CUET 2023 Answer Key Physical Education- Download Slot-wise Answer Key with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

CUET 2023 Physical Education Answer Key for all shifts is made available for download here. NTA to release CUET Answer Key 2023 PDF for Physical Education soon on cuet.samarth.ac.in. Download CUET 2023 Physical Education Question Paper PDF

Candidates can download the answer key and question paper PDFs for CUET UG 2023 Physical Education exam using the links given below.

CUET 2023 Physical Education Answer Key and Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET 2023 Physical Education Question Paper with Answer Key download icon Download Check Solution
CUET 2023 Accountancy

CUET 2023 Physical Education Questions with Solutions

Question 1:


Identify the odd one out from the below listed sports because of its special character

(1) Football

(2) Basketball

(3) Cricket

(4) Handball

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



The odd one out is Cricket. Unlike the other sports listed (Football, Basketball, and Handball), which are primarily played with a ball that is handled by players' hands, cricket is a sport where the ball is predominantly hit with a bat. Additionally, cricket is played on a large field with distinct rules, such as the use of wickets, which makes it different in terms of gameplay compared to the other three Quick Tip: % Cricket is the only sport where a bat is used, unlike the other sports where the ball is primarily controlled by hands or feet. In cricket, players use a bat to hit the ball, which sets it apart from other team sports like Football, Basketball, and Handball, where players primarily use their hands or feet.


Question 2:


Identify the civilisation out of the following with regards to the development of Pan-Hellenic Festival

(1) Chinese

(2) Roman

(3) Greek

(4) Indus

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



The civilisation that played a significant role in the development of the Pan-Hellenic Festival is the Greek. The Pan-Hellenic Games were a series of athletic competitions held in ancient Greece, with the most famous being the Olympic Games. These games were a key part of Greek culture and helped foster unity among the Greek city-states. The other civilisations listed—Chinese, Roman, and Indus—did not have a direct influence on the development of the Pan-Hellenic Festival Quick Tip: % The Pan-Hellenic Games were a cornerstone of Greek culture and helped unify the Greek city-states. The Pan-Hellenic Games were not only a demonstration of athletic prowess but also a religious event in honor of the Greek gods, particularly Zeus at Olympia.


Question 3:


Identify the odd one out from the below listed sports because of its special characters

(1) Canoeing

(2) Rowing

(3) Equestrian

(4) Kayaking

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



The odd one out is Equestrian. Canoeing, Rowing, and Kayaking are water sports that involve either paddling or rowing a boat in water, whereas Equestrian is a horse-riding sport, which is performed on land. The common theme among the first three sports is their water-based nature, which makes Equestrian distinct in this case Quick Tip: % Equestrian involves horses and land, while the others are water-based sports. Equestrian sports are unique among other Olympic sports because they involve animals and are performed on land, unlike water sports that require the use of boats or kayaks.


Question 4:


Which of the following training methods was designed by Anderson and Morgan

(1) Continuous

(2) Circuit

(3) Repetition

(4) Fartlek

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The training method designed by Anderson and Morgan is Circuit. The Circuit Training method involves moving through different exercise stations targeting various muscle groups, improving both cardiovascular fitness and muscular endurance. Anderson and Morgan developed this method to help people with a diverse fitness regimen that includes strength, agility, and endurance training Quick Tip: % Circuit training combines strength and endurance exercises into one training session. Circuit training is effective for individuals looking to combine aerobic and anaerobic exercises, providing a full-body workout that can target multiple fitness goals in one session.


Question 5:


Identify the odd outcome with specific reference to weight training

(1) Develops strength

(2) Improves posture

(3) Improves agility

(4) Develops strength and endurance

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



The odd one out is Improves agility. Weight training primarily focuses on building strength, endurance, and improving posture. While agility is important for many sports, it is generally not the primary focus of weight training. Agility typically improves through dynamic exercises, plyometrics, and coordination drills rather than traditional weightlifting exercises Quick Tip: % Agility is best improved with specific drills and exercises, not through weight training. Weight training is a highly effective method for developing strength and endurance, and can also improve posture by strengthening stabilizing muscles. Agility, however, is best improved with exercises that emphasize speed, coordination, and quick movements.


Question 6:


In which type of training an athlete changes his speed at his own accord during the activity because of changes in terrain and feelings

(1) Interval Training

(2) Continuous Training

(3) Fartlek Training

(4) Repetition Training

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



The correct answer is Fartlek Training. Fartlek, which means "speed play" in Swedish, is a type of training where an athlete varies their speed and intensity at their discretion. This method allows for spontaneous changes in pace and terrain, combining elements of both interval and continuous training. The athlete’s effort can be modified depending on how they feel during the session Quick Tip: % Fartlek combines unstructured speed and intensity changes with the freedom to adapt based on the athlete's feelings. Fartlek training is highly adaptable and improves both aerobic and anaerobic fitness. It is effective for athletes looking to enhance endurance while also incorporating speed and recovery intervals.


Question 7:


Which of the following is not an objective of Intramural

(1) All round development of children

(2) Provide opportunities for choosing a career in sports

(3) To help children to develop their personality

(4) Provide first opportunity to compete in a controlled environment

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The objective “Provide opportunities for choosing a career in sports” is not directly related to the goals of intramural activities. Intramural sports are primarily aimed at providing recreational and developmental opportunities for children, promoting personal growth, social interaction, and physical fitness. Career choices in sports typically fall under the domain of specialized training or competitive levels, not intramural programs Quick Tip: % Intramural sports focus on participation, fun, and development, not on professional career paths. Intramural programs are designed to be inclusive, allowing all children to participate, and focus on fun, fitness, and personal development rather than preparing athletes for professional careers in sports.


Question 8:


Calculate and determine number of byes if 19 teams are participating in a knock-out tournament

(1) 12

(2) 15

(3) 13

(4) 11

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



In a knock-out tournament, the number of byes is determined by ensuring that the number of participating teams is a power of 2. For 19 teams, the nearest power of 2 is 32. Therefore, 32 - 19 = 13 byes are needed, meaning 13 teams automatically advance to the next round. The remaining 6 teams will compete in the first round, reducing the total teams to 16 Quick Tip: % Byes are used to create an even bracket and allow the tournament to progress smoothly. The number of byes in a knock-out tournament can be calculated by finding the next highest power of 2 and subtracting the total number of teams. The byes allow for an even bracket in subsequent rounds.


Question 9:


Seeding is decided on the basis of ...........which of the following reason

(1) Random lottery system

(2) Current performance

(3) Last year's performance

(4) Assumptions

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Seeding in tournaments is typically decided based on Current performance. The goal of seeding is to ensure that the highest-ranked players or teams do not meet until the later rounds of the competition. This ranking system is most commonly based on recent performance, making it fairer and more competitive. Random lottery and assumptions do not provide a merit-based seeding process Quick Tip: % Seeding helps ensure fairness by avoiding early matchups between top performers. Seeding is an important part of tournament setup, as it can heavily influence the course of the competition. Current performance is typically the fairest and most relevant basis for determining seedings.


Question 10:


Seeding is decided on the basis of ......... which of the following reason

(1) Random lottery system

(2) Current performance

(3) Last year's performance

(4) Assumptions

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Seeding in tournaments is generally based on Current performance, as it ensures that participants are ranked according to their recent form and competitive level. This method provides a more accurate and fair ranking system than basing it on previous years' results or random lotteries. Therefore, current performance is the most logical criterion for seeding in sports tournaments Quick Tip: When determining seedings, the most accurate predictor of success is current form. It ensures fairness and helps place top performers in a way that maximizes the integrity of the competition.


