CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 Set A (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Analogous structures are a result of:

• (1) Convergent evolution
• (2) Divergent evolution
• (3) Parallel evolution
• (4) Retrogressive evolution

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

• (1) Natural selection
• (2) Genetic drift
• (3) Gene pool
• (4) Gene migration

Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

• (1) Homo erectus
• (2) Dryopithecus
• (3) Australopithecines
• (4) Ramapithecus

Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones.

• (1) Four
• (2) Nine
• (3) Two
• (4) Eight

Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct.
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
• (3) (A), (C) and (E) only
• (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(A) Anteater
(B) Bobcat
(C) Lemur
(D) Flying squirrel
List-II
(I) Spotted cuscus
(II) Numbat
(III) Flying Phalanger
(IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Identify the incorrect statement/s:
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (B) and (E) only
• (3) (D) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(A) Cytokine barriers
(B) Physical barriers
(C) Cellular barriers
(D) Physiological barriers
List-II
(I) Mucus coating
(II) Tears from eyes
(III) Phagocytosis
(IV) Interferons
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Smack is chemically:

• (1) Diacetyl morphine
• (2) Cocaine
• (3) Benzodiazepine
• (4) Amphetamine

Antibodies are secreted by:

• (1) T-Cells
• (2) B-Cells
• (3) α-Cells
• (4) β-Cells

In sewage treatment, flocs are:

• (1) the solids that settle during sedimentation.
• (2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.
• (3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
• (4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(A) Statin
(B) Clot buster
(C) Swiss cheese
(D) Cyclosporin-A
List-II
(I) Streptococcus
(II) Trichoderma
(III) Monascus
(IV) Propionibacterium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is:

• (1) Trichoderma
• (2) Dragonflies
• (3) Ladybird
• (4) Silver fish

Downstream processing method involves:

• (1) Identification
• (2) Amplification
• (3) Fermentation
• (4) Purification

Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading enzyme?

• (1) Fungi – Chitinase
• (2) Algae – Methylase
• (3) Plant cells – Cellulase
• (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end.
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate
(E) Placed them again on ice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
• (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
• (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
• (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.
Choose the answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (A) and (B) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorization from MNCs.
(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (C) and (D) only
• (3) (A) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (C) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(A) α-1-antitrypsin
(B) cryIAc
(C) Antisense RNA
(D) cryIAb
List-II
(I) Meloidegyne incognitia
(II) Corn borer
(III) Treat emphysema
(IV) Cotton bollworms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Expand “GEAC”:

• (1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee
• (2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee
• (3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
• (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in:

• (1) Alkaline pH of the gut
• (2) Acidic pH of the gut
• (3) Acidic pH of saliva
• (4) Alkaline pH of saliva

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(A) Commensalism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Amensalism
(D) Parasitism
List-II
(I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other
(II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
(III) Both the species are benefitted
(IV) One species benefits and other remains unaffected
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect?

• (1) Expanding
• (2) Declining
• (3) Stable
• (4) S-shaped

Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate the Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by:

• (1) eliminating the inferior species
• (2) resource partitioning
• (3) interacting with each other symbiotically
• (4) changing the area of grazing

The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of:

• (1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus
• (2) organic nutrients from humus
• (3) inorganic nutrients from humus
• (4) organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus

In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers?

• (1) Forests
• (2) Grassland
• (3) Desert
• (4) Sea

Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following:
(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.
(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.
(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.
(D) Humification follows mineralisation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (B) and (D) only
• (2) (A) and (C) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Concepts) List-II (Explanation)
(A) Standing state (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time
(B) Secondary productivity (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers
(C) Standing crop (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time
(D) Net primary productivity (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease?

• (1) Chlamydiasis
• (2) Filariasis
• (3) Genital herpes
• (4) Trichomoniasis

Question 30:

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

• (1) They are considered safe during the first trimester.
• (2) It is legalized in India from 1971.
• (3) MTP can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific grounds.
• (4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.

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Question 31:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Assisted Reproductive Technologies) List-II (Process Involved)
(A) ZIFT (I) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor
(B) ICSI (II) Transfer of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres
(C) IUI (III) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm
(D) IUT (IV) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

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Question 32:

Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females?

• (1) IUDs
• (2) Lactational amenorrhea
• (3) Vasectomy
• (4) Condoms

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Question 33:

‘Saheli’ — an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by:

• (1) AIIMS
• (2) NBRI
• (3) CDRI
• (4) NBPGR

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Question 34:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community?

• (1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
• (2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
• (3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and the absence of any one leads to its unsustainability.
• (4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.

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Question 35:

In the 'rivet popper hypothesis' the 'rivet' signifies:

• (1) Key species
• (2) Endemic species
• (3) Community
• (4) Species

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Question 36:

The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

• (1) Paul Ehrlich
• (2) David Tilman
• (3) Robert May
• (4) Edward Wilson

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Question 37:

Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

• (1) Reptiles
• (2) Fishes
• (3) Insects
• (4) Mammals

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Question 38:

The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics except:

• (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
• (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish.
• (3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
• (4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity.

Correct Answer: View Solution

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Question 39:

Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

• (1) Central cell and generative cell
• (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
• (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
• (4) Filiform cell and micropyl cell

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Question 40:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Structures) List-II (Functions)
(A) Filiform apparatus (I) Made up of sporopollenin
(B) Tapetum (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(C) Exine (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(D) Funicle (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

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Question 41:

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

• (1) Double fusion
• (2) Triple fusion
• (3) Parthenogenesis
• (4) Apomixis

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Question 42:

In humans, the mammary gland is divided into lobes:

• (1) 10 – 12
• (2) 25 – 30
• (3) 30 – 35
• (4) 15 – 20

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Question 43:

Sex in a human embryo is determined by:

• (1) ‘X’ chromosome of egg
• (2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
• (3) Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
• (4) Health of mother

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Question 44:

Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:
(A) Ovum
(B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte
(D) Secondary oocyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (C), (B), (D), (A)
• (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
• (3) (D), (C), (A), (B)
• (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

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Question 45:

Which of the following pairs of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

• (1) Pink and white flowers
• (2) Inflated and constricted pods
• (3) Axial and terminal flowers
• (4) Green and yellow pods

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Question 46:

Failure of chromatids to segregate during the cell division cycle results in:

• (1) Polyploidy
• (2) Euploidy
• (3) Aneuploidy
• (4) Autopolyploidy

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Question 47:

Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anemia:
Genotype: Phenotype
(A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
(B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
(C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
(D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A) and (C) only
• (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
• (4) (A), (B) and (C) only

View Solution

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Question 48:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Scientists) List-II (Discovery)
(A) Sutton and Boveri (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(B) Sturtevant (IV) Genetic maps
(C) Henking (I) X-Body
(D) Griffith (III) Transformation in bacteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

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Question 49:

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5′ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2′ position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
• (2) (D) and (E) only
• (3) (B) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (E) only

View Solution

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Question 50:

Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
• (2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
• (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
• (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

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