CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Answer Key for all shifts is made available for download here. NTA to release CUET Answer Key 2023 PDF for Environmental Studies soon on cuet.samarth.ac.in. Download CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Question Paper PDF
Candidates can download the answer key and question paper PDFs for CUET UG 2023 Environmental Studies exam using the links given below.
CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Answer Key and Question Paper with Solutions PDF
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CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Questions with Solutions
The Green Politics (Germany) is known to have the following pillars:
A. Ecological Wisdom
B. Free Trade
C. Social Justice
D. Grassroot democracy
E. Non-violence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The Green Politics in Germany focuses on ecological wisdom, non-violence, free trade, and social justice. The pillars that align with these principles are A, B, and E. Thus, the correct answer is A, B, and E. Quick Tip: In questions about political ideologies, focus on understanding the core principles associated with each ideology to identify the correct pillars.
Match List I with List II:
LIST I (Author) LIST II (Book)
A. Barry Commoner I. Turtle Island
B. Gary Snyder II. The Poverty of Power
C. Rachel Carson III. A Place on Earth
D. Wendell Berry IV. Silent Spring
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Barry Commoner is associated with the book "The Poverty of Power." Gary Snyder is known for "Turtle Island," Rachel Carson is linked to "Silent Spring," and Wendell Berry wrote "A Place on Earth." Thus, the correct matching is A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. Quick Tip: In match-the-following questions, focus on the key facts associated with the authors and their works. Remember the major works they are best known for.
A practice of reserving resources for future generations without causing harm to the nature and other components of nature is a part of:
View Solution
Sustainable development focuses on reserving resources for future generations while ensuring that we do not harm the environment and its natural components. This aligns with the concept of sustainable development. Quick Tip: Sustainable development aims to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
The National award in the name of Amrita Devi Bishnoi is given in the field of:
View Solution
The Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award is given in recognition of efforts towards wildlife conservation, named after Amrita Devi who sacrificed her life to protect trees and wildlife in her region. Quick Tip: This award honors individuals or organizations working in the field of wildlife conservation to protect endangered species and their habitats.
Greenpeace Organisation was founded in the year ___ and in ___.
View Solution
Greenpeace Organization was founded in 1971 in Canada with a mission to protect the environment and promote peace. Quick Tip: Greenpeace is an international environmental organization that uses nonviolent, creative confrontation to expose global environmental issues.
Organism which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinities are known as:
View Solution
Eurihaline organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinities, unlike stenohaline species that are restricted to a narrow range of salinities. Quick Tip: Eurihaline organisms are adaptable to varying salinity conditions, allowing them to survive in diverse aquatic environments.
The statement "Populations evolve in the habitat in which they live to maximise their reproductive fitness" is representative of:
View Solution
The concept of Darwinian fitness refers to the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment, which aligns with the statement about maximizing reproductive fitness. Quick Tip: Darwinian fitness emphasizes survival and reproduction in an organism's specific environment, while Lamarckian fitness is based on the inheritance of acquired traits.
Arrange the phases of logistics population growth from starting from 1st to last:
A. Plateau phase
B. Exponential phase
C. Positive Acceleration phase
D. Lag phase
E. Negative Acceleration phase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
In the logistics population growth model, the correct sequence of phases, starting from the first to the last, is: Positive Acceleration phase (C), Lag phase (D), Plateau phase (A), Exponential phase (B), and Negative Acceleration phase (E). Quick Tip: The correct order of logistics population growth phases follows the natural progression of growth and stabilization. Always consider the sequence from low growth to stabilization.
Match List I with List II:
LIST I (Organisms) LIST II (Interaction)
A. Fig tree and wasp I. Commensalism
B. Orchid and mango II. Parasitism
C. Cuscuta and hedge III. Mutualism
D. Cow and grass IV. Predation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
In this matching question, the interaction types for the organisms are as follows:
- Fig tree and wasp exhibit Mutualism (A-III), as both benefit from the relationship.
- Orchid and mango exhibit Commensalism (B-I), where one benefits while the other is not harmed.
- Cuscuta and hedge are an example of Parasitism (C-II), where the parasitic plant benefits at the expense of the host.