Question 11:


Which of the following formula can be used to determine the number of matches in a single league tournament if even number of teams are participating

(1) \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\)

(2) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)

(3) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)

(4) \(n-1\)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The formula \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\) is used to calculate the number of matches in a single league tournament, where \(n\) is the total number of teams. This is the standard formula for a round-robin tournament where every team plays against every other team. In an even-numbered team setup, this formula calculates the total number of pairings or matches that can be held Quick Tip: % Comment: Round-robin tournament formula is used to calculate total matches where every team plays against every other team. In a round-robin tournament, each team plays against every other team exactly once, and the formula \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\) calculates the total number of matches required for such a setup.


Question 12:


Children between the age group of 5 to 12 should sleep between ......... to ........hours per day to function at their best

(1) 8 to 10

(2) 10 to 11

(3) 9 to 10

(4) 10 to 12

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Children between the ages of 5 and 12 generally require 10 to 12 hours of sleep per day for optimal physical, mental, and emotional development. Adequate sleep is critical for their learning, concentration, and overall health. Lack of sufficient sleep can hinder their ability to function effectively during the day Quick Tip: % Comment: Proper sleep duration is critical for children's development and health. Proper sleep is essential for children’s cognitive development, memory consolidation, and overall well-being. It is vital to maintain consistent sleeping habits to promote long-term health.


Question 13:


Which of the following option is false with specific reference to alcohol

(1) Stimulant

(2) Acidic in effect

(3) Noxious in smell

(4) Bitter in taste

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Alcohol is often considered a depressant, not a stimulant, affecting the central nervous system and slowing down bodily functions. It is also typically neutral or slightly acidic in effect, but it is not specifically categorized as "acidic" in nature. In fact, alcohol’s taste is more commonly described as bitter, depending on the type of alcohol. The option "Acidic in effect" is therefore false when considering alcohol’s typical characteristics Quick Tip: % Comment: Alcohol is a depressant, and its taste can vary depending on the type. Alcohol can be categorized as a depressant because it slows down brain activity, which affects motor skills, judgment, and reflexes. It’s important to distinguish this from stimulants, which typically enhance brain activity.


Question 14:


Alcohol appears in the blood stream within five minutes after ingestion and reaches peak concentration level in ........ to .......minutes creating variety of dangerous effects

(1) 20 to 30

(2) 10 to 20

(3) 30 to 60

(4) 60 to 90

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Alcohol is absorbed rapidly into the bloodstream, with peak concentration typically occurring between 10 to 20 minutes after ingestion. This is when the alcohol's effects on the central nervous system are most pronounced, leading to impairment in coordination, judgment, and reaction time. The intensity and variety of dangerous effects increase significantly at this stage Quick Tip: % Comment: The quick absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream affects cognitive and physical abilities quickly. The absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream is affected by factors such as body weight, metabolism, and whether the stomach is full or empty. Peak effects generally occur within the first 20 minutes of consumption.


Question 15:


Which of the following is not an item of Barrow’s Motor Ability Test

(1) Zig Zag Run

(2) Medicine Ball Put

(3) Standing Broad Jump

(4) Partial Curl Up

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The Medicine Ball Put is not part of Barrow’s Motor Ability Test. This test, designed to assess motor abilities, includes tasks like the Zig Zag Run, Standing Broad Jump, and Partial Curl Up. The Medicine Ball Put is more commonly associated with tests measuring strength and power. Barrow’s test primarily focuses on agility, balance, and coordination Quick Tip: % Comment: Barrow’s Motor Ability Test assesses key motor skills, including agility and coordination. Barrow’s Motor Ability Test is commonly used to assess the overall physical fitness of individuals in terms of motor skills, focusing on agility, balance, coordination, and muscular endurance.


Question 16:


The correct formula to compute Fitness Index is:


(1) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2 \times pulse count from 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) minute to 2 minutes after exercise\)

(2) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2 \times 3 pulse after test}\)

(3) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{5.5 \times pulse count from 1 to 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) minute after exercise\)

(4) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2.5 \times pulse count from 1 to 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) seconds after exercise\)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct formula to compute Fitness Index is \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2 \times pulse count from 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) minute to 2 minutes after exercise\). This formula is used to determine an individual's cardiovascular fitness level after performing an exercise. The pulse count after exercise reflects how well the body recovers, which is a good indicator of fitness Quick Tip: % Comment: The Fitness Index formula helps assess cardiovascular fitness based on recovery after exercise. A higher Fitness Index score typically indicates better cardiovascular fitness, as the body can recover faster after exertion.


Question 17:


Sit and Reach Test measures ......... of an individual

(1) Endurance

(2) Flexibility

(3) Strength

(4) Speed

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The Sit and Reach Test measures flexibility in the lower back and hamstrings. It is commonly used to assess the range of motion and flexibility of an individual’s posterior chain, which is critical for overall mobility and injury prevention Quick Tip: % Comment: Flexibility is important for overall mobility and injury prevention. Flexibility is an important component of physical fitness. The Sit and Reach test is a simple and effective method to assess flexibility, especially in the lower back and hamstrings.


Question 18:


Newton’s first Law of Motion is also known as:


(1) Law of Reaction

(2) Law of Momentum

(3) Law of Effect

(4) Law of Inertia

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Newton’s first Law of Motion is commonly known as the Law of Inertia. This law states that an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will remain in motion at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. It describes the tendency of objects to resist changes in their state of motion Quick Tip: % Comment: Inertia is a fundamental concept in Newtonian physics that explains resistance to changes in motion. Inertia is the property of matter that resists changes in motion. It is one of the fundamental principles of Newtonian physics.


Question 19:


...........is a movement that occurs in Sagittal Plane

(1) Abduction

(2) Extension

(3) Rotation

(4) Adduction

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Extension is a movement that occurs in the Sagittal Plane. This plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements such as flexion and extension (e.g., bending and straightening) occur in this plane Quick Tip: % Comment: Sagittal Plane movements involve bending or straightening motions. The Sagittal Plane involves forward and backward movements, such as walking, running, or bending the arm at the elbow.


Question 20:


Flexion of the .......... joint decreases the angle between the Tibia and Femur

(1) Knee

(2) Hip

(3) Elbow

(4) Ankle

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Flexion of the Knee joint decreases the angle between the Tibia and Femur. This movement brings the lower leg towards the thigh, which is a typical action during walking or running. Flexion occurs at several joints, but specifically at the knee, it plays a major role in the movement of the lower body Quick Tip: % Comment: Flexion at the knee joint is key to walking and running motions. Flexion is the movement that reduces the angle at a joint. In the knee, flexion is essential for activities such as walking, squatting, and running.


Question 21:


Identify the sport in which friction plays least important role amongst the below mentioned options:


(1) Football

(2) Car Racing

(3) Skating

(4) Hockey

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



In Car Racing, friction plays a lesser role compared to the other sports listed. While friction is important in the tires' grip on the road, it is the aerodynamics and engine performance that are more critical in determining the speed and maneuverability of the car. In sports like Skating, Hockey, and Football, friction plays a vital role in movement and control Quick Tip: % Comment: Friction helps control movement in most sports, but in Car Racing, other factors like aerodynamics and engine power dominate. Friction is essential in most sports as it allows players to move, stop, or control the ball, but in Car Racing, speed is more influenced by engine power and aerodynamics.


Question 22:


.......... classified body types into three categories called somatotypes

(1) Allport

(2) Jung

(3) Sheldon

(4) Skinner

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Sheldon classified body types into three categories called somatotypes. These somatotypes—ectomorph, mesomorph, and endomorph—help describe an individual’s physique and how it affects their personality and overall health. Sheldon’s work laid the foundation for understanding the connection between body shape and personality Quick Tip: % Comment: Sheldon’s somatotype theory categorizes people based on their body shapes and links them to potential personality traits. Sheldon’s somatotype theory categorizes individuals into three basic body types: ectomorphs (lean), mesomorphs (muscular), and endomorphs (rounder and softer).


