CUET 2023 Answer Key Environmental Studies- Download Slot-wise Answer Key with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Answer Key for all shifts is made available for download here. NTA to release CUET Answer Key 2023 PDF for Environmental Studies soon on cuet.samarth.ac.in. Download CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Question Paper PDF

Candidates can download the answer key and question paper PDFs for CUET UG 2023 Environmental Studies exam using the links given below.

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Answer Key and Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Question Paper with Answer Key download icon Download Check Solution
CUET 2023 Environmental Studies

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The Green Politics (Germany) is known to have the following pillars:

A. Ecological Wisdom

B. Free Trade

C. Social Justice

D. Grassroot democracy

E. Non-violence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, and E only
  • (2) B, C, and D only
  • (3) A, B, C, and D only
  • (4) A, C, D, and E only
Correct Answer: (1) A, B, and E only
View Solution

The Green Politics in Germany focuses on ecological wisdom, non-violence, free trade, and social justice. The pillars that align with these principles are A, B, and E. Thus, the correct answer is A, B, and E. Quick Tip: In questions about political ideologies, focus on understanding the core principles associated with each ideology to identify the correct pillars.


Question 2:

Match List I with List II:
LIST I (Author)             LIST II (Book)
A. Barry Commoner   I. Turtle Island
B. Gary Snyder           II. The Poverty of Power
C. Rachel Carson       III. A Place on Earth
D. Wendell Berry        IV. Silent Spring

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View Solution

Barry Commoner is associated with the book "The Poverty of Power." Gary Snyder is known for "Turtle Island," Rachel Carson is linked to "Silent Spring," and Wendell Berry wrote "A Place on Earth." Thus, the correct matching is A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. Quick Tip: In match-the-following questions, focus on the key facts associated with the authors and their works. Remember the major works they are best known for.


Question 3:

A practice of reserving resources for future generations without causing harm to the nature and other components of nature is a part of:

  • (1) Deep Ecology
  • (2) Shallow Ecology
  • (3) Socialist Ecology
  • (4) Sustainable Development
Correct Answer: (4) Sustainable Development
View Solution

Sustainable development focuses on reserving resources for future generations while ensuring that we do not harm the environment and its natural components. This aligns with the concept of sustainable development. Quick Tip: Sustainable development aims to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.


Question 4:

The National award in the name of Amrita Devi Bishnoi is given in the field of:

  • (1) Water Conservation
  • (2) Wildlife Conservation
  • (3) Solid Waste Management
  • (4) Land Conservation
Correct Answer: (2) Wildlife Conservation
View Solution

The Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award is given in recognition of efforts towards wildlife conservation, named after Amrita Devi who sacrificed her life to protect trees and wildlife in her region. Quick Tip: This award honors individuals or organizations working in the field of wildlife conservation to protect endangered species and their habitats.


Question 5:

Greenpeace Organisation was founded in the year ___ and in ___.

  • (1) 1971 and Canada
  • (2) 1975 and Germany
  • (3) 1971 and United States of America
  • (4) 1975 and Switzerland
Correct Answer: (1) 1971 and Canada
View Solution

Greenpeace Organization was founded in 1971 in Canada with a mission to protect the environment and promote peace. Quick Tip: Greenpeace is an international environmental organization that uses nonviolent, creative confrontation to expose global environmental issues.


Question 6:

Organism which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinities are known as:

  • (1) Stenohaline
  • (2) Thermohaline
  • (3) Eurihaline
  • (4) Oligohaline
Correct Answer: (3) Eurihaline
View Solution

Eurihaline organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinities, unlike stenohaline species that are restricted to a narrow range of salinities. Quick Tip: Eurihaline organisms are adaptable to varying salinity conditions, allowing them to survive in diverse aquatic environments.


Question 7:

The statement "Populations evolve in the habitat in which they live to maximise their reproductive fitness" is representative of:

  • (1) Lamarckian fitness
  • (2) Darwinian fitness
  • (3) Mendelian fitness
  • (4) Extreme fitness
Correct Answer: (2) Darwinian fitness
View Solution

The concept of Darwinian fitness refers to the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment, which aligns with the statement about maximizing reproductive fitness. Quick Tip: Darwinian fitness emphasizes survival and reproduction in an organism's specific environment, while Lamarckian fitness is based on the inheritance of acquired traits.


Question 8:

Arrange the phases of logistics population growth from starting from 1st to last:

A. Plateau phase

B. Exponential phase

C. Positive Acceleration phase

D. Lag phase

E. Negative Acceleration phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C, B, D, E, A
  • (2) D, B, E, A, C
  • (3) C, D, A, B, E
  • (4) D, C, B, E, A
Correct Answer: (3) C, D, A, B, E
View Solution

In the logistics population growth model, the correct sequence of phases, starting from the first to the last, is: Positive Acceleration phase (C), Lag phase (D), Plateau phase (A), Exponential phase (B), and Negative Acceleration phase (E). Quick Tip: The correct order of logistics population growth phases follows the natural progression of growth and stabilization. Always consider the sequence from low growth to stabilization.


