CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 (Set B) Available Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

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CUET Biology Question Paper (Set B) 2024 is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Biology paper on 15 May in Shift 1B from 12:15 PM to 1 PM. CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 45 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Biology.

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CUET Biology 2024 (Set B) Solution

Question 1:

The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is:

(1) Trichoderma
(2) Dragonflies
(3) Ladybird
(4) Silver fish

Correct Answer: (3) Ladybird
View Solution

Question 2:

Downstream processing method involves:

(1) Identification
(2) Amplification
(3) Fermentation
(4) Purification

Correct Answer: (4) Purification
View Solution

Question 3:

Smack is chemically:

(1) Diacetyl morphine
(2) Cocaine
(3) Benzodiazepine
(4) Amphetamine

Correct Answer: (1) Diacetyl morphine
View Solution

Question 4:

Antibiotics are secreted by:

(1) T-Cells
(2) B-Cells
(3) α-Cells
(4) β-Cells

Correct Answer: (2) B-Cells
View Solution

Question 5:

In sewage treatment, flocs are:

(1) The solids that settle during sedimentation.
(2) The supernatant above the primary sludge.
(3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
(4) Anaerobic bacteria growing in sludge digesters.

Correct Answer: (1) The solids that settle during sedimentation
View Solution

Question 6:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) Statin (I) Streptococcus
(B) Clot buster (II) Trichoderma
(C) Swiss cheese (III) Monascus
(D) Cyclosporin-A (IV) Propionibacterium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution

Question 7:

Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall-degrading enzyme?

(1) Fungi – Chitinase
(2) Algae – Methylase
(3) Plant cells – Cellulase
(4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

Correct Answer: (2) Algae – Methylase
View Solution

Question 8:

Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cells on ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic-containing agar plate
(E) Placed back on ice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
(2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
(4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

Correct Answer: (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
View Solution

Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
Transgene Used for/Products
(A) α-1-antitrypsin (I) Meloidegyne incognitia
(B) cryIAc (II) Corn borer
(C) Antisense RNA (III) Treat emphysema
(D) cryIAb (IV) Cotton bollworms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

Question 12:

Expand "GEAC":

(1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee
(2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee
(3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

Correct Answer: (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
View Solution

Question 13:

When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in:

(1) Alkaline pH of the gut
(2) Acidic pH of the gut
(3) Acidic pH of saliva
(4) Alkaline pH of saliva

Correct Answer: (1) Alkaline pH of the gut
View Solution

Question 14:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
Interspecies Relationships Features
(A) Commensalism (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other
(B) Mutualism (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
(C) Amensalism (III) Both the species are benefitted
(D) Parasitism (IV) One species benefits and other remains unaffected
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
View Solution

Question 15:

In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect?

(1) Expanding
(2) Declining
(3) Stable
(4) S-shaped

Correct Answer: (3) Stable
View Solution

Question 16:

Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate the Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by:

(1) Eliminating the inferior species.
(2) Resource partitioning.
(3) Interacting with each other symbiotically.
(4) Changing the area of grazing.

Correct Answer: (2) Resource partitioning
View Solution

Question 17:

The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of:

(1) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.
(2) Organic nutrients from humus.
(3) Inorganic nutrients from humus.
(4) Organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

Correct Answer: (1) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus
View Solution

Question 18:

In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers?

(1) Forests
(2) Grassland
(3) Desert
(4) Sea

Correct Answer: (4) Sea
View Solution

Question 19:

Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following:
(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.
(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.
(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.
(D) Humification follows mineralisation.

(1) (B) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (1) (B) and (D) only
View Solution

Question 20:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) Standing state (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time
(B) Secondary productivity (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers
(C) Standing crop (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time
(D) Net primary productivity (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
View Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease?

(1) Chlamydiasis
(2) Filariasis
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Trichomoniasis

Correct Answer: (2) Filariasis
View Solution

Question 22:

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

(1) They are considered safe during the first trimester.
(2) It is legalized in India from 1971.
(3) MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specified grounds.
(4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.

Correct Answer: (4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.
View Solution

Question 23:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) ZIFT (I) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor
(B) ICSI (II) Transfer of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres
(C) IUI (III) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm
(D) IUT (IV) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

Question 24:

Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females?

(1) IUDs
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Condoms

Correct Answer: (3) Vasectomy
View Solution

Question 25:

'Saheli' – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the 'Once a week' pill, was developed by:

(1) AIIMS
(2) NBRI
(3) CDRI
(4) NBPGR

Correct Answer: (3) CDRI
View Solution

Question 26:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community?

(1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
(2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
(3) All the species are equally important in a stable community, and the absence of any one leads to its unsustainability.
(4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.

Correct Answer: (3) All the species are equally important in a stable community, and the absence of any one leads to its unsustainability.
View Solution

Question 27:

In the 'rivet popper hypothesis', the 'rivet' signifies:

(1) Key species
(2) Endemic species
(3) Community
(4) Species

Correct Answer: (1) Key species
View Solution

Question 28:

The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

(1) Paul Ehrlich
(2) David Tilman
(3) Robert May
(4) Edward Wilson

Correct Answer: (2) David Tilman
View Solution

Question 29:

Among vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

(1) Reptiles
(2) Fishes
(3) Insects
(4) Mammals

Correct Answer: (2) Fishes
View Solution

Question 30:

The following are the hypotheses explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics, except:

(1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
(2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture, helping diversity to flourish.
(3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
(4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity and hence biodiversity.