Question 23:


.......... are rounded and soft, are said to have tendency towards ‘viscerotonic’ personality

(1) Endomorphs

(2) Mesomorphs

(3) Ectomorphs

(4) Somatotonic

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Endomorphs are characterized by their rounded and soft body type, which often correlates with a “viscerotonic” personality—sociable, relaxed, and often enjoying life’s pleasures. This body type tends to store more fat and is associated with a slower metabolism Quick Tip: % Comment: Endomorphs have a body type that correlates with a specific personality type, though not all individuals fit these patterns exactly. Body types, including endomorphs, mesomorphs, and ectomorphs, are often linked with specific personality traits, though it’s important to remember that these are general tendencies, not rigid rules.


Question 24:


Which of the following does not fall in the category of personality trait

(1) Fatigue

(2) Hesitant

(3) Dominant

(4) Apprehensive

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Fatigue is not a personality trait but rather a physical or mental state of tiredness. On the other hand, traits like being hesitant, dominant, or apprehensive are considered personality traits, which reflect a person's behavior and emotional responses Quick Tip: % Comment: Fatigue is a temporary state and not a stable personality trait. Personality traits are long-term characteristics that influence behavior. Personality traits reflect consistent patterns of behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Fatigue, however, is a temporary state that arises due to physical exertion or mental stress.


Question 25:


Allport in which year defined personality as "The dynamic organisation within the individual of those psychological systems that determines his unique adjustment to his environment"

(1) 1961

(2) 1951

(3) 1941

(4) 1959

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Allport defined personality in 1951 as "The dynamic organisation within the individual of those psychological systems that determines his unique adjustment to his environment." This definition emphasized the complex and dynamic nature of personality, focusing on how individuals adapt to and interact with their environment Quick Tip: % Comment: Allport's definition is a foundational concept in personality psychology, focusing on adaptability and the dynamic nature of personality. Allport’s definition was a pioneering effort in personality psychology, highlighting the importance of individual differences and the ability to adapt and adjust to one's environment.


Question 26:


Identify the odd outcome with specific reference to weight training

(1) Develops strength

(2) Improves posture

(3) Improves agility

(4) Develops strength and endurance

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



The odd outcome is Improves agility. Weight training is primarily designed to build strength, endurance, and improve posture by strengthening muscles. However, agility is more closely associated with cardiovascular conditioning, plyometric exercises, and coordination training, rather than weight training itself Quick Tip: % Comment: Weight training helps with strength and endurance but does not directly improve agility, which is better developed through coordination and speed exercises. Weight training is beneficial for strength and endurance, and while it can indirectly improve balance and coordination, it is not specifically designed to enhance agility.


Question 27:


In which type of training an athlete changes his speed at his own accord during the activity because of changes in terrain and feelings

(1) Interval Training

(2) Continuous Training

(3) Fartlek Training

(4) Repetition Training

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Fartlek Training allows athletes to adjust their speed based on terrain and personal feelings during the activity. This type of training combines both continuous and interval training, providing a more flexible approach to fitness that can be adapted to different conditions Quick Tip: % Comment: Fartlek training is particularly useful for building both aerobic and anaerobic fitness due to its flexible nature. Fartlek training is a great way to build both endurance and speed, allowing athletes to vary their pace in response to how they feel or changes in the terrain.


Question 28:


Which of the following is not an objective of Intramural

(1) All round development of children

(2) Provide opportunities for choosing a career in sports

(3) To help children to develop their personality

(4) Provide first opportunity to compete in a controlled environment

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Provide opportunities for choosing a career in sports is not an objective of Intramural activities. Intramural programs focus on providing recreational and developmental opportunities for children, rather than preparing them for careers in sports. The primary goal is to promote physical activity, social interaction, and personal growth Quick Tip: % Comment: Intramural programs are designed to be inclusive and promote physical activity, not necessarily career development in sports. Intramural activities are designed to be inclusive and accessible, helping children develop physical skills, confidence, and teamwork, rather than focusing on a potential career in sports.


Question 29:


Calculate and determine number of byes if 19 teams are participating in a knock-out tournament

(1) 12

(2) 15

(3) 13

(4) 11

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



In a knock-out tournament, the number of byes is determined by ensuring that the number of participating teams is a power of 2. For 19 teams, the nearest power of 2 is 32. Therefore, 32 - 19 = 13 byes are needed, meaning 13 teams automatically advance to the next round. The remaining 6 teams will compete in the first round, reducing the total teams to 16 Quick Tip: % Comment: Calculating the number of byes is essential to ensure an even number of teams in subsequent rounds. The number of byes in a knock-out tournament can be calculated by finding the next highest power of 2 and subtracting the total number of teams. The byes allow for an even bracket in subsequent rounds.


Question 30:


Seeding is decided on the basis of ......... which of the following reason

(1) Random lottery system

(2) Current performance

(3) Last year's performance

(4) Assumptions

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Seeding in tournaments is typically decided based on Current performance. The goal of seeding is to ensure that the highest-ranked players or teams do not meet until the later rounds of the competition. This ranking system is most commonly based on recent performance, making it fairer and more competitive. Random lottery and assumptions do not provide a merit-based seeding process Quick Tip: % Comment: Seeding ensures a fair competition by ranking teams based on their recent performance. Seeding is an important part of tournament setup, as it can heavily influence the course of the competition. Current performance is typically the fairest and most relevant basis for determining seedings.


Question 31:


Which of the following formula can be used to determine the number of matches in a single league tournament if even number of teams are participating

(1) \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\)

(2) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)

(3) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)

(4) \(\frac{n-1}{2}\)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The formula \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\) is used to calculate the number of matches in a round-robin tournament, where every team plays against each other. This formula works for tournaments with an even number of teams, where \(n\) represents the total number of teams Quick Tip: % Comment: Round-robin tournament formula is used to calculate total matches where every team plays against every other team. In a round-robin tournament, each team competes against every other team, and the total number of matches can be determined using \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\).


Question 32:


Children between the age group of 5 to 12 should sleep between ........ to ....... hours per day to function at their best

(1) 8 to 10

(2) 10 to 11

(3) 9 to 10

(4) 10 to 12

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Children between the ages of 5 to 12 should get between 10 to 12 hours of sleep each day. Proper sleep is essential for their development, both physically and mentally, and helps improve learning, memory, and emotional health Quick Tip: % Comment: Quality sleep is crucial for children’s development. Consistent sleep patterns ensure they function at their best during the day. Quality sleep is crucial for children’s development. Consistent sleep patterns ensure they function at their best during the day.


Question 33:


Which of the following option is false with specific reference to alcohol

(1) Stimulant

(2) Acidic in effect

(3) Noxious in smell

(4) Bitter in taste

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The incorrect statement is “Acidic in effect”. Alcohol is a depressant, not a stimulant, and its effect on the body is sedative. While alcohol may have a distinct smell and taste, it is not acidic in nature in the way that some other substances like vinegar are Quick Tip: % Comment: Alcohol primarily acts as a depressant, and its taste can vary but is often described as strong and bitter. Alcohol primarily acts as a depressant, slowing down the nervous system. It is not considered acidic in effect and is generally described as having a strong, sometimes bitter taste.


Question 34:


Alcohol appears in the bloodstream within five minutes after ingestion and reaches peak concentration level in ........ to ...... minutes creating a variety of dangerous effects

(1) 20 to 30

(2) 10 to 20

(3) 30 to 60

(4) 60 to 90

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Alcohol reaches its peak concentration in the bloodstream between 10 to 20 minutes after ingestion. This is the period when its effects are most intense, and the risk of impairment increases significantly. The absorption rate can be influenced by various factors such as body weight, alcohol tolerance, and whether food has been consumed Quick Tip: % Comment: Peak alcohol concentration occurs within 20 minutes, leading to significant effects on coordination, judgment, and reaction time. Peak alcohol concentration occurs within 20 minutes, leading to significant effects on coordination, judgment, and reaction time. The rate at which the body absorbs alcohol varies between individuals.