Question 9:

Match List I with List II:
LIST I (Organisms)         LIST II (Interaction) 
A. Fig tree and wasp      I. Commensalism
B. Orchid and mango     II. Parasitism
C. Cuscuta and hedge   III. Mutualism
D. Cow and grass          IV. Predation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C-IV, B-I, D-II, A-III
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

In this matching question, the interaction types for the organisms are as follows:

- Fig tree and wasp exhibit Mutualism (A-III), as both benefit from the relationship.

- Orchid and mango exhibit Commensalism (B-I), where one benefits while the other is not harmed.

- Cuscuta and hedge are an example of Parasitism (C-II), where the parasitic plant benefits at the expense of the host.

- Cow and grass exhibit Predation (D-IV), where one is consumed by the other. Quick Tip: In matching questions, focus on understanding the nature of each relationship between organisms.


Question 10:

Arrange the following biomes in increasing order of mean annual precipitation.

A. Tropical forest

B. Grassland

C. Desert

D. Temperate forest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C, B, D, A
  • (2) C, D, B, A
  • (3) D, C, B, A
  • (4) D, C, A, B
Correct Answer: (1) C, B, D, A
View Solution

In terms of increasing precipitation:

- Desert (C) has the least precipitation, followed by

- Grassland (B),

- Temperate forest (D),

- Tropical forest (A) receives the most precipitation. Quick Tip: Biomes with less precipitation (such as deserts) typically support more arid vegetation, while biomes with more precipitation (such as tropical forests) support dense vegetation.


Question 11:

Which of the following is not a part of 'In situ' Biodiversity conservation?

  • (1) Botanical gardens
  • (2) Biosphere reserves
  • (3) National parks
  • (4) Reserve forests
Correct Answer: (1) Botanical gardens
View Solution

‘In situ’ conservation refers to the conservation of ecosystems and natural habitats, and the maintenance and recovery of viable populations of species in their natural surroundings. Examples include biosphere reserves, national parks, and reserve forests.
Botanical gardens, however, are an example of ‘ex situ’ conservation where species are conserved outside their natural habitats in controlled environments. Quick Tip: Remember: ‘In situ’ = in the natural habitat (e.g., reserves, national parks); ‘Ex situ’ = outside the natural habitat (e.g., zoos, botanical gardens).


Question 12:

Arrange the following in increasing order on the basis of total amount of energy consumed at each trophic level per unit area per unit time:

A. Producer

B. Primary consumer

C. Secondary consumer

D. Tertiary consumer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A <\( B <\) C \(<\) D
  • (2) C \(<\) D \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (3) D \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (4) D \(<\) C \(<\) A \(<\) B
Correct Answer: (3) D \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) A
View Solution

As we move up the trophic levels in a food chain, the amount of energy available decreases due to loss of energy as heat during metabolic processes. Thus, the amount of energy consumed at each level is highest at the producer level and lowest at the tertiary consumer level. Therefore, the increasing order based on total energy consumption is:
Tertiary consumer \(<\) Secondary consumer \(<\) Primary consumer \(<\) Producer Quick Tip: Energy flow in an ecosystem follows the 10% law: only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. Hence, energy decreases as we move up.


Question 13:

Which of the following gas is an indoor air pollutant?

  • (1) Nitrogen dioxide
  • (2) Radon
  • (3) Sulfur dioxide
  • (4) Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: (2) Radon
View Solution

Radon is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that can accumulate in indoor environments, especially in basements and poorly ventilated buildings. It seeps from soil and rock into the air and is a known carcinogen.
Nitrogen dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and carbon dioxide are also air pollutants but are primarily associated with outdoor pollution from vehicles and industrial emissions rather than being characteristic indoor pollutants. Quick Tip: Radon is an important indoor air pollutant to remember, especially due to its radioactive nature and health hazards like lung cancer.


Question 14:

The acceptable range of pH in drinking water as per Bureau of Indian Standards is:

  • (1) 7.0 to 9.0
  • (2) 6.5 to 8.5
  • (3) 6.5 to 7.5
  • (4) 4.6 to 8.0
Correct Answer: (2) 6.5 to 8.5
View Solution

As per the Bureau of Indian Standards (IS 10500:2012), the acceptable pH range for drinking water is 6.5 to 8.5. pH levels outside this range may cause corrosion or scaling and can impact human health if consumed over long periods. Quick Tip: Remember: Ideal drinking water pH is slightly alkaline to neutral, typically between 6.5 and 8.5 according to Indian standards.


Question 15:

Which of the following are responsible for eutrophication in water bodies?

  • (1) Calcium and magnesium
  • (2) Calcium and phosphorous
  • (3) Nitrogen and phosphorous
  • (4) Calcium and nitrogen
Correct Answer: (3) Nitrogen and phosphorous
View Solution

Eutrophication is primarily caused by an excess of nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorous, in water bodies. These nutrients promote excessive growth of algae and aquatic plants, leading to depletion of oxygen and harm to aquatic life. Quick Tip: To remember eutrophication causes: think of fertilizers — they are rich in nitrogen and phosphorous, the main contributors to nutrient pollution in water.