- Cow and grass exhibit Predation (D-IV), where one is consumed by the other. Quick Tip: In matching questions, focus on understanding the nature of each relationship between organisms.
Arrange the following biomes in increasing order of mean annual precipitation.
A. Tropical forest
B. Grassland
C. Desert
D. Temperate forest
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
In terms of increasing precipitation:
- Desert (C) has the least precipitation, followed by
- Grassland (B),
- Temperate forest (D),
- Tropical forest (A) receives the most precipitation. Quick Tip: Biomes with less precipitation (such as deserts) typically support more arid vegetation, while biomes with more precipitation (such as tropical forests) support dense vegetation.
Which of the following is not a part of 'In situ' Biodiversity conservation?
View Solution
‘In situ’ conservation refers to the conservation of ecosystems and natural habitats, and the maintenance and recovery of viable populations of species in their natural surroundings. Examples include biosphere reserves, national parks, and reserve forests.
Botanical gardens, however, are an example of ‘ex situ’ conservation where species are conserved outside their natural habitats in controlled environments. Quick Tip: Remember: ‘In situ’ = in the natural habitat (e.g., reserves, national parks); ‘Ex situ’ = outside the natural habitat (e.g., zoos, botanical gardens).
Arrange the following in increasing order on the basis of total amount of energy consumed at each trophic level per unit area per unit time:
A. Producer
B. Primary consumer
C. Secondary consumer
D. Tertiary consumer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
As we move up the trophic levels in a food chain, the amount of energy available decreases due to loss of energy as heat during metabolic processes. Thus, the amount of energy consumed at each level is highest at the producer level and lowest at the tertiary consumer level. Therefore, the increasing order based on total energy consumption is:
Tertiary consumer \(<\) Secondary consumer \(<\) Primary consumer \(<\) Producer Quick Tip: Energy flow in an ecosystem follows the 10% law: only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. Hence, energy decreases as we move up.
Which of the following gas is an indoor air pollutant?
View Solution
Radon is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that can accumulate in indoor environments, especially in basements and poorly ventilated buildings. It seeps from soil and rock into the air and is a known carcinogen.
Nitrogen dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and carbon dioxide are also air pollutants but are primarily associated with outdoor pollution from vehicles and industrial emissions rather than being characteristic indoor pollutants. Quick Tip: Radon is an important indoor air pollutant to remember, especially due to its radioactive nature and health hazards like lung cancer.
The acceptable range of pH in drinking water as per Bureau of Indian Standards is:
View Solution
As per the Bureau of Indian Standards (IS 10500:2012), the acceptable pH range for drinking water is 6.5 to 8.5. pH levels outside this range may cause corrosion or scaling and can impact human health if consumed over long periods. Quick Tip: Remember: Ideal drinking water pH is slightly alkaline to neutral, typically between 6.5 and 8.5 according to Indian standards.
Which of the following are responsible for eutrophication in water bodies?
View Solution
Eutrophication is primarily caused by an excess of nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorous, in water bodies. These nutrients promote excessive growth of algae and aquatic plants, leading to depletion of oxygen and harm to aquatic life. Quick Tip: To remember eutrophication causes: think of fertilizers — they are rich in nitrogen and phosphorous, the main contributors to nutrient pollution in water.
Match List I with List II
List I List II
Environmental accidents Year
A. Chernobyl nuclear disaster I. 1948
B. Bhopal Gas Tragedy II. 1952
C. Donora air pollution III. 1984
D. The great smog of London IV. 1986
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in 1986 (IV)
- Bhopal Gas Tragedy happened in 1984 (III)
- Donora air pollution event took place in 1948 (I)
- The Great Smog of London occurred in 1952 (II)
Hence, the correct matching is:
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Quick Tip: Link major environmental disasters with their years to remember easily: Chernobyl (1986), Bhopal (1984), Donora (1948), and London Smog (1952).
Particle size of the medium 'Sand' lies between:
View Solution
According to the USDA (United States Department of Agriculture) soil classification, the particle size for medium sand ranges from 0.25 mm to 0.50 mm. This size is coarser than fine sand (0.05 - 0.25 mm) and finer than coarse sand (0.50 - 1.00 mm). Hence, 0.50 - 0.25 mm falls within the correct range for medium sand. Quick Tip: Sand particle sizes vary: fine (0.05–0.25 mm), medium (0.25–0.50 mm), and coarse (0.50–1.00 mm).