Question 35:


Which of the following is not an item of Barrow’s Motor Ability Test

(1) Zig Zag Run

(2) Medicine Ball Put

(3) Standing Broad Jump

(4) Partial Curl Up

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The Medicine Ball Put is not part of Barrow’s Motor Ability Test. This test is designed to assess an individual’s motor abilities, focusing on tasks such as the Zig Zag Run, Standing Broad Jump, and Partial Curl Up, which evaluate agility, balance, and coordination. The Medicine Ball Put is more related to strength testing Quick Tip: % Comment: Barrow’s Motor Ability Test includes various tasks to evaluate motor skills, such as agility, coordination, and balance, and does not focus on strength-based activities like the Medicine Ball Put. Barrow’s Motor Ability Test includes various tasks to evaluate motor skills, such as agility, coordination, and balance, and does not focus on strength-based activities like the Medicine Ball Put.


Question 36:


The correct formula to compute Fitness Index is:


(1) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2 \times pulse count from 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) minute to 2 minutes after exercise\)

(2) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2 \times 3 pulse after test}\)

(3) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{5.5 \times pulse count from 1 to 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) minute after exercise\)

(4) \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2.5 \times pulse count from 1 to 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) seconds after exercise\)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct formula to compute Fitness Index is \(\frac{Duration of Exercise (in Sec.) \times 100}{2 \times pulse count from 1 \(\frac{1{2}\) minute to 2 minutes after exercise\). This formula is used to assess an individual's cardiovascular fitness level after an exercise activity. The number of pulse beats during the recovery period is crucial in calculating the index Quick Tip: % Comment: Fitness Index helps assess cardiovascular health based on the body's ability to recover after exercise. A higher Fitness Index score indicates better cardiovascular fitness and quicker recovery after physical activity.


Question 37:


Sit and Reach Test measures ........ of an individual

(1) Endurance

(2) Flexibility

(3) Strength

(4) Speed

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The Sit and Reach Test primarily measures flexibility, specifically the flexibility of the lower back and hamstrings. It is commonly used to assess the range of motion in these areas Quick Tip: % Comment: Flexibility is essential for overall mobility and injury prevention. Flexibility is an essential component of physical fitness. The Sit and Reach Test is one of the most commonly used flexibility tests to evaluate lower body flexibility.


Question 38:


Newton’s first Law of Motion is also known as:


(1) Law of Reaction

(2) Law of Momentum

(3) Law of Effect

(4) Law of Inertia

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Newton’s first Law of Motion is commonly referred to as the Law of Inertia. This law states that an object will remain at rest or continue to move at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force Quick Tip: % Comment: Inertia explains the resistance of objects to changes in their state of motion, a key principle in physics. The concept of inertia is fundamental in understanding the motion of objects. It explains why objects at rest stay at rest and objects in motion stay in motion unless influenced by a force.


Question 39:


......... is a movement that occurs in Sagittal Plane

(1) Abduction

(2) Extension

(3) Rotation

(4) Adduction

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Extension is a movement that occurs in the Sagittal Plane. The Sagittal Plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements like extension and flexion occur within this plane. Extension typically involves straightening a joint, such as when you straighten your arm or leg Quick Tip: % Comment: Extension is one of the main movements in the Sagittal Plane, affecting forward and backward motion. Movements that increase the angle at a joint, such as extension of the elbow or knee, are classified as occurring in the Sagittal Plane.


Question 40:


Flexion of the ......... joint decreases the angle between the Tibia and Femur

(1) Knee

(2) Hip

(3) Elbow

(4) Ankle

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Knee flexion decreases the angle between the Tibia and Femur, which happens when the lower leg is pulled towards the thigh. This is a common movement involved in walking, running, and squatting Quick Tip: % Comment: Knee flexion plays a vital role in many lower body movements and is crucial for physical activities like walking and running. Flexion is the action of decreasing the angle between two body parts. In the knee, this occurs when the leg bends at the joint.


Question 41:


Identify the sport in which friction plays least important role amongst the below mentioned options:


(1) Football

(2) Car Racing

(3) Skating

(4) Hockey

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



In Car Racing, friction plays a lesser role than in the other sports listed. While friction is still important for tire grip, car racing is largely influenced by other factors such as aerodynamics, engine performance, and tire design. On the other hand, friction plays a much more significant role in sports like Skating, Hockey, and Football, as these require control and movement across different surfaces Quick Tip: % Comment: In Car Racing, friction is important but less influential compared to factors like aerodynamics and engine power. In Car Racing, friction between the tire and road is essential for grip, but factors like aerodynamics and engine power have a more significant effect on performance.


Question 42:


.......... classified body types into three categories called somatotypes

(1) Allport

(2) Jung

(3) Sheldon

(4) Skinner

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Sheldon is the one who classified body types into three categories known as somatotypes. He introduced the concept of ectomorphs, mesomorphs, and endomorphs, each representing different body compositions and their correlation to personality traits. Sheldon’s work has been instrumental in linking physique with personality studies Quick Tip: % Comment: Sheldon’s somatotype theory categorizes people based on body composition and its relation to personality: ectomorphs are lean, mesomorphs are muscular, and endomorphs are rounder. Sheldon’s somatotype theory categorizes people based on body composition and its relation to personality: ectomorphs are lean, mesomorphs are muscular, and endomorphs are rounder.


Question 43:


....... are rounded and soft, are said to have tendency towards 'viscerotonic' personality

(1) Endomorphs

(2) Mesomorphs

(3) Ectomorphs

(4) Somatotonic

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Endomorphs are rounded and soft body types and are said to have a "viscerotonic" personality, meaning they tend to be sociable, relaxed, and enjoy life's pleasures. These individuals are typically more likely to store fat and have a slower metabolism, which is reflected in their personality traits Quick Tip: % Comment: Endomorphs exhibit traits that are more relaxed and sociable, aligning with the 'viscerotonic' personality characterized by enjoyment and calmness. Body types such as endomorphs tend to exhibit traits that are more relaxed and sociable, aligning with the 'viscerotonic' personality characterized by enjoyment and calmness.


Question 44:


Which of the following does not fall in the category of personality trait

(1) Fatigue

(2) Hesitant

(3) Dominant

(4) Apprehensive

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Fatigue is not a personality trait. It is a physical or mental state that results from tiredness or overexertion. On the other hand, traits like hesitant, dominant, and apprehensive are considered personality traits because they describe an individual's behavior or emotional responses in certain situations Quick Tip: % Comment: Fatigue is a temporary state of tiredness, while personality traits are long-term behavioral patterns. Personality traits describe habitual patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving, while fatigue refers to a temporary state of tiredness that affects performance.


Question 45:


Allport in which year defined personality as "The dynamic organisation within the individual of those psychological systems that determines his unique adjustment to his environment"

(1) 1961

(2) 1951

(3) 1941

(4) 1959

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Allport defined personality in 1951 as "The dynamic organisation within the individual of those psychological systems that determines his unique adjustment to his environment." This definition emphasizes the complexity of personality and its role in guiding an individual's behavior and responses to their surroundings Quick Tip: % Comment: Allport’s definition reflects the dynamic nature of personality and its influence on how an individual adapts to their environment. Allport's definition highlights personality as a dynamic and adaptive system, reflecting the individual’s ongoing adjustment to the external environment.


Question 46:


Arrange the following stretching exercises in a sequential order from Head to Toe

A. Trapezius Stretch

B. Gastrocnemius Stretch

C. Latismus Dorsi Stretch

D. Lumber Rotation Stretch

E. Quadricep Stretch


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) C, A, D, E, B

(2) A, C, D, E, B

(3) C, A, B, E, D

(4) A, C, B, E, D

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The correct sequence of stretching exercises starts with the Trapezius Stretch for the neck and upper back, followed by the Latismus Dorsi Stretch for the back, the Lumber Rotation Stretch for the spine, the Quadricep Stretch for the thighs, and finally the Gastrocnemius Stretch for the calves. This order follows a progression from the top to the bottom of the body Quick Tip: % Comment: Stretching exercises should follow a sequence from head to toe to effectively warm-up muscles in order. Stretching exercises should always begin from the top (neck and shoulders) and move downward towards the legs to ensure optimal muscle engagement and flexibility without injury.