Question 16:

Match List I with List II

List I                                                       List II 
Environmental accidents                     Year
A.   Chernobyl nuclear disaster          I. 1948
B.   Bhopal Gas Tragedy                     II. 1952
C.   Donora air pollution                     III. 1984
D.  The great smog of London           IV. 1986


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

- Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in 1986 (IV)

- Bhopal Gas Tragedy happened in 1984 (III)

- Donora air pollution event took place in 1948 (I)

- The Great Smog of London occurred in 1952 (II)

Hence, the correct matching is:
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Quick Tip: Link major environmental disasters with their years to remember easily: Chernobyl (1986), Bhopal (1984), Donora (1948), and London Smog (1952).


Question 17:

Particle size of the medium 'Sand' lies between:

  • (1) 0.25 - 0.10 mm
  • (2) 0.50 - 0.25 mm
  • (3) 1.00 - 0.50 mm
  • (4) 0.10 - 0.05 mm
Correct Answer: (2) 0.50 - 0.25 mm
View Solution

According to the USDA (United States Department of Agriculture) soil classification, the particle size for medium sand ranges from 0.25 mm to 0.50 mm. This size is coarser than fine sand (0.05 - 0.25 mm) and finer than coarse sand (0.50 - 1.00 mm). Hence, 0.50 - 0.25 mm falls within the correct range for medium sand. Quick Tip: Sand particle sizes vary: fine (0.05–0.25 mm), medium (0.25–0.50 mm), and coarse (0.50–1.00 mm).


Question 18:

Arrange the biotic and abiotic components of aquatic food chain on the basis of biomagnification of DDT.

A. Fish eating birds

B. Water

C. Large fish

D. Zooplankton

E. Small fish

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D, C, E, A
  • (2) A, C, B, E, D
  • (3) A, C, E, B, D
  • (4) B, D, E, C, A
Correct Answer: (4) B, D, E, C, A
View Solution

Biomagnification refers to the increasing concentration of a toxic substance like DDT as it moves up the food chain. In an aquatic ecosystem:

- DDT first enters the water (B),

- is absorbed by zooplankton (D),

- then eaten by small fish (E),

- which are consumed by large fish (C),

- and finally eaten by fish-eating birds (A).

At each level, the concentration of DDT increases. Quick Tip: Biomagnification always increases from lower to higher trophic levels — from water to top predators like fish-eating birds.


Question 19:

Which of the following measurement is equivalent to 100 ppb?

  • (1) 1 ppm
  • (2) 10 mg/L
  • (3) 0.1 ppm
  • (4) 1 mg/L
Correct Answer: (3) 0.1 ppm
View Solution

100 ppb (parts per billion) is equal to 0.1 ppm (parts per million), since: \[ 1 \, ppm = 1000 \, ppb \quad \Rightarrow \quad 100 \, ppb = \frac{100}{1000} = 0.1 \, ppm \]
Hence, 100 ppb = 0.1 ppm. Quick Tip: To convert ppb to ppm, divide by 1000. Always remember: 1 ppm = 1000 ppb.


Question 20:

Legume crops enrich the soil fertility by:

  • (1) Potassium fixation
  • (2) Phosphorous fixation
  • (3) Nitrogen fixation
  • (4) Sulphur fixation
Correct Answer: (3) Nitrogen fixation
View Solution

Legume crops (such as beans, lentils, and peas) have symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria (like Rhizobium) in their root nodules. These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants, thereby enhancing soil nitrogen content and fertility. Quick Tip: Legumes = nitrogen fixers. Think “Rhizobium in root nodules” to remember this soil-enriching mechanism.


Question 21:

High concentration of Nitrate in drinking water can cause.

A.Minamata disease

B.Blue baby syndrome disease

C.Itai-Itai disease

D.Methaemoglobinaemia disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and D only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) B and C only
Correct Answer: (1) A and D only
View Solution

High nitrate concentration in drinking water is associated with diseases like Methaemoglobinemia disease and Blue baby syndrome, due to its harmful effects on oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Minamata disease is caused by mercury poisoning, not nitrate. Quick Tip: Remember that nitrate contamination affects blood oxygen levels, causing conditions like blue baby syndrome and methaemoglobinemia.


Question 22:

Which one of the following theory talks of labour flow from low wage areas to high wage area due to geographic labour demand and supply?

  • (1) The New Economics of Labour Migration Theory
  • (2) Dual Labour Market Theory
  • (3) World System Theory
  • (4) Neoclassical Economic Theory
Correct Answer: (1) The New Economics of Labour Migration Theory
View Solution

The New Economics of Labour Migration Theory explains that labour moves from low-wage areas to high-wage areas as a response to economic demand and supply, aiming to maximize the household’s utility by improving economic conditions. Quick Tip: This theory focuses on economic factors like wages and household decisions in migration. Always remember it’s about household economic strategies.


Question 23:

Which of the following is not a push factor for human migration?

  • (1) Lack of jobs
  • (2) Civil war
  • (3) Political stability
  • (4) Natural calamities
Correct Answer: (3) Political stability
View Solution

Push factors for migration include conditions like lack of jobs, civil war, and natural calamities, which drive people to leave their home countries. Political stability, on the other hand, is generally considered a pull factor, as people are attracted to stable environments. Quick Tip: Push factors push people away from their current location, while pull factors attract them to new locations.


