CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 Set D (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community?

• (1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
• (2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
• (3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its instability.
• (4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.

In the ‘rivet popper hypothesis’, the ‘rivet’ signifies:

• (1) Key species
• (2) Endemic species
• (3) Community
• (4) Species

The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

• (1) Paul Ehrlich
• (2) David Tilman
• (3) Robert May
• (4) Edward Wilson

Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

• (1) Reptiles
• (2) Fishes
• (3) Insects
• (4) Mammals

The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in the tropics except:

• (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
• (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish.
• (3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
• (4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity.

Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

• (1) Central cell and generative cell
• (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
• (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
• (4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Structures)
(A) Filiform apparatus
(B) Tapetum
(C) Exine
(D) Funicle
List-II (Functions)
(I) Made up of sporopollenin
(II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

• (1) Double fusion
• (2) Triple fusion
• (3) Parthenogenesis
• (4) Apomixis

In humans, the mammary gland is divided into lobes:

• (1) 10 – 12
• (2) 25 – 30
• (3) 30 – 35
• (4) 15 – 20

Sex in human embryo is determined by:

• (1) ‘X’ chromosome of egg
• (2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
• (3) Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
• (4) Health of mother

Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:
(A) Ovum
(B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte
(D) Secondary oocyte

• (1) (C), (B), (D), (A)
• (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
• (3) (D), (C), (A), (B)
• (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

• (1) Pink and white flowers
• (2) Inflated and constricted pods
• (3) Axial and terminal flowers
• (4) Green and yellow pods

Failure of chromatids to segregate during the cell division cycle results in:

• (1) Polyploidy
• (2) Euploidy
• (3) Aneuploidy
• (4) Autopolyploidy

Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anaemia: Genotype : Phenotype

• (1) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
• (2) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
• (3) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
• (4) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Scientists)
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Sturtevant
(C) Henking
(D) Griffith
List-II (Discovery)
(I) X-Body
(II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(III) Transformation in bacteria
(IV) Genetic maps
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
• (2) (D) and (E) only
• (3) (B) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (E) only

Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
• (2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
• (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
• (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones:

• (1) Four
• (2) Nine
• (3) Two
• (4) Eight

Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct:
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
• (3) (A), (C) and (E) only
• (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Analogous structures are a result of:

• (1) Convergent evolution
• (2) Divergent evolution
• (3) Parallel evolution
• (4) Retrogressive evolution

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

• (1) Natural selection
• (2) Genetic drift
• (3) Gene pool
• (4) Gene migration

Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

• (1) Homo erectus
• (2) Dryopithecus
• (3) Australopithecines
• (4) Ramapithecus

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Placental mammals)
(A) Anteater
(B) Bobcat
(C) Lemur
(D) Flying squirrel
List-II (Counterpart Marsupials)
(I) Spotted cuscus
(II) Numbat
(III) Flying Phalanger
(IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Identify the incorrect statement/s:
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (B) and (E) only
• (3) (D) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Types of barriers)
(A) Cytokine barriers
(B) Physical barriers
(C) Cellular barriers
(D) Physiological barriers
List-II (Examples)
(I) Mucus coating
(II) Tears from eyes
(III) Phagocytosis
(IV) Interferons
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Smack is chemically:

• (1) Diacetyl morphine
• (2) Cocaine
• (3) Benzodiazepine
• (4) Amphetamine

Antibodies are secreted by:

• (1) T-Cells
• (2) B-Cells
• (3) α-Cells
• (4) β-Cells

In sewage treatment, flocs are:

• (1) the solids that settle during sedimentation.
• (2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.
• (3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
• (4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Products)
(A) Statin
(B) Clot buster
(C) Swiss cheese
(D) Cyclosporin-A
List-II (Organisms)
(I) Streptococcus
(II) Trichoderma
(III) Monascus
(IV) Propionibacterium
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is:

• (1) Trichoderma
• (2) Dragonflies
• (3) Ladybird
• (4) Silver fish

Downstream processing method involves:

• (1) Identification
• (2) Amplification
• (3) Fermentation
• (4) Purification

Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading enzyme?

• (1) Fungi – Chitinase
• (2) Algae – Methylase
• (3) Plant cells – Cellulase
• (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

Arrange the following steps involved in transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate
(E) Placed them again on ice
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
• (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
• (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
• (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (A) and (B) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs.
(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (C) and (D) only
• (3) (A) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (C) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Transgene)
(A) α-1-antitrypsin
(B) cryIAc
(C) Antisense RNA
(D) cryIAb
List-II (Used for/Products)
(I) Meloidegyne incognitia
(II) Corn borer
(III) Treat emphysema
(IV) Cotton bollworms
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Expand “GEAC”:

• (1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee
• (2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee
• (3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
• (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in:

• (1) Alkaline pH of the gut
• (2) Acidic pH of the gut
• (3) Acidic pH of saliva
• (4) Alkaline pH of saliva