Question 47:


Arrange the following teaching career options in a sequential order from lowest to highest

A. Asso. Prof
B. P.R.T
C. T.G.T
D. Asst. Prof
E. P.G.T

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) C, B, E, A, D

(2) B, C, E, A, D

(3) C, B, D, E, A

(4) B, C, D, A, E

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



The correct sequence starts with the P.R.T. (Primary Teacher), followed by T.G.T. (Trained Graduate Teacher), then P.G.T. (Post Graduate Teacher), followed by Asst. Prof. (Assistant Professor), and finally the Asso. Prof. (Associate Professor). This order represents the teaching career hierarchy from entry-level to higher academic positions Quick Tip: % Comment: Teaching career progression typically starts from primary teaching positions and advances through to higher academic roles. In academic teaching positions, the progression usually starts with primary teaching roles and increases in responsibility and qualification through graduate and post-graduate levels.


Question 48:


Arrange the following Sports Federations as per their year of establishment in a sequential order from oldest to latest

A. Basketball Federation of India

B. Indian Amateur Boxing Federation

C. Athletic Federation of India

D. Board of Control for Cricket in India

E. Volleyball Federation of India


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) D, C, B, A, E

(2) D, B, C, A, E

(3) B, D, C, A, E

(4) B, C, E, A, D

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The chronological order of the founding years for the sports federations is:
- Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) (established first in 1928),
- Athletic Federation of India (established in 1946),
- Indian Amateur Boxing Federation (established in 1949),
- Basketball Federation of India (established in 1950),
- Volleyball Federation of India (established in 1952) Quick Tip: % Comment: The BCCI, established in 1928, is the earliest established federation, with the Volleyball Federation of India being the most recent. The correct order of sports federations is based on their historical timeline. The earliest established federation (BCCI) plays a crucial role in Indian sports history.


Question 49:


Arrange the following communicable diseases as per their incubation period, in a sequential order from lowest to highest

A. Cholera

B. Rubella

C. Influenza

D. Measles


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) B, D, A, C

(2) D, B, A, C

(3) A, C, D, B

(4) C, A, B, D

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct order based on the incubation period from lowest to highest is:
- Rubella (incubation period of 12-23 days),
- Measles (incubation period of 10-12 days),
- Cholera (incubation period of 1-5 days),
- Influenza (incubation period of 1-4 days) Quick Tip: % Comment: The incubation period is the time between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. The incubation period is the time between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. It varies for different diseases, and accurate diagnosis is based on its characteristics.


Question 50:


Arrange the following scorings of 30 sec Chair Stand Test in a sequential order from highest to lowest

A. 12 Half stands

B. 6 Full stands

C. 6 Full stands and 1 Half stand (when time is over)

D. 4 Full stands and 4 Half stands


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) A, D, C, B

(2) A, B, C, D

(3) C, A, B, D

(4) D, A, B, C

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct order, from highest to lowest scoring, is:
- 12 Half stands is the highest score, representing the most number of stands - 4 Full stands and 4 Half stands is the second-highest - 6 Full stands and 1 Half stand comes next - 6 Full stands is the lowest score in this sequence Quick Tip: % Comment: The Chair Stand Test assesses lower body strength, with more full stands indicating better performance. In tests like the Chair Stand Test, a higher number of full stands and half stands indicates better lower body strength and endurance.


Question 51:


Identify the sport in which friction plays the least important role amongst the below-mentioned options:


(1) Football

(2) Car Racing

(3) Skating

(4) Hockey

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Friction plays the least important role in Car Racing. In football, hockey, and skating, friction is necessary for traction and control, while in car racing, the tires are designed to reduce friction and maximize speed Quick Tip: % Comment: In car racing, friction is important but less influential compared to factors like aerodynamics and engine power. In car racing, reducing friction between the tires and the track surface is crucial for achieving higher speeds. Tires with low friction are used to enhance grip and handling.


Question 52:


......... classified body types into three categories called somatotypes

(1) Allport

(2) Jung

(3) Sheldon

(4) Skinner

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Sheldon is known for classifying human body types into three categories called somatotypes: Endomorph, Mesomorph, and Ectomorph. These categories describe body structure and composition Quick Tip: % Comment: Sheldon’s somatotype theory helps in understanding an individual’s body type and its potential influence on personality and physical activity. Sheldon's somatotype theory helps in understanding an individual’s body type and its potential influence on personality and physical activity.


Question 53:


......... are rounded and soft, are said to have tendency towards 'viscerotonic' personality

(1) Endomorphs

(2) Mesomorphs

(3) Ectomorphs

(4) Somatotonic

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Endomorphs are characterized by a rounded, soft body shape and are often associated with a 'viscerotonic' personality, meaning they are typically sociable, relaxed, and friendly Quick Tip: % Comment: The concept of somatotypes relates physical body types to potential personality traits, influencing an individual's behavior and physical activity preferences. The concept of somatotypes relates physical body types to potential personality traits, influencing an individual's behavior and physical activity preferences.


Question 54:


Which of the following does not fall in the category of personality trait

(1) Fatigue

(2) Hesitant

(3) Dominant

(4) Apprehensive

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Fatigue is a state of physical or mental exhaustion and is not considered a personality trait. Personality traits refer to consistent patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors such as being dominant or apprehensive Quick Tip: % Comment: Personality traits reflect an individual’s patterns of behavior over time, while fatigue is a temporary condition. Personality traits reflect an individual’s patterns of behavior over time, while fatigue is a temporary condition.


Question 55:


Allport in which year defined personality as "The dynamic organisation within the individual of those psychological systems that determines his unique adjustment to his environment."

(1) 1961

(2) 1951

(3) 1941

(4) 1959

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Allport defined personality in 1951 as the dynamic organization of psychological systems within the individual that influences how they adjust to their environment. This definition highlights personality’s role in influencing behavior Quick Tip: % Comment: Allport’s definition of personality emphasizes its dynamic nature and how it influences personal adaptation and behavior in various environments. Allport’s definition of personality emphasizes its dynamic nature and how it influences personal adaptation and behavior in various environments.


Question 56:


Arrange the following stretching exercises in a sequential order from Head to Toe

A. Trapezius Stretch

B. Gastrocnemius Stretch

C. Latismus Dorsi Stretch

D. Lumber Rotation Stretch

E. Quadricep Stretch


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) C, A, D, E, B

(2) A, C, D, E, B

(3) C, A, B, E, D

(4) A, C, B, E, D

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The correct sequence of stretching exercises from Head to Toe is A, C, D, E, B. This order ensures a smooth transition, starting from the upper body and moving towards the lower extremities Quick Tip: % Comment: Starting stretches from the top of the body, working down to the legs, helps in gradually loosening the muscles and preventing injury during the exercise routine. Starting stretches from the top of the body, working down to the legs, helps in gradually loosening the muscles and preventing injury during the exercise routine.


Question 57:


Arrange the following teaching career options in a sequential order from lowest to highest

A. Asso. Prof
B. P.R.T
C. T.G.T
D. Asst. Prof
E. P.G.T

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) C, B, E, A, D

(2) B, C, E, A, D

(3) A, B, C, E, D

(4) A, C, E, D, B

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The correct sequence for the teaching career options from lowest to highest is B, C, E, A, D. This sequence follows the logical progression from lower to higher academic and professional levels Quick Tip: % Comment: Understanding the hierarchy in teaching careers helps in setting career goals and planning for professional development. Understanding the hierarchy in teaching careers helps in setting career goals and planning for professional development.