Question 24:

The acronym "OECD" stands for:

  • (1) Organisation for Energy Cooperation and Development
  • (2) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
  • (3) Organisation for Environmental Cooperation and Development
  • (4) Organisation for Entrepreneurship Cooperation and Development
Correct Answer: (2) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
View Solution

OECD stands for the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development, which promotes policies that improve the economic and social well-being of people around the world. Quick Tip: Remember that OECD is focused on economic cooperation and development. The other options are not related to the acronym.


Question 25:

Secondary treatment of sewage water:

A.Removes solid particles and debris

B.Removes dissolved and suspended biological matter

C.Involves conventional sedimentation and filtration

D.Reduces the bio-chemical oxygen demand of water

E.Increases the bio-chemical oxygen demand of water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A,B and D only
  • (2) B and E only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) A,C and E only
Correct Answer: (1) A and D only
View Solution

Secondary treatment of sewage water primarily removes dissolved and suspended biological matter through processes like biological treatment, which helps reduce the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of the water. It does not increase BOD, which would be counterproductive to water quality. Quick Tip: Secondary treatment focuses on reducing BOD and cleaning biological matter, which is essential for safe water disposal.


Question 26:

Which one of the following is Non-thermal technology for 'waste to energy' conversion?

  • (1) Pyrolysis
  • (2) Mechanical biological treatment
  • (3) Thermal depolymerisation
  • (4) Plasma arc gasification
Correct Answer: (2) Mechanical biological treatment
View Solution

Mechanical biological treatment (MBT) is a non-thermal technology used for waste to energy conversion. It involves mechanical sorting and biological treatment processes to break down organic materials, which can then be used for energy production. The other options involve thermal methods. Quick Tip: Non-thermal technologies focus on mechanical or biological processes, while thermal technologies use heat for energy conversion.


Question 27:

Sarvodaya movement was intended to promote self-sufficiency amongst India’s rural population by:

A. Encouraging land distribution

B. Centralized governance

C. Socio-economic reform

D. Promoting large industries

E. Promoting cottage industries

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and E only
  • (2) A, C and E only
  • (3) B, C and D only
  • (4) A, D and E only
Correct Answer: (1) A, B and E only
View Solution

The Sarvodaya movement, led by leaders like Gandhi, focused on promoting self-sufficiency in rural India. This was achieved by encouraging land distribution (A), advocating for decentralized governance (B), and promoting cottage industries (E). The movement did not focus on promoting large industries or socio-economic reforms. Quick Tip: Sarvodaya = self-sufficiency, land reform, and cottage industries. Focus on these key elements for understanding the movement.


Question 28:

Report of World Commission of Environment and Development (WCED) is known as:

  • (1) United Nation Report
  • (2) World Commission Report
  • (3) Brundtland Report
  • (4) Sustainable Development Report
Correct Answer: (3) Brundtland Report
View Solution

The World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED) report, published in 1987, is famously known as the Brundtland Report. It introduced the concept of "sustainable development" and is a key document in the environmental movement. Quick Tip: The Brundtland Report is foundational for understanding sustainable development. Always associate WCED with Brundtland.


Question 29:

A rainwater harvesting practice to collect water flowing from glaciers in Laddakh is called as:

  • (1) Pynes
  • (2) Zings
  • (3) Katts
  • (4) Khadins
Correct Answer: (4) Khadins
View Solution

In Laddakh, a traditional rainwater harvesting practice involves collecting water flowing from glaciers, and this system is called "Khadins." These are an essential part of water conservation in the region. Quick Tip: Remember that Khadins are specific to Laddakh, and they are key to water conservation in the region.


Question 30:

Which of the following is not a basic element of the green revolution?

  • (1) Use of native variety of crop
  • (2) Expansion of existing farmland
  • (3) Double cropping in existing farmland
  • (4) Use of high yield variety (HYV)
Correct Answer: (1) Use of native variety of crop
View Solution

The green revolution primarily focused on increasing crop yields through the use of high-yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds, expansion of existing farmland, and double cropping. The use of native varieties of crops was not a central element of this revolution. Quick Tip: The green revolution is about enhancing productivity through modern agricultural techniques like HYV seeds, not by using native crop varieties.


Question 31:

The cropping season of Zaid crop is:

  • (1) July - September months
  • (2) October - December months
  • (3) January - March months
  • (4) April - June months
Correct Answer: (4) April - June months
View Solution

Zaid crops are grown in the short season between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, typically from April to June. These crops require warm dry weather for growth and longer day length for flowering. Examples include watermelon, cucumber, and muskmelon. Quick Tip: Zaid cropping season falls between Rabi and Kharif, mainly during April to June—think of summer fruits and vegetables.


Question 32:

The slash and burn agriculture (shifting cultivation) practised in Indonesia and Malaysia is referred to as

  • (1) Jhumming
  • (2) Ladang
  • (3) Milpa
  • (4) Nadis
Correct Answer: (2) Ladang
View Solution

In Southeast Asian countries like Indonesia and Malaysia, slash and burn agriculture is called "Ladang." This is a type of shifting cultivation where forests are cleared and burned for temporary agriculture before moving to a new area. Quick Tip: Different regions have local names for shifting cultivation—"Ladang" is specific to Indonesia and Malaysia.