Arrange the biotic and abiotic components of aquatic food chain on the basis of biomagnification of DDT.
A. Fish eating birds
B. Water
C. Large fish
D. Zooplankton
E. Small fish
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Biomagnification refers to the increasing concentration of a toxic substance like DDT as it moves up the food chain. In an aquatic ecosystem:
- DDT first enters the water (B),
- is absorbed by zooplankton (D),
- then eaten by small fish (E),
- which are consumed by large fish (C),
- and finally eaten by fish-eating birds (A).
At each level, the concentration of DDT increases. Quick Tip: Biomagnification always increases from lower to higher trophic levels — from water to top predators like fish-eating birds.
Which of the following measurement is equivalent to 100 ppb?
View Solution
100 ppb (parts per billion) is equal to 0.1 ppm (parts per million), since: \[ 1 \, ppm = 1000 \, ppb \quad \Rightarrow \quad 100 \, ppb = \frac{100}{1000} = 0.1 \, ppm \]
Hence, 100 ppb = 0.1 ppm. Quick Tip: To convert ppb to ppm, divide by 1000. Always remember: 1 ppm = 1000 ppb.
Legume crops enrich the soil fertility by:
View Solution
Legume crops (such as beans, lentils, and peas) have symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria (like Rhizobium) in their root nodules. These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants, thereby enhancing soil nitrogen content and fertility. Quick Tip: Legumes = nitrogen fixers. Think “Rhizobium in root nodules” to remember this soil-enriching mechanism.
High concentration of Nitrate in drinking water can cause.
A.Minamata disease
B.Blue baby syndrome disease
C.Itai-Itai disease
D.Methaemoglobinaemia disease
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
High nitrate concentration in drinking water is associated with diseases like Methaemoglobinemia disease and Blue baby syndrome, due to its harmful effects on oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Minamata disease is caused by mercury poisoning, not nitrate. Quick Tip: Remember that nitrate contamination affects blood oxygen levels, causing conditions like blue baby syndrome and methaemoglobinemia.
Which one of the following theory talks of labour flow from low wage areas to high wage area due to geographic labour demand and supply?
View Solution
The New Economics of Labour Migration Theory explains that labour moves from low-wage areas to high-wage areas as a response to economic demand and supply, aiming to maximize the household’s utility by improving economic conditions. Quick Tip: This theory focuses on economic factors like wages and household decisions in migration. Always remember it’s about household economic strategies.
Which of the following is not a push factor for human migration?
View Solution
Push factors for migration include conditions like lack of jobs, civil war, and natural calamities, which drive people to leave their home countries. Political stability, on the other hand, is generally considered a pull factor, as people are attracted to stable environments. Quick Tip: Push factors push people away from their current location, while pull factors attract them to new locations.
The acronym "OECD" stands for:
View Solution
OECD stands for the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development, which promotes policies that improve the economic and social well-being of people around the world. Quick Tip: Remember that OECD is focused on economic cooperation and development. The other options are not related to the acronym.
Secondary treatment of sewage water:
A.Removes solid particles and debris
B.Removes dissolved and suspended biological matter
C.Involves conventional sedimentation and filtration
D.Reduces the bio-chemical oxygen demand of water
E.Increases the bio-chemical oxygen demand of water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Secondary treatment of sewage water primarily removes dissolved and suspended biological matter through processes like biological treatment, which helps reduce the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of the water. It does not increase BOD, which would be counterproductive to water quality. Quick Tip: Secondary treatment focuses on reducing BOD and cleaning biological matter, which is essential for safe water disposal.
Which one of the following is Non-thermal technology for 'waste to energy' conversion?
View Solution
Mechanical biological treatment (MBT) is a non-thermal technology used for waste to energy conversion. It involves mechanical sorting and biological treatment processes to break down organic materials, which can then be used for energy production. The other options involve thermal methods. Quick Tip: Non-thermal technologies focus on mechanical or biological processes, while thermal technologies use heat for energy conversion.