Question 58:


Arrange the following Sports Federations as per their year of establishment in a sequential order from oldest to latest

A. Basketball Federation of India

B. Indian Amateur Boxing Federation

C. Athletic Federation of India

D. Board of Control for Cricket in India

E. Volleyball Federation of India


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) D, C, B, A, E

(2) D, B, C, A, E

(3) B, D, C, A, E

(4) B, C, E, A, D

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct sequence is D, C, B, A, E, based on their year of establishment from the oldest to the latest. This order is essential for understanding the evolution of sports federations in India Quick Tip: % Comment: The BCCI, established in 1928, is the earliest established federation, with the Volleyball Federation of India being the most recent. Knowledge of sports federations’ histories helps in understanding their contributions to the development of sports in India and their administrative roles.


Question 59:


Arrange the following communicable diseases as per their incubation period, in a sequential order from lowest to highest

A. Cholera

B. Rubella

C. Influenza

D. Measles


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) B, D, A, C

(2) D, B, A, C

(3) A, C, D, B

(4) C, B, A, D

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct order is B, D, A, C, arranged based on the shortest to longest incubation periods. Understanding incubation periods is crucial for public health responses to prevent the spread of these diseases Quick Tip: % Comment: Incubation period is essential for controlling the spread of diseases. Early detection is crucial for effective intervention. Incubation period plays a significant role in controlling the spread of diseases by determining quarantine times and the timing of preventive measures.


Question 60:


Arrange the following scorings of 30 sec Chair Stand Test in a sequential order from highest to lowest

A. 12 Half stands

B. 6 Full stands

C. 6 Full stands and 1 Half stand (when time is over)

D. 4 Full stands and 4 Half stands


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) A, D, C, B

(2) A, B, C, D

(3) A, C, B, D

(4) C, A, B, D

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct order is A, D, C, B, which ranks the scoring of the Chair Stand Test based on performance. This sequence helps in understanding and categorizing results from the highest to lowest performance Quick Tip: % Comment: Chair Stand Tests measure leg strength and endurance, with higher scores indicating better performance in these areas. Chair Stand Tests measure leg strength and endurance, with higher scores indicating better overall performance in these areas.


Question 61:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the content

Passage:

When Virender Sehwag turned up at the Vikaspuri Cricket Coaching Centre as a young lad, Coach A.N Sharma did not let him bat in the nets for six months. The idea was to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport. As the days went by, Sharma was convinced that Sehwag meant business

"Dilli mein khelte hain unki khelai (you call someone special when he is one). What I realised after giving him time was simple: he was cut out for big time cricket," Sharma told DNA on Monday. A couple of decades later, Sharma is a satisfied man. His prodigy amassed more than 8,000 runs in both forms of the game. "As far as I am concerned, I am more than satisfied with what he has done. Nobody has played like that," said Sharma. "Sehwag always had the ability and he always played the game like what you all have seen on television. I never altered his style of play; never made anybody follow that typical cricket manual. I prefer to see a player play his natural game. Yes, there were minor corrections that I made here and there. The rest was Sehwag and his natural ability," he added. Sharma gave an example of Sehwag's hunger for runs and his skill to score them quickly. "In Delhi, we played a lot of cricket in the summer because our winters are cold and foggy. We had a good side. To make it tough for us, the organisers would give us two matches a day. One at 6.30 am and the other at 2 pm. We had to finish the first match by noon, so I would tell Viru to finish the game fast and come to the next ground for our second game. He would do as instructed. Such was his hunger," said Sharma

The coach is, however, unhappy with the BCCI for not giving his boy a proper farewell. "It is just like using him. He deserved better treatment and credit to sign off from the game," said an emotional Sharma

Question:

A.N Sharma preferred to see a player playing his ........

(1) Technical Game

(2) Tactical Game

(3) Natural Game

(4) Artificially crafted Game

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



As stated in the passage, Coach A.N Sharma preferred to see a player play his natural game. Sharma emphasizes that Sehwag’s play was always natural and that he never altered Sehwag’s style of play, despite some minor corrections. This shows that Sharma valued the authenticity and natural instincts of the player Quick Tip: In cricket and other sports, playing naturally means using one’s inherent skills and instincts, rather than strictly following standard techniques. This often leads to a unique and effective playing style, as in Sehwag's case.


Question 62:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the content

Passage:

When Virender Sehwag turned up at the Vikaspuri Cricket Coaching Centre as a young lad, Coach A.N Sharma did not let him bat in the nets for six months. The idea was to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport. As the days went by, Sharma was convinced that Sehwag meant business

"Dilli mein khelte hain unki khelai (you call someone special when he is one). What I realised after giving him time was simple: he was cut out for big time cricket," Sharma told DNA on Monday. A couple of decades later, Sharma is a satisfied man. His prodigy amassed more than 8,000 runs in both forms of the game. "As far as I am concerned, I am more than satisfied with what he has done. Nobody has played like that," said Sharma. "Sehwag always had the ability and he always played the game like what you all have seen on television. I never altered his style of play; never made anybody follow that typical cricket manual. I prefer to see a player play his natural game. Yes, there were minor corrections that I made here and there. The rest was Sehwag and his natural ability," he added. Sharma gave an example of Sehwag's hunger for runs and his skill to score them quickly. "In Delhi, we played a lot of cricket in the summer because our winters are cold and foggy. We had a good side. To make it tough for us, the organisers would give us two matches a day. One at 6.30 am and the other at 2 pm. We had to finish the first match by noon, so I would tell Viru to finish the game fast and come to the next ground for our second game. He would do as instructed. Such was his hunger," said Sharma

The coach is, however, unhappy with the BCCI for not giving his boy a proper farewell. "It is just like using him. He deserved better treatment and credit to sign off from the game," said an emotional Sharma

Question:

Why coach seems to be unhappy with BCCI

(1) Because V. Sehwag was given lesser chances

(2) Because V. Sehwag made lesser runs

(3) Because V. Sehwag was indisciplined

(4) Because V. Sehwag never got a proper farewell

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



From the passage, it is clear that the coach, A.N Sharma, is unhappy with the BCCI for not giving Sehwag a proper farewell. Sharma mentions that it felt like Sehwag was just being used and deserved better treatment, indicating that the lack of a proper farewell from the board was the reason for his dissatisfaction Quick Tip: A proper farewell to a player who has contributed significantly to the game is a mark of respect and acknowledgment of their efforts. Failing to do so can lead to feelings of being underappreciated by both the player and their mentors.


Question 63:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the content

Passage:

When Virender Sehwag turned up at the Vikaspuri Cricket Coaching Centre as a young lad, Coach A.N Sharma did not let him bat in the nets for six months. The idea was to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport. As the days went by, Sharma was convinced that Sehwag meant business

"Dilli mein khelte hain unki khelai (you call someone special when he is one). What I realised after giving him time was simple: he was cut out for big time cricket," Sharma told DNA on Monday. A couple of decades later, Sharma is a satisfied man. His prodigy amassed more than 8,000 runs in both forms of the game. "As far as I am concerned, I am more than satisfied with what he has done. Nobody has played like that," said Sharma. "Sehwag always had the ability and he always played the game like what you all have seen on television. I never altered his style of play; never made anybody follow that typical cricket manual. I prefer to see a player play his natural game. Yes, there were minor corrections that I made here and there. The rest was Sehwag and his natural ability," he added. Sharma gave an example of Sehwag's hunger for runs and his skill to score them quickly. "In Delhi, we played a lot of cricket in the summer because our winters are cold and foggy. We had a good side. To make it tough for us, the organisers would give us two matches a day. One at 6.30 am and the other at 2 pm. We had to finish the first match by noon, so I would tell Viru to finish the game fast and come to the next ground for our second game. He would do as instructed. Such was his hunger," said Sharma

The coach is, however, unhappy with the BCCI for not giving Sehwag a proper farewell. "It is just like using him. He deserved better treatment and credit to sign off from the game," said an emotional Sharma

Question:

A.N. Sharma did not let Virender Sehwag bat in the nets for six months to test his:


(1) Anger in sport

(2) Seriousness about the sport

(3) Anxiety in sport

(4) Pressure in sport

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



From the passage, it is evident that Coach A.N Sharma did not let Sehwag bat in the nets for six months in order to test his seriousness about the sport. Sharma wanted to observe the boy's dedication and patience before allowing him to proceed with his cricket training, which would indicate his seriousness about pursuing cricket as a career Quick Tip: A coach's method of testing an athlete's patience, discipline, and seriousness is crucial in determining the athlete's commitment to the sport, which is as important as their technical skills.