Question 33:

In context of food security, the factors responsible for food crisis and increase in prices of food grains are:

A. Global population boom

B. Climate change

C. Increased farming of biofuels and non-edible items

D. Sustainable agricultural practices

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) B, C and D only
  • (4) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (1) A, B and C only
View Solution

The major contributors to food crisis include a rising global population, climate change impacts on agriculture, and diversion of agricultural land to produce biofuels. Sustainable agricultural practices, however, help in alleviating food crises rather than contributing to it. Quick Tip: Watch out for options that include helpful factors like “sustainable practices”—these aren’t causes of crisis!


Question 34:

Following is NOT a characteristic of ‘Resource’ in Environmental Economics:

  • (1) Utility
  • (2) Limited availability
  • (3) Consumption
  • (4) Unlimited abundance
Correct Answer: (4) Unlimited abundance
View Solution

In Environmental Economics, resources are typically defined by their utility, limited availability, and the fact that they are consumed. A resource being "unlimited in abundance" contradicts the fundamental principle of scarcity, which underpins the concept of resources. Quick Tip: Resources are valuable because they are useful and limited. “Unlimited abundance” disqualifies something from being considered a scarce resource.


Question 35:

The natural reservoir of phosphorus in soils/sediments is:

  • (1) Ocean
  • (2) Air
  • (3) Rocks
  • (4) Plants
Correct Answer: (3) Rocks
View Solution

Phosphorus is not found in the atmosphere but is stored in the form of phosphates in rocks. Through weathering, these phosphates enter the soil and water systems, making rocks the main natural reservoir of phosphorus in ecosystems. Quick Tip: Unlike nitrogen or carbon, phosphorus does not cycle through the air—it’s stored in rocks and moves through the lithosphere.


Question 36:

‘Shifting to electrical vehicles will reduce emissions of greenhouse gases.’ This statement is an example of:

  • (1) Negative Production Externality
  • (2) Positive Production Externality
  • (3) Negative Consumption Externality
  • (4) Positive Consumption Externality
Correct Answer: (2) Positive Production Externality
View Solution

The shift to electric vehicles is an example of a positive production externality because it involves a production decision (using cleaner technology) that has beneficial side effects, such as reduced greenhouse gas emissions, which benefit society without being directly reflected in market prices. Quick Tip: Production externalities arise from producers’ actions—positive ones create benefits, like reduced pollution from electric vehicles.


Question 37:

The world’s stock of natural resources which creates long supply of goods and services is referred to as:

  • (1) Human capital
  • (2) Social capital
  • (3) Natural capital
  • (4) Manufacturing capital
Correct Answer: (3) Natural capital
View Solution

Natural capital refers to the world’s natural assets—such as soil, air, water, and living organisms—that provide ecosystem services essential for human survival and economic activity. It forms the foundation for sustainable development and long-term wealth generation. Quick Tip: Think of “natural capital” as nature’s bank account—resources we draw from to keep life and the economy running.


Question 38:

The systematic approach to estimate the strength and weakness of activities or functional requirement considering both direct and indirect values is known as:

  • (1) Cost Benefit Analysis
  • (2) Risk Benefit Analysis
  • (3) Integrated Benefit Analysis
  • (4) Relative Cost Assessment
Correct Answer: (1) Cost Benefit Analysis
View Solution

Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA) is a systematic method used to evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives. It considers both direct and indirect costs and benefits to determine the best approach or option based on economic efficiency. Quick Tip: CBA = Weighing total expected benefits vs. costs to decide whether it’s worth proceeding with a project or policy.


Question 39:

Most of the weather-related phenomena on Earth's surface takes place in:

  • (1) Troposphere
  • (2) Stratosphere
  • (3) Mesosphere
  • (4) Thermosphere
Correct Answer: (1) Troposphere
View Solution

The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere where most weather phenomena like clouds, rain, storms, and wind occur. It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere’s mass and most of its water vapor. Quick Tip: Remember: Weather lives in the troposphere—the bottommost layer, closest to Earth's surface.


Question 40:

Match List I with List II

LIST I                                                 LIST II
Convention                           Protocol Objective

A. The Bamako         I. To control international exportation of toxic waste
B. The Basel             II. Reducing production and usage of ozone depletion substances
C. Kyoto                    III. Ban on import of hazardous waste into Africa
D. Montreal               IV. Reduction in Green-house gases emissions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

- The Bamako Convention (A) specifically targets hazardous waste imports into Africa — hence (III).

- The Basel Convention (B) controls the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes — aligns with (I).

- The Kyoto Protocol (C) aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions — corresponds to (IV).

- The Montreal Protocol (D) focuses on phasing out ozone-depleting substances — best matches (II). Quick Tip: Match international protocols with their exact environmental focus: Montreal → Ozone, Kyoto → GHGs, Basel → Hazardous Waste, Bamako → Africa-specific waste ban.