Sarvodaya movement was intended to promote self-sufficiency amongst India’s rural population by:
A. Encouraging land distribution
B. Centralized governance
C. Socio-economic reform
D. Promoting large industries
E. Promoting cottage industries
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The Sarvodaya movement, led by leaders like Gandhi, focused on promoting self-sufficiency in rural India. This was achieved by encouraging land distribution (A), advocating for decentralized governance (B), and promoting cottage industries (E). The movement did not focus on promoting large industries or socio-economic reforms. Quick Tip: Sarvodaya = self-sufficiency, land reform, and cottage industries. Focus on these key elements for understanding the movement.
Report of World Commission of Environment and Development (WCED) is known as:
View Solution
The World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED) report, published in 1987, is famously known as the Brundtland Report. It introduced the concept of "sustainable development" and is a key document in the environmental movement. Quick Tip: The Brundtland Report is foundational for understanding sustainable development. Always associate WCED with Brundtland.
A rainwater harvesting practice to collect water flowing from glaciers in Laddakh is called as:
View Solution
In Laddakh, a traditional rainwater harvesting practice involves collecting water flowing from glaciers, and this system is called "Khadins." These are an essential part of water conservation in the region. Quick Tip: Remember that Khadins are specific to Laddakh, and they are key to water conservation in the region.
Which of the following is not a basic element of the green revolution?
View Solution
The green revolution primarily focused on increasing crop yields through the use of high-yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds, expansion of existing farmland, and double cropping. The use of native varieties of crops was not a central element of this revolution. Quick Tip: The green revolution is about enhancing productivity through modern agricultural techniques like HYV seeds, not by using native crop varieties.
The cropping season of Zaid crop is:
View Solution
Zaid crops are grown in the short season between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, typically from April to June. These crops require warm dry weather for growth and longer day length for flowering. Examples include watermelon, cucumber, and muskmelon. Quick Tip: Zaid cropping season falls between Rabi and Kharif, mainly during April to June—think of summer fruits and vegetables.
The slash and burn agriculture (shifting cultivation) practised in Indonesia and Malaysia is referred to as
View Solution
In Southeast Asian countries like Indonesia and Malaysia, slash and burn agriculture is called "Ladang." This is a type of shifting cultivation where forests are cleared and burned for temporary agriculture before moving to a new area. Quick Tip: Different regions have local names for shifting cultivation—"Ladang" is specific to Indonesia and Malaysia.
In context of food security, the factors responsible for food crisis and increase in prices of food grains are:
A. Global population boom
B. Climate change
C. Increased farming of biofuels and non-edible items
D. Sustainable agricultural practices
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The major contributors to food crisis include a rising global population, climate change impacts on agriculture, and diversion of agricultural land to produce biofuels. Sustainable agricultural practices, however, help in alleviating food crises rather than contributing to it. Quick Tip: Watch out for options that include helpful factors like “sustainable practices”—these aren’t causes of crisis!
Following is NOT a characteristic of ‘Resource’ in Environmental Economics:
View Solution
In Environmental Economics, resources are typically defined by their utility, limited availability, and the fact that they are consumed. A resource being "unlimited in abundance" contradicts the fundamental principle of scarcity, which underpins the concept of resources. Quick Tip: Resources are valuable because they are useful and limited. “Unlimited abundance” disqualifies something from being considered a scarce resource.
The natural reservoir of phosphorus in soils/sediments is:
View Solution
Phosphorus is not found in the atmosphere but is stored in the form of phosphates in rocks. Through weathering, these phosphates enter the soil and water systems, making rocks the main natural reservoir of phosphorus in ecosystems. Quick Tip: Unlike nitrogen or carbon, phosphorus does not cycle through the air—it’s stored in rocks and moves through the lithosphere.
‘Shifting to electrical vehicles will reduce emissions of greenhouse gases.’ This statement is an example of:
View Solution
The shift to electric vehicles is an example of a positive production externality because it involves a production decision (using cleaner technology) that has beneficial side effects, such as reduced greenhouse gas emissions, which benefit society without being directly reflected in market prices. Quick Tip: Production externalities arise from producers’ actions—positive ones create benefits, like reduced pollution from electric vehicles.
