum of stoichiometric coefficients in the balanced chemical reaction
(2) The molecularity of the overall reaction
(3) Order of the fastest step of the reaction
(4) The molecularity of the slowest step of reaction


CUET Questions

  • 1.
    The bond angle Structure of chemical bond in methanol is :

      • 60°
      • 109°28"
      • 108.9°
      • 180°

    • 2.

      Arrange the following hydrides in increasing order of thermal stability. 
      A. $H_20$ 
      B. $H_2Se $
      C.$H_2Po$ 
      D. $H_2Te$ 
      E. $H_2S$ 
      Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

        • A<B<C<D<E

        • C<D<B<E<A

        • C<D<E<B<A

        • A<E<B<D<C


      • 3.
        Which of the following molecules has the highest bond angle?

          • \( \text{CH}_4 \)
          • \( \text{NH}_3 \)
          • \( \text{H}_2\text{O} \)
          • \( \text{BF}_3 \)

        • 4.
          Arrange the following in decreasing order of the number of molecules contained in: (A) 16 g of O$_2$, (B) 16 g of CO$_2$, (C) 16 g of CO, (D) 16 g of H$_2$

            • (A), (B), (C), (D)
            • (D), (C), (A), (B)
            • (B), (A), (D), (C)
            • (C), (B), (D), (A)

          • 5.
            The total number of sigma bonds in P$_4$O$_{10}$ is:

              • 6
              • 7
              • 16
              • 17

            • 6.
              In case of phosphorus, PCl$_{3}$ and PCl$_{5}$ are possible while nitrogen only forms NCl$_{3}$ and not NCl$_{5}$. This is due to:

                • Nitrogen is a gas while phosphorus is a solid at room temperature.
                • Nitrogen does not have vacant d-orbitals in its atom while phosphorus has vacant d-orbitals.
                • The electronegativity of nitrogen is higher than that of phosphorus.
                • The atom of nitrogen is smaller in size than phosphorus.

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General1750
              sc1650

              In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

              Comments


              No Comments To Show