Question 41:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

The author seems to be surprised often comparing certain species of which of the following two regions?

  • (1) India and Britain
  • (2) Brazil and India
  • (3) Britain and Brazil
  • (4) Brazil and Canada
Correct Answer: (3) Britain and Brazil
View Solution

The passage clearly states that the author was surprised by the similarity of freshwater species between Brazil and Britain, despite the distance, and also noted how different the surrounding terrestrial species were. Hence, the correct regions of comparison are Britain and Brazil. Quick Tip: Always trace the specific comparison mentioned in the passage—in this case, freshwater species between Brazil and Britain.


Question 42:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following conclusions has the author drawn?

  • (1) There is less variation in biodiversity of fresh-water species
  • (2) Biodiversity of fresh-water species is greater than that of marine species
  • (3) Biodiversity is greater in lakes as compared to river systems
  • (4) There is a wide variation in biodiversity of fresh water species
Correct Answer: (4) There is a wide variation in biodiversity of fresh water species
View Solution

The author notes that freshwater species have an “enormous range” and that allied species are found globally, which supports the conclusion of a wide variation in biodiversity among freshwater species. Quick Tip: Focus on descriptive terms like “enormous range” and “remarkable manner throughout the world” to infer conclusions.


Question 43:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following species, the author most likely studied as per the given passage?

  • (1) Insects
  • (2) Blue whale
  • (3) Star fish
  • (4) Wrasses
Correct Answer: (1) Insects
View Solution

The passage mentions that the author studied freshwater environments in Brazil and found similarities in freshwater “insects, shells, etc.” Therefore, insects are explicitly referred to as the species under study. Quick Tip: Stick to what the passage explicitly says—insects are clearly mentioned as part of the author’s observation.


Question 44:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following has been cited in the passage as a possible reason to support the hypothesis of narrow range of fresh water species biodiversity?

  • (1) Over hunting
  • (2) Sexual incompatibility
  • (3) Water pollution
  • (4) Sea barrier
Correct Answer: (4) Sea barrier
View Solution

The passage suggests that the sea is considered an "apparently still more impassable barrier," which might have supported the idea of limited distribution of freshwater species. This implies that the sea barrier was considered a constraint on their range. Quick Tip: In comprehension, look for hypotheses or beliefs directly mentioned—here, the “sea” was thought to limit species spread.


Question 45:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following captures the essence of the given passage most appropriately?

  • (1) Water pollution
  • (2) Biodiversity
  • (3) Fisheries
  • (4) Aqua-culture
Correct Answer: (2) Biodiversity
View Solution

The passage is centered on the unexpected widespread similarity and diversity of freshwater species across geographical barriers, highlighting the concept of biodiversity. It is not focused on pollution, fisheries, or aquaculture. Quick Tip: Always ask: “What is this passage mainly about?” In this case, biodiversity is the clear recurring theme.


Question 46:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Present day problem of climate change is NOT primarily due to:

  • (1) Increase in biomass burning
  • (2) Increase in fossil fuel combustion
  • (3) Increase in volcanic activities
  • (4) Increase in greenhouse gas emissions
Correct Answer: (3) Increase in volcanic activities
View Solution

While volcanic activity can influence climate temporarily, it is not a primary driver of current climate change. The major contributors are human activities, including fossil fuel combustion, biomass burning, and greenhouse gas emissions. Quick Tip: Climate change today is driven by human activities—not natural phenomena like volcanoes.


Question 47:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Climate change related impacts could lead to:

  • (1) Better life standard in developing countries
  • (2) Sustained economic development
  • (3) Displacement of a large people
  • (4) Decrease in the spread of diseases
Correct Answer: (3) Displacement of a large people
View Solution

The passage mentions rising sea levels, extreme weather, and disease spread—all factors that contribute to large-scale displacement. Hence, displacement is a key climate-related impact. Quick Tip: Link rising sea levels and weather extremes with population displacement—an often overlooked climate consequence.


Question 48:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Which of the following gases contribute maximally to global warming?

  • (1) N\textsubscript{2}O
  • (2) CFCs
  • (3) CO\textsubscript{2}
  • (4) O\textsubscript{3}
Correct Answer: (3) CO\textsubscript{2}
View Solution

Carbon dioxide (CO\textsubscript{2) is the most significant greenhouse gas contributing to global warming due to its high concentration from human activities such as fossil fuel combustion. Although others like N\textsubscript{2O and CFCs are potent, CO\textsubscript{2 has the largest overall impact. Quick Tip: When asked about "maximum" contribution to global warming, go with CO\textsubscript{2}—the most abundant and impactful GHG.


Question 49:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Which of the following gas is NOT responsible for anthropogenic global warming?

  • (1) CO\textsubscript{2}
  • (2) CH\textsubscript{4}
  • (3) NO\textsubscript{2}
  • (4) N\textsubscript{2}O
Correct Answer: (3) NO\textsubscript{2}
View Solution

NO\textsubscript{2 (Nitrogen dioxide) is primarily a pollutant related to smog and acid rain but is not a major contributor to anthropogenic global warming. The other gases listed—CO\textsubscript{2, CH\textsubscript{4, and N\textsubscript{2O—are well-known greenhouse gases linked to human activity. Quick Tip: Know your GHGs! NO\textsubscript{2} is more associated with pollution than direct greenhouse warming.