The world’s stock of natural resources which creates long supply of goods and services is referred to as:
View Solution
Natural capital refers to the world’s natural assets—such as soil, air, water, and living organisms—that provide ecosystem services essential for human survival and economic activity. It forms the foundation for sustainable development and long-term wealth generation. Quick Tip: Think of “natural capital” as nature’s bank account—resources we draw from to keep life and the economy running.
The systematic approach to estimate the strength and weakness of activities or functional requirement considering both direct and indirect values is known as:
View Solution
Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA) is a systematic method used to evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives. It considers both direct and indirect costs and benefits to determine the best approach or option based on economic efficiency. Quick Tip: CBA = Weighing total expected benefits vs. costs to decide whether it’s worth proceeding with a project or policy.
Most of the weather-related phenomena on Earth's surface takes place in:
View Solution
The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere where most weather phenomena like clouds, rain, storms, and wind occur. It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere’s mass and most of its water vapor. Quick Tip: Remember: Weather lives in the troposphere—the bottommost layer, closest to Earth's surface.
Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
Convention Protocol Objective
A. The Bamako I. To control international exportation of toxic waste
B. The Basel II. Reducing production and usage of ozone depletion substances
C. Kyoto III. Ban on import of hazardous waste into Africa
D. Montreal IV. Reduction in Green-house gases emissions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- The Bamako Convention (A) specifically targets hazardous waste imports into Africa — hence (III).
- The Basel Convention (B) controls the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes — aligns with (I).
- The Kyoto Protocol (C) aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions — corresponds to (IV).
- The Montreal Protocol (D) focuses on phasing out ozone-depleting substances — best matches (II). Quick Tip: Match international protocols with their exact environmental focus: Montreal → Ozone, Kyoto → GHGs, Basel → Hazardous Waste, Bamako → Africa-specific waste ban.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.
The author seems to be surprised often comparing certain species of which of the following two regions?
View Solution
The passage clearly states that the author was surprised by the similarity of freshwater species between Brazil and Britain, despite the distance, and also noted how different the surrounding terrestrial species were. Hence, the correct regions of comparison are Britain and Brazil. Quick Tip: Always trace the specific comparison mentioned in the passage—in this case, freshwater species between Brazil and Britain.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.
Which of the following conclusions has the author drawn?
View Solution
The author notes that freshwater species have an “enormous range” and that allied species are found globally, which supports the conclusion of a wide variation in biodiversity among freshwater species. Quick Tip: Focus on descriptive terms like “enormous range” and “remarkable manner throughout the world” to infer conclusions.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.
Which of the following species, the author most likely studied as per the given passage?
View Solution
The passage mentions that the author studied freshwater environments in Brazil and found similarities in freshwater “insects, shells, etc.” Therefore, insects are explicitly referred to as the species under study. Quick Tip: Stick to what the passage explicitly says—insects are clearly mentioned as part of the author’s observation.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.
Which of the following has been cited in the passage as a possible reason to support the hypothesis of narrow range of fresh water species biodiversity?
View Solution
The passage suggests that the sea is considered an "apparently still more impassable barrier," which might have supported the idea of limited distribution of freshwater species. This implies that the sea barrier was considered a constraint on their range. Quick Tip: In comprehension, look for hypotheses or beliefs directly mentioned—here, the “sea” was thought to limit species spread.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.
Which of the following captures the essence of the given passage most appropriately?
View Solution
The passage is centered on the unexpected widespread similarity and diversity of freshwater species across geographical barriers, highlighting the concept of biodiversity. It is not focused on pollution, fisheries, or aquaculture. Quick Tip: Always ask: “What is this passage mainly about?” In this case, biodiversity is the clear recurring theme.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.
Present day problem of climate change is NOT primarily due to:
View Solution
While volcanic activity can influence climate temporarily, it is not a primary driver of current climate change. The major contributors are human activities, including fossil fuel combustion, biomass burning, and greenhouse gas emissions. Quick Tip: Climate change today is driven by human activities—not natural phenomena like volcanoes.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.