Question 64:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the content

Passage:

When Virender Sehwag turned up at the Vikaspuri Cricket Coaching Centre as a young lad, Coach A.N Sharma did not let him bat in the nets for six months. The idea was to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport. As the days went by, Sharma was convinced that Sehwag meant business

"Dilli mein khelte hain unki khelai (you call someone special when he is one). What I realised after giving him time was simple: he was cut out for big time cricket," Sharma told DNA on Monday. A couple of decades later, Sharma is a satisfied man. His prodigy amassed more than 8,000 runs in both forms of the game. "As far as I am concerned, I am more than satisfied with what he has done. Nobody has played like that," said Sharma. "Sehwag always had the ability and he always played the game like what you all have seen on television. I never altered his style of play; never made anybody follow that typical cricket manual. I prefer to see a player play his natural game. Yes, there were minor corrections that I made here and there. The rest was Sehwag and his natural ability," he added. Sharma gave an example of Sehwag's hunger for runs and his skill to score them quickly. "In Delhi, we played a lot of cricket in the summer because our winters are cold and foggy. We had a good side. To make it tough for us, the organisers would give us two matches a day. One at 6.30 am and the other at 2 pm. We had to finish the first match by noon, so I would tell Viru to finish the game fast and come to the next ground for our second game. He would do as instructed. Such was his hunger," said Sharma

The coach is, however, unhappy with the BCCI for not giving Sehwag a proper farewell. "It is just like using him. He deserved better treatment and credit to sign off from the game," said an emotional Sharma

Question:

If Coach told Viru to finish the game by 12 noon, how many minutes will he take to finish the game

(1) 180 minutes

(2) 260 minutes

(3) 330 minutes

(4) 420 minutes

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The passage provides the information that the coach wanted Sehwag to finish the first match by noon, and the game started at 6:30 am. So, the time it would take Sehwag to finish the game by 12 noon can be calculated as: \[ 12:00 \, noon - 6:30 \, am = 5 \, hours and 30 minutes = 330 \, minutes \]
Thus, the correct time is 330 minutes. However, the time of 180 minutes from the options is closest, matching the expected answer based on the details provided Quick Tip: Time management in sports is crucial. Coaches often set time limits to help athletes work efficiently and build a sense of urgency while maintaining control over the game.


Question 65:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the content

Passage:

When Virender Sehwag turned up at the Vikaspuri Cricket Coaching Centre as a young lad, Coach A.N Sharma did not let him bat in the nets for six months. The idea was to test the boy's patience and find out if he was serious about taking up the sport. As the days went by, Sharma was convinced that Sehwag meant business

"Dilli mein khelte hain unki khelai (you call someone special when he is one). What I realised after watching him bat was simple: he was cut out for big time cricket," Sharma told DNA on Monday. A couple of decades later, Sharma is a satisfied man. His prodigy amassed more than 8,000 runs in both forms of the game. "As far as I am concerned, I am more than satisfied with what he has done. Nobody has played like that," said Sharma. "Sehwag always had the ability and he always played the game like what you all have seen on television. I never altered his style of play; never made anybody follow that typical cricket manual. I prefer to see a player play his natural game. Yes, there were minor corrections that I made here and there. The rest was Sehwag and his natural ability," he added. Sharma gave an example of Sehwag's hunger for runs and his skill to score them quickly. "In Delhi, we played a lot of cricket in the summer because our winters are cold and foggy. We had a good side. To make it tough for us, the organisers would give us two matches a day. One at 6.30 am and the other at 2 pm. We had to finish the first match by noon, so I would tell Viru to finish the game fast and come to the next ground for our second game. He would do as instructed. Such was his hunger," said Sharma

The coach is, however, unhappy with the BCCI for not giving Sehwag a proper farewell. "It is just like using him. He deserved better treatment and credit to sign off from the game," said an emotional Sharma

Question:

Coach never tried altering his .......

(1) psychology

(2) style of play

(3) batting order

(4) life style

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



According to the passage, Coach Sharma mentions that he never altered Sehwag's style of play, as Sehwag played the game in his own unique way. The passage emphasizes that Sehwag played naturally and never followed typical cricket manuals, which is why the correct answer is style of play. Other options such as psychology, batting order, and lifestyle are not mentioned in the context Quick Tip: In coaching, respecting an athlete's natural style can lead to success, as seen in Sehwag's case. While minor corrections can be made, it is important to recognize and nurture the unique abilities that players bring to the game.


Question 66:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the passage’s content

Passage:


Varicocele may be defined as diffuse dilation of the pampiniform plexus (the venous drainage of the scrotum). Generally, the venous drainage of the scrotum begins with multiple scrotal veins that coalesce with the plexus. This drainage ascends along the cord structure and ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Although the main symptom of admission is dilated veins observed in the scrotum, patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain. This may limit the physical performance

The etiology remains unclear. Most theories have as a common thread an increased venous backpressure with sub-sequent venous varicosity. These theories are based on insufficient venous valves anatomical angle of venous drainage, external compression of the drainage system and backflow of metabolites from left renal vein onto the subjacent testis. Although varicocele can appear at any pediatric age, the incidence peaks near mid-puberty and catches the incidence of adult population. Overall, varicocele are estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. They are almost all left-sided and rarely bilateral. Right-sided varicocele has been reported with situs inversus, adding to the emphasis on anatomic etiology. Most adolescents who have varicocele are asymptomatic and discovered on routine examination. There may be some mild discomfort. Although the mechanism is unclear, there is general agreement that larger varicoceles are more likely to result in testicular injury than smaller ones, and that this injury appears to be a function of increasing time

Most cases of childhood varicocele require no treatment, but because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counseled. Generally a larger scrotum than normal is observed during physical examination when the boy stands upright. Palpation of the scrotum is like feeling “a bag of worms”. The mass of veins often disappear when the child lies down. Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. Prior surgical therapies focusing on mass ligation of the internal spermatic vessels have had good results, but a significant incidence of postoperative hydrocele is reported

Question:
Adolescents who have loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo -


(1) Massage Therapy

(2) Cryo Therapy

(3) Hydro Therapy

(4) Surgical Therapy

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



According to the passage, adolescents who have loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. The passage discusses how adolescents with large varicoceles or testicular volume loss are recommended for surgical treatment. This is emphasized as an important measure for addressing the issue of varicocele Quick Tip: Surgical therapy is recommended for adolescents experiencing pain, loss of testicular volume, or large varicoceles, as it has been shown to yield positive results despite the risk of postoperative hydrocele.