Question 50:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Climate change does NOT lead to:

  • (1) Salt water intrusion in coastal aquifer
  • (2) Geopolitical dispute
  • (3) Spread of vector-borne diseases
  • (4) Increase in solar activity of sun
Correct Answer: (4) Increase in solar activity of sun
View Solution

Climate change is driven by factors such as greenhouse gas emissions and leads to effects like sea-level rise, water salinity, disease spread, and even political tensions over resources. However, it does not influence solar activity—this is a natural phenomenon unrelated to climate change. Quick Tip: Differentiate between causes and effects: climate change affects Earth’s systems, not external forces like solar activity.


Question 51:

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Exception Handling can be done for only user-defined exceptions but not for built-in exceptions.

B. In python exception handling, else clause is optional.

C. Try statement in python must have a finally clause.

D. Statements in finally clause are always executed regardless of whether an exception has occurred in try block or not.

E. Except block will be executed only if some exception is raised in try block.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and D only
  • (2) D and E only
  • (3) C, D and E only
  • (4) B, D and E only
Correct Answer: (4) B, D and E only
View Solution

- Statement A is incorrect because Python handles both built-in and user-defined exceptions.

- Statement B is correct: the `else` clause is optional.

- Statement C is incorrect: a `finally` clause is optional.

- Statement D is correct: the `finally` block always executes.

- Statement E is correct: the `except` block only runs if an exception occurs. Quick Tip: Remember: try-except-finally is flexible—`finally` is optional, but if present, it always executes.


Question 52:

____ is raised when the index in a sequence is out of range.

  • (1) ImportError
  • (2) IndexError
  • (3) TypeError
  • (4) EOFError
Correct Answer: (2) IndexError
View Solution

`IndexError` is raised in Python when you try to access an index that is outside the bounds of a list, tuple, or string. The other options relate to different kinds of errors (e.g., import issues, type mismatches, or unexpected end-of-file). Quick Tip: Accessing a non-existent element in a sequence? Think `IndexError`!


Question 53:

seek(1) method in files used for:

  • (1) Sets the file's current position at the offset
  • (2) Sets the file's previous position at the offset
  • (3) Sets the file's current position within the file
  • (4) Tells you the file is opened or not
Correct Answer: (1) Sets the file's current position at the offset
View Solution

The `seek(offset)` method in Python sets the file’s current position at the specified offset. It is commonly used to navigate to a specific byte within a file for reading or writing. Quick Tip: `seek()` = reposition the file pointer. `seek(1)` means go to position 1 in the file.


Question 54:

Which of the following statements are true with respect to append \textless a\textgreater\ mode?

A. The user can read the file in \textless a\textgreater\ mode.

B. If the file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode and the file doesn’t exist, then it will create a new file.

C. The user can write at the end of existing file when file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode.

D. \textless a\textgreater\ mode is the default mode.

E. If the file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode, the file offset position returned in the End of the file.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) A, B, C and E only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) B, C and E only
Correct Answer: (4) B, C and E only
View Solution

- A is incorrect: `` mode is for writing; to read, `` is needed.

- B is correct: `
` will create the file if it doesn’t exist.

- C is correct: it writes only at the end.

- D is incorrect: `'r'` is the default mode.

- E is correct: in append mode, writes occur at the file’s end. Quick Tip: Append (`a`) mode = always writes at the end. Read not allowed unless using `a+`.


Question 55:

Database schema is the ____ of a database.

  • (1) Application
  • (2) Design
  • (3) Use case
  • (4) Testing
Correct Answer: (2) Design
View Solution

A database schema defines the structure or design of a database, including tables, fields, relationships, constraints, and more. It represents the logical configuration of all or part of a relational database. Quick Tip: Think of a schema as a blueprint—it lays out how data is organized and how relationships work.


Question 56:

Consider the following relation:


STUDENT
RollNumber   Name   Class   DateofBirth  Address

What should be the primary key for relation STUDENT?

  • (1) Class
  • (2) RollNumber
  • (3) DateofBirth
  • (4) Address
Correct Answer: (2) RollNumber
View Solution

The primary key is a unique identifier for records in a table. "RollNumber" is unique for every student and serves as the most appropriate primary key in this case. Quick Tip: Primary keys must be unique and not null. "RollNumber" fits both criteria.


Question 57:

Consider the following statements relating to database:

A. Composite primary key is used to represent the relationship between two relations.

B. A foreign key is used to represent the relationship between two relations.

C. The tuples within a relation must be distinct.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and C are false
  • (2) A and B are false
  • (3) B and C are true
  • (4) A and C are true
Correct Answer: (3) B and C are true
View Solution

- Statement A is false: Composite primary keys uniquely identify a row within a relation, not necessarily define relationships between relations.

- Statement B is true: Foreign keys are used to establish relationships between tables.

- Statement C is true: Tuples (rows) in a relational table must be unique. Quick Tip: Composite keys identify records, foreign keys connect tables, and tuples must always be unique.