Climate change related impacts could lead to:
View Solution
The passage mentions rising sea levels, extreme weather, and disease spread—all factors that contribute to large-scale displacement. Hence, displacement is a key climate-related impact. Quick Tip: Link rising sea levels and weather extremes with population displacement—an often overlooked climate consequence.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.
Which of the following gases contribute maximally to global warming?
View Solution
Carbon dioxide (CO\textsubscript{2) is the most significant greenhouse gas contributing to global warming due to its high concentration from human activities such as fossil fuel combustion. Although others like N\textsubscript{2O and CFCs are potent, CO\textsubscript{2 has the largest overall impact. Quick Tip: When asked about "maximum" contribution to global warming, go with CO\textsubscript{2}—the most abundant and impactful GHG.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.
Which of the following gas is NOT responsible for anthropogenic global warming?
View Solution
NO\textsubscript{2 (Nitrogen dioxide) is primarily a pollutant related to smog and acid rain but is not a major contributor to anthropogenic global warming. The other gases listed—CO\textsubscript{2, CH\textsubscript{4, and N\textsubscript{2O—are well-known greenhouse gases linked to human activity. Quick Tip: Know your GHGs! NO\textsubscript{2} is more associated with pollution than direct greenhouse warming.
Read the following passage and answer the question:
The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.
Climate change does NOT lead to:
View Solution
Climate change is driven by factors such as greenhouse gas emissions and leads to effects like sea-level rise, water salinity, disease spread, and even political tensions over resources. However, it does not influence solar activity—this is a natural phenomenon unrelated to climate change. Quick Tip: Differentiate between causes and effects: climate change affects Earth’s systems, not external forces like solar activity.
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Exception Handling can be done for only user-defined exceptions but not for built-in exceptions.
B. In python exception handling, else clause is optional.
C. Try statement in python must have a finally clause.
D. Statements in finally clause are always executed regardless of whether an exception has occurred in try block or not.
E. Except block will be executed only if some exception is raised in try block.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- Statement A is incorrect because Python handles both built-in and user-defined exceptions.
- Statement B is correct: the `else` clause is optional.
- Statement C is incorrect: a `finally` clause is optional.
- Statement D is correct: the `finally` block always executes.
- Statement E is correct: the `except` block only runs if an exception occurs. Quick Tip: Remember: try-except-finally is flexible—`finally` is optional, but if present, it always executes.
____ is raised when the index in a sequence is out of range.
View Solution
`IndexError` is raised in Python when you try to access an index that is outside the bounds of a list, tuple, or string. The other options relate to different kinds of errors (e.g., import issues, type mismatches, or unexpected end-of-file). Quick Tip: Accessing a non-existent element in a sequence? Think `IndexError`!
seek(1) method in files used for:
View Solution
The `seek(offset)` method in Python sets the file’s current position at the specified offset. It is commonly used to navigate to a specific byte within a file for reading or writing. Quick Tip: `seek()` = reposition the file pointer. `seek(1)` means go to position 1 in the file.
Which of the following statements are true with respect to append \textless a\textgreater\ mode?
A. The user can read the file in \textless a\textgreater\ mode.
B. If the file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode and the file doesn’t exist, then it will create a new file.
C. The user can write at the end of existing file when file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode.
D. \textless a\textgreater\ mode is the default mode.
E. If the file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode, the file offset position returned in the End of the file.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- A is incorrect: `` mode is for writing; to read, `` is needed.
- B is correct: `` will create the file if it doesn’t exist.
- C is correct: it writes only at the end.
- D is incorrect: `'r'` is the default mode.
- E is correct: in append mode, writes occur at the file’s end. Quick Tip: Append (`a`) mode = always writes at the end. Read not allowed unless using `a+`.
Database schema is the ____ of a database.
View Solution
A database schema defines the structure or design of a database, including tables, fields, relationships, constraints, and more. It represents the logical configuration of all or part of a relational database. Quick Tip: Think of a schema as a blueprint—it lays out how data is organized and how relationships work.
Consider the following relation:
STUDENT
RollNumber Name Class DateofBirth Address
What should be the primary key for relation STUDENT?
View Solution
The primary key is a unique identifier for records in a table. "RollNumber" is unique for every student and serves as the most appropriate primary key in this case. Quick Tip: Primary keys must be unique and not null. "RollNumber" fits both criteria.