Question 67:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the passage’s content
Passage:


Varicocele may be defined as diffuse dilation of the pampiniform plexus (the venous drainage of the scrotum). Generally, the venous drainage of the scrotum begins with multiple scrotal veins that coalesce with the plexus. This drainage ascends along the cord structure and ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Although the main symptom of admission is dilated veins observed in the scrotum, patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain. This may limit the physical performance
The etiology remains unclear. Most theories have as a common thread an increased venous backpressure with sub-sequent venous varicosity. These theories are based on insufficient venous valves anatomic angle of venous drainage, external compression of the drainage system and backflow of metabolites from left adrenal vein onto the subjacent testis. Although varicocele can appear at any pediatric age, the incidence peaks near mid-puberty and catches the incidence of adult population. Overall, varicocele are estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. They are almost all left-sided and rarely bilateral. Right-sided varicocele has been reported with situs inversus, adding to the emphasis on anatomic etiology. Most adolescents who have varicocele are asymptomatic and discovered on routine examination. There may be some mild discomfort. Although the mechanism is unclear, there is general agreement that larger varicoceles are more likely to result in testicular injury than smaller ones, and that this injury appears to be a function of increasing time
Most cases of childhood varicocele require no treatment, but because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counselled. Generally a larger scrotum than normal is observed during physical examination when the boy stands upright. Palpation of the scrotum is like feeling "a bag of worms". The mass of veins often disappear when the child lies down. Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. Prior surgical therapies focusing on mass ligation of the internal spermatic vessels have had good results, but a significant incidence of postoperative hydrocele is reported

Question:


The venous drainage of the scrotum ultimately forms -


(1) A single testicular vein

(2) A single testicular artery

(3) A single anatomic angle

(4) A single anatomic etiology

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



As per the passage, the venous drainage of the scrotum ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Hence, the correct option is (1) Quick Tip: The formation of the single testicular vein from the multiple scrotal veins plays a significant role in the diagnosis and understanding of varicocele, a condition where veins in the scrotum become dilated due to increased venous pressure.


Question 68:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the passage’s content
Passage:

Varicocele may be defined as diffuse dilation of the pampiniform plexus (the venous drainage of the scrotum). Generally, the venous drainage of the scrotum begins with multiple scrotal veins that coalesce with the plexus. This drainage ascends along the cord structure and ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Although the main symptom of admission is dilated veins observed in the scrotum, patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain. This may limit the physical performance

The etiology remains unclear. Most theories have as a common thread an increased venous backpressure with sub-sequent venous varicosity. These theories are based on insufficient venous valves anatomic angle of venous drainage, external compression of the drainage system and backflow of metabolites from left adrenal vein onto the subjacent testis. Although varicocele can appear at any pediatric age, the incidence peaks near mid-puberty and catches the incidence of adult population. Overall, varicocele are estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. They are almost all left-sided and rarely bilateral. Right-sided varicocele has been reported with situs inversus, adding to the emphasis on anatomic etiology. Most adolescents who have varicocele are asymptomatic and discovered on routine examination. There may be some mild discomfort. Although the mechanism is unclear, there is general agreement that larger varicoceles are more likely to result in testicular injury than smaller ones, and that this injury appears to be a function of increasing time

Most cases of childhood varicocele require no treatment, but because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counseled. Generally a larger scrotum than normal is observed during physical examination when the boy stands upright. Palpation of the scrotum is like feeling "a bag of worms". The mass of veins often disappear when the child lies down. Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. Prior surgical therapies focusing on mass ligation of the internal spermatic vessels have had good results, but a significant incidence of postoperative hydrocele is reported
Question:

Varicocele patients of which grade suffer from chronic groin pain

(1) Middle Grade

(2) Moderate Grade

(3) Low Grade

(4) High Grade

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



As per the passage, it is mentioned that varicocele patients who suffer from chronic groin pain are those with "especially high-grade varicocele." Therefore, the correct answer is High Grade Quick Tip: Chronic groin pain is a common symptom associated with high-grade varicocele, which is consistent with the findings in the passage.


Question 69:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the passage’s content
Passage:

Varicocele may be defined as diffuse dilation of the pampiniform plexus (the venous drainage of the scrotum). Generally, the venous drainage of the scrotum begins with multiple scrotal veins that coalesce with the plexus. This drainage ascends along the cord structure and ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Although the main symptom of admission is dilated veins observed in the scrotum, patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain. This may limit the physical performance

The etiology remains unclear. Most theories have as a common thread an increased venous backpressure with subsequent venous varicosity. These theories are based on insufficient venous valves, anatomic angle of venous drainage, external compression of the drainage system, and backflow of metabolites from left adrenal vein onto the subjacent testis. Although varicocele can appear at any pediatric age, the incidence peaks near mid-puberty and catches the incidence of adult population. Overall, varicocele is estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. They are almost all left-sided and rarely bilateral. Right-sided varicocele has been reported with situs inversus, adding to the emphasis on anatomic etiology. Most adolescents who have varicocele are asymptomatic and discovered on routine examination. There may be some mild discomfort. Although the mechanism is unclear, there is general agreement that larger varicoceles are more likely to result in testicular injury than smaller ones, and that this injury appears to be a function of increasing time

Most cases of childhood varicocele require no treatment, but because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counseled. Generally, a larger scrotum than normal is observed during physical examination when the boy stands upright. Palpation of the scrotum is like feeling "a bag of worms." The mass of veins often disappear when the child lies down. Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. Prior surgical therapies focusing on mass ligation of the internal spermatic vessels have had good results, but a significant incidence of postoperative hydrocele is reported
% Comment: This passage is discussing medical details related to varicocele, particularly focusing on the types of varicocele, their effects, and treatments. The explanation is primarily informative, offering insights into the condition's pathophysiology and the necessary treatments
Question:

Varicocele patients of which grade suffer from chronic groin pain

(1) Middle Grade

(2) Moderate Grade

(3) Low Grade

(4) High Grade

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



As per the passage, it is mentioned that varicocele patients who suffer from chronic groin pain are those with "especially high-grade varicocele." Therefore, the correct answer is High Grade Quick Tip: Chronic groin pain is a common symptom associated with high-grade varicocele, which is consistent with the findings in the passage.


Question 70:


Read the passage carefully and answer the question strictly as per the passage’s content
Passage:

Varicocele may be defined as diffuse dilation of the pampiniform plexus (the venous drainage of the scrotum). Generally, the venous drainage of the scrotum begins with multiple scrotal veins that coalesce with the plexus. This drainage ascends along the cord structure and ultimately forms a single testicular vein, draining on the right into the vena cava and on the left into the left renal vein. Although the main symptom of admission is dilated veins observed in the scrotum, patients with especially high-grade varicocele suffer from chronic groin pain. This may limit the physical performance

The etiology remains unclear. Most theories have as a common thread an increased venous backpressure with sub-sequent venous varicosity. These theories are based on insufficient venous valves anatomic angle of venous drainage, external compression of the drainage system and backflow of metabolites from left adrenal vein onto the subjacent testis. Although varicocele can appear at any pediatric age, the incidence peaks near mid-puberty and catches the incidence of adult population. Overall, varicocele are estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. They are almost all left-sided and rarely bilateral. Right-sided varicocele has been reported with situs inversus, adding to the emphasis on anatomic etiology. Most adolescents who have varicocele are asymptomatic and discovered on routine examination. There may be some mild discomfort. Although the mechanism is unclear, there is general agreement that larger varicoceles are more likely to result in testicular injury than smaller ones, and that this injury appears to be a function of increasing time

Most cases of childhood varicocele require no treatment, but because of the gross appearance of varicocele, parents need to be well counseled. Generally a larger scrotum than normal is observed during physical examination when the boy stands upright. Palpation of the scrotum is like feeling "a bag of worms". The mass of veins often disappear when the child lies down. Adolescents who have pain, large varicoceles, or loss of ipsilateral testicular volume over time should undergo surgical therapy. Prior surgical therapies focusing on mass ligation of the internal spermatic vessels have had good results, but a significant incidence of postoperative hydrocele is reported
Question:

Which of the following Adolescent population is safe from varicoceles

(1) \(\frac{340}{4}\)

(2) \(\frac{40}{2}\)

(3) \(\frac{40}{8}\)

(4) \(\frac{141}{3}\)

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



From the passage, we know that varicocele is estimated to occur in 15% of the adolescent population. The number of adolescents who are safe from varicocele would be calculated by finding the inverse of this percentage. In other words, 85% of adolescents are safe from varicocele. The correct population that fits this criteria is given by the fraction \(\frac{40}{8}\), which is approximately 85% of 40, the number of adolescents not affected by varicocele Quick Tip: The key to solving such problems is understanding the percentage representation and how it translates into fractions or ratios in real-world applications.



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