Correct Answer: (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
View Solution

Question 31:

Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

(1) Central cell and generative cell
(2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
(3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
(4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

Correct Answer: (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
View Solution

Question 32:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) Filiform apparatus (I) Made up of sporopollenin
(B) Tapetum (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(C) Exine (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(D) Funicle (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

Question 33:

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

(1) Double fusion
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Apomixis

Correct Answer: (2) Triple fusion
View Solution

Question 34:

In humans, mammary glands are divided into lobes:

(1) 10-12
(2) 25-30
(3) 30-35
(4) 15-20

Correct Answer: (4) 15-20
View Solution

Question 35:

Sex in a human embryo is determined by:

(1) 'X' chromosome of the egg
(2) 'X' or 'Y' chromosome of sperm
(3) Only 'Y' chromosome of sperm
(4) Health of the mother

Correct Answer: (2) 'X' or 'Y' chromosome of sperm
View Solution

Question 36:

Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:
(A) Ovum
(B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte
(D) Secondary oocyte

(1) (C), (B), (D), (A)
(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Correct Answer: (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
View Solution

Question 37:

Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

(1) Pink and white flowers
(2) Inflated and constricted pods
(3) Axial and terminal flowers
(4) Green and yellow pods

Correct Answer: (1) Pink and white flowers
View Solution

Question 38:

Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division results in:

(1) Polyploidy
(2) Euploidy
(3) Aneuploidy
(4) Autopolyploidy

Correct Answer: (3) Aneuploidy
View Solution

Question 39:

Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anemia:
Genotype : Phenotype
(A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
(B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
(C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
(D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease

(1) (C) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C), and (D) only
(4) (A), (B), and (C) only

Correct Answer: (1) (C) and (D) only
View Solution

Question 40:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Scientists) List-II (Discovery)
(A) Sutton and Boveri (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(B) Sturtevant (IV) Genetic maps
(C) Henking (I) X-Body
(D) Griffith (III) Transformation in bacteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
View Solution

Question 41:

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to –OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.

(1) (A), (B), and (E) only
(2) (D) and (E) only
(3) (B) and (D) only
(4) (B) and (E) only

Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (D) only
View Solution

Question 42:

Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labeled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Correct Answer: (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
View Solution

Question 43:

Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones:

(1) Four
(2) Nine
(3) Two
(4) Eight

Correct Answer: (4) Eight
View Solution

Question 44:

Select the observations drawn from the human genome project that are correct:
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.

(1) (A), (B), (C), and (D) only
(2) (A), (C), (D), and (E) only
(3) (A), (C), and (E) only
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)

Correct Answer: (4) (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)
View Solution

Question 45:

Analogous structures are a result of

(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

Correct Answer: (1) Convergent evolution
View Solution

Question 46:

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

(1) Natural selection
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene pool
(4) Gene migration

Correct Answer: (3) Gene pool
View Solution

Question 47:

Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

(1) Homo erectus
(2) Dryopithecus
(3) Australopithecines
(4) Ramapithecus

Correct Answer: (2) Dryopithecus
View Solution

Question 48:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
Placental mammals Counterpart Marsupials
(A) Anteater
(B) Bobcat
(C) Lemur
(D) Flying squirrel
List-II
Marsupials
(I) Spotted cuscus
(II) Numbat
(III) Flying Phalanger
(IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution

Question 49:

Identify the incorrect statement/s:
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by the Widal test.

(1) (A), (C), and (D) only
(2) (B) and (E) only
(3) (D) only
(4) (A) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (3) (D) only
View Solution

Question 50:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
Types of barriers Examples
(A) Cytokine barriers
(B) Physical barriers
(C) Cellular barriers
(D) Physiological barriers
List-II
Examples
(I) Mucus coating
(II) Tears from eyes
(III) Phagocytosis
(IV) Interferons
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
View Solution

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CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 (Set B) Available Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 (Set B) PDF Download

CUET Biology 2024 (Set B) Solution

CUET Questions

1.
Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of which group of plants?

2.
A projectile is fired with an initial velocity \( u \) at an angle \( \theta \) to the horizontal. The time of flight is \( T \). What is the maximum height \( H \) reached by the projectile?

3.
Rearrange the parts to form a logical sentence:
A) the city's new policy
B) has significantly improved
C) air quality
D) over the past year

4.
The coordination number of the central metal ion in \([ \text{Fe(CN)}_6 ]^{4-}\) is:

5.
If $ A $ is a $ 2 \times 2 $ matrix and $ |A| = 4 $, then $ |A^{-1}| $ is:

6.
A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net % change?

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

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CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 (Set B) PDF Download

CUET Biology 2024 (Set B) Solution

CUET Questions

1.Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of which group of plants?

2.A projectile is fired with an initial velocity \( u \) at an angle \( \theta \) to the horizontal. The time of flight is \( T \). What is the maximum height \( H \) reached by the projectile?

3.Rearrange the parts to form a logical sentence: A) the city's new policy B) has significantly improved C) air quality D) over the past year

4.The coordination number of the central metal ion in \([ \text{Fe(CN)}_6 ]^{4-}\) is:

5.If $ A $ is a $ 2 \times 2 $ matrix and $ |A| = 4 $, then $ |A^{-1}| $ is:

6.A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net % change?

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

Comments

SUBSCRIBE TO OUR NEWS LETTER

1.
Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of which group of plants?

2.
A projectile is fired with an initial velocity \( u \) at an angle \( \theta \) to the horizontal. The time of flight is \( T \). What is the maximum height \( H \) reached by the projectile?

3.
Rearrange the parts to form a logical sentence:
A) the city's new policy
B) has significantly improved
C) air quality
D) over the past year

4.
The coordination number of the central metal ion in \([ \text{Fe(CN)}_6 ]^{4-}\) is:

5.
If $ A $ is a $ 2 \times 2 $ matrix and $ |A| = 4 $, then $ |A^{-1}| $ is:

6.
A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net % change?