Consider the following statements relating to database:
A. Composite primary key is used to represent the relationship between two relations.
B. A foreign key is used to represent the relationship between two relations.
C. The tuples within a relation must be distinct.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- Statement A is false: Composite primary keys uniquely identify a row within a relation, not necessarily define relationships between relations.
- Statement B is true: Foreign keys are used to establish relationships between tables.
- Statement C is true: Tuples (rows) in a relational table must be unique. Quick Tip: Composite keys identify records, foreign keys connect tables, and tuples must always be unique.
Give output of:
Select Round (765.3895, 2)
will return:
View Solution
The SQL `ROUND()` function rounds a numeric field to the number of decimal places specified. `ROUND(765.3895, 2)` rounds the number to two decimal places. Since the third decimal digit is 9 (greater than 5), it rounds up from 765.38 to 765.39. Quick Tip: Pay close attention to the digit following the rounding precision—it determines the final value.
Vardan was asked by his teacher the meaning of the following command. He is not able to decide on the correct answer. Help him in selecting the correct answer.
Select * from stud where admn like '%5%5%';
View Solution
The `LIKE '%5%5%'` SQL command searches for any string where two '5's appear in order, but not necessarily consecutively—they just need to appear somewhere in the value with any characters (including none) in between. Hence, it means the value contains two '5's in any position. Quick Tip: `%` in SQL represents any sequence of characters. `%5%5%` ensures at least two '5's appear somewhere.
Let us consider two relations HISTORY and SCIENCE as depicted in the following Tables 1 and 2 respectively:
Table 1: HISTORY
SNo NAME CLASS
1 MOHAN 6A
2 SANJAY 6B
3 YOGESH 7A
Table 2: SCIENCE
SNo NAME CLASS
1 NARESH 6B
2 SANJAY 6B
3 YOGESH 7A
What is the output of HISTORY - SCIENCE?
(1)
SNo NAME CLASS
1 MOHAN 6A
View Solution
The set operation `HISTORY - SCIENCE` returns the tuples that are present in the HISTORY table but not in the SCIENCE table. Comparing rows, only the tuple (MOHAN, 6A) is unique to HISTORY. SANJAY and YOGESH are present in both, so they are excluded. Quick Tip: Set difference in databases means: “what’s in the first table but not in the second.” Watch for exact matches!
Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
A. Alter I. Change the name of the column
B. Update II. Create a database
C. Delete III. Update existing information in a table
D. Create IV. Delete an existing row from table
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- ALTER is used to modify the structure of a table, such as renaming a column → I.
- UPDATE is for changing values in existing records → III.
- DELETE removes records (rows) from a table → IV.
- CREATE initializes new objects like tables or databases → II. Quick Tip: Match SQL commands based on their function keywords: alter (structure), update (data), delete (rows), create (objects).
The ____ is the largest WAN that connects billions of computers, smartphones and millions of LAN from different Continents.
View Solution
The Internet is the world's largest Wide Area Network (WAN), enabling connectivity between billions of devices and networks globally. Intranet is a private network; subnet is a smaller division of an IP network; supernetting aggregates multiple networks. Quick Tip: If the question says “largest WAN”, the answer is always the Internet—no other choice scales globally.
Who invented the WWW?
View Solution
Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989 while working at CERN. He developed the first web browser and web server, enabling global communication via the internet. Quick Tip: Tim Berners-Lee = WWW inventor. Remember the initials: TBL → The Browser Legend.
Consider the following statements relating to network device repeater:
A. It is an analog device.
B. It regenerates the received signals.
C. It enables signals to travel longer distances over a network.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Repeaters are digital devices, not analog. They regenerate and amplify the digital signal to prevent loss over long distances, ensuring signal integrity in large networks. Quick Tip: Repeaters = digital regenerators, not analog amplifiers. B and C are true.
Which of the following is a network device?
View Solution
A repeater is a network device used to regenerate and amplify signals in a network, allowing data to travel longer distances without degradation. Laptops, monitors, and printers are end-user devices, not part of network infrastructure. Quick Tip: Repeaters help extend network range—classic example of a network device.
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