Question 58:

Give output of:

Select Round (765.3895, 2)

will return:

  • (1) 765.38
  • (2) 765.30
  • (3) 765.00
  • (4) 765.39
Correct Answer: (4) 765.39
View Solution

The SQL `ROUND()` function rounds a numeric field to the number of decimal places specified. `ROUND(765.3895, 2)` rounds the number to two decimal places. Since the third decimal digit is 9 (greater than 5), it rounds up from 765.38 to 765.39. Quick Tip: Pay close attention to the digit following the rounding precision—it determines the final value.


Question 59:

Vardan was asked by his teacher the meaning of the following command. He is not able to decide on the correct answer. Help him in selecting the correct answer.

Select * from stud where admn like '%5%5%';

  • (1) admn begins with two 5s
  • (2) admn has two 5s in it at any position
  • (3) admn ends with two 5s
  • (4) admn should have more than two 5s
Correct Answer: (2) admn has two 5s in it at any position
View Solution

The `LIKE '%5%5%'` SQL command searches for any string where two '5's appear in order, but not necessarily consecutively—they just need to appear somewhere in the value with any characters (including none) in between. Hence, it means the value contains two '5's in any position. Quick Tip: `%` in SQL represents any sequence of characters. `%5%5%` ensures at least two '5's appear somewhere.


Question 60:

Let us consider two relations HISTORY and SCIENCE as depicted in the following Tables 1 and 2 respectively:

Table 1: HISTORY

SNo  NAME   CLASS
1      MOHAN   6A
2     SANJAY   6B
3     YOGESH  7A

Table 2: SCIENCE

SNo    NAME   CLASS
1       NARESH    6B
2       SANJAY     6B
3       YOGESH    7A

What is the output of HISTORY - SCIENCE?

  • (1) SNo  NAME   CLASS
           1   MOHAN   6A
  • (2) SNo   NAME   CLASS
           1   MOHAN   6A
           2  SANJAY    6B
          3  YOGESH   7A
  • (3) SNo   NAME   CLASS
          1   NARESH   6B
          2    SANJAY   6B
          3    YOGESH  7A
  • (4) SNo   NAME   CLASS
          1    NARESH   6B
Correct Answer:

(1)

SNo   NAME   CLASS
  1   MOHAN     6A

View Solution

The set operation `HISTORY - SCIENCE` returns the tuples that are present in the HISTORY table but not in the SCIENCE table. Comparing rows, only the tuple (MOHAN, 6A) is unique to HISTORY. SANJAY and YOGESH are present in both, so they are excluded. Quick Tip: Set difference in databases means: “what’s in the first table but not in the second.” Watch for exact matches!


Question 61:

Match List I with List II

LIST I                LIST II
A. Alter             I. Change the name of the column
B. Update         II. Create a database
C. Delete          III. Update existing information in a table
D. Create         IV. Delete an existing row from table

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

- ALTER is used to modify the structure of a table, such as renaming a column → I.

- UPDATE is for changing values in existing records → III.

- DELETE removes records (rows) from a table → IV.

- CREATE initializes new objects like tables or databases → II. Quick Tip: Match SQL commands based on their function keywords: alter (structure), update (data), delete (rows), create (objects).


Question 62:

The ____ is the largest WAN that connects billions of computers, smartphones and millions of LAN from different Continents.

  • (1) Internet
  • (2) Intranet
  • (3) Subnet
  • (4) Supernet
Correct Answer: (1) Internet
View Solution

The Internet is the world's largest Wide Area Network (WAN), enabling connectivity between billions of devices and networks globally. Intranet is a private network; subnet is a smaller division of an IP network; supernetting aggregates multiple networks. Quick Tip: If the question says “largest WAN”, the answer is always the Internet—no other choice scales globally.


Question 63:

Who invented the WWW?

  • (1) Berners Lee
  • (2) Charls Lee
  • (3) Bill Gate
  • (4) Donald Smith
Correct Answer: (1) Berners Lee
View Solution

Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989 while working at CERN. He developed the first web browser and web server, enabling global communication via the internet. Quick Tip: Tim Berners-Lee = WWW inventor. Remember the initials: TBL → The Browser Legend.


Question 64:

Consider the following statements relating to network device repeater:

A. It is an analog device.

B. It regenerates the received signals.

C. It enables signals to travel longer distances over a network.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is false
  • (2) B is false
  • (3) All A, B and C are true
  • (4) A is true and B is false
Correct Answer: (1) A is false
View Solution

Repeaters are digital devices, not analog. They regenerate and amplify the digital signal to prevent loss over long distances, ensuring signal integrity in large networks. Quick Tip: Repeaters = digital regenerators, not analog amplifiers. B and C are true.


Question 65:

Which of the following is a network device?

  • (1) Laptop
  • (2) Repeater
  • (3) Monitor
  • (4) Printer
Correct Answer: (2) Repeater
View Solution

A repeater is a network device used to regenerate and amplify signals in a network, allowing data to travel longer distances without degradation. Laptops, monitors, and printers are end-user devices, not part of network infrastructure. Quick Tip: Repeaters help extend network range—classic example of a network device.



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