NEET 2024 Question Paper Pdf - Check Solutions With Answer Key PDF (R5)

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer: 

A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (\(\mu A\)), is due to majority charge carriers.

• (1) A is incorrect but B is correct
• (2) Both A and B are correct
• (3) Both A and B are incorrect
• (4) A is correct but B is incorrect

A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point \( P \) with the angle of incidence \( 30^\circ \) as shown in the figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base \( BC \) and emerges along the face \( AC \). The refractive index of the prism is:

• (1) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \)
• (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{4} \)

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

• (1) Constant acceleration
• (2) Constant velocity but varying acceleration
• (3) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
• (4) Constant velocity

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is \( \frac{N_P}{N_S} = 1/2 \). The ratio \( V_S : V_P \) is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):

• (1) 2 : 1
• (2) 1 : 1
• (3) 1 : 4
• (4) 1 : 2

At any instant of time \( t \), the displacement of a particle is given by \( 2t - 1 \) (SI unit) under the influence of a force of \( 5N \). The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

• (1) 5
• (2) 7
• (3) 6
• (4) 10

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to the rod is \( 2400 \) g cm\(^2\). The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:

• (1) 17.5 cm
• (2) 20.7 cm
• (3) 72.0 cm
• (4) 8.5 cm

Match List I with List II. 

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of \( \omega \) rpm. The tension in the string is \( T \). If the speed becomes \( 2\omega \) while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

• (1) \( 4T \)
• (2) \( \frac{T}{4} \)
• (3) \( \sqrt{2} T \)
• (4) \( T \)

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then

• (1) The refracted light will be completely polarised.
• (2) Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
• (3) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
• (4) The reflected light will be partially polarised.

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance \( 1 \Omega \), when connected through an external resistance of \( 4 \Omega \) as shown in the figure is: 

• (1) 6 V
• (2) 8 V
• (3) 10 V
• (4) 4 V

The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a 

• (1) NOR gate
• (2) OR gate
• (3) AND gate
• (4) NAND gate

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is: 

• (1) 1 $\mu$F
• (2) 0.5 $\mu$F
• (3) 4 $\mu$F
• (4) 2 $\mu$F

In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are 

• (1) 286, 80
• (2) 288, 82
• (3) 286, 81
• (4) 280, 81

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

• (1) Stress and angle
• (2) Strain and arc
• (3) Angular speed and stress
• (4) Strain and angle

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is \( v \) in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)? 

• (1) Point P moves faster than point Q
• (2) Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
• (3) Point P has zero speed
• (4) Point P moves slower than point Q

A wire of length \( l \) and resistance \( 100 \Omega \) is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

• (1) \( 52 \Omega \)
• (2) \( 55 \Omega \)
• (3) \( 60 \Omega \)
• (4) \( 26 \Omega \)

A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If the surface tension of water is \( 0.07 \, N \, m^{-1} \), then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

• (1) \( 198 N \)
• (2) \( 1.98 \, mN \)
• (3) \( 99 N \)
• (4) \( 19.8 \, mN \)

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young’s modulus, respectively, are \( 8 \times 10^8 \, N/m^2 \) and \( 2 \times 10^{11} \, N/m^2 \), is:

• (1) \( 0.4 \, mm \)
• (2) \( 40 \, mm \)
• (3) \( 8 \, mm \)
• (4) \( 4 \, mm \)

A tightly wound 100-turn coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as \( 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \) SI units):

• (1) \( 4.4 T \)
• (2) \( 4.4 mT \)
• (3) \( 44 T \)
• (4) \( 44 mT \)

In a vernier callipers, \( (N + 1) \) divisions of vernier scale coincide with \( N \) divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{100(N+1)} \)
• (2) \( 100N \)
• (3) \( 10(N+1) \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{10N} \)

A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table:

• (1) \( A\bar{B} + \bar{A} \)
• (2) \( \bar{B} \)
• (3) \( B \)
• (4) \( A.B + \bar{A} \)

If \( c \) is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about a photon among the following are:
A. The energy of a photon is \( E = h\nu \).
B. The velocity of a photon is \( c \).
C. The momentum of a photon, \[ p = \frac{h\nu}{c} \]
D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.
E. Photon possesses positive charge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B, C, and D only
• (2) A, C, and D only
• (3) A, B, D, and E only
• (4) A and B only

A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is: (Take \( \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \) SI units) 

• (1) \( 1 \times 10^5 \)
• (2) \( 0.5 \times 10^5 \)
• (3) Zero
• (4) \( 3 \times 10^5 \)

In the given diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

• (1) BA and CD
• (2) AB and CD
• (3) BA and DC
• (4) AB and DC

The graph which shows the variation of \( \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \) and its kinetic energy, \( E \), is (where \( \lambda \) is the de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):  

In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is \( 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \) kg m\(^2\). If the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the needle is \( x \times 10^{-5} \) Am\(^2\), then the value of ‘x’ is: 

• (1) \( 128\pi^2 \)
• (2) \( 50\pi^2 \)
• (3) \( 1280\pi^2 \)
• (4) \( 5\pi^2 \)

Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

If \[ x = 5 \sin \left( \pi t + \frac{\pi}{3} \right) \] represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are:

• (1) 5 m, 2 s
• (2) 5 cm, 1 s
• (3) 5 m, 1 s
• (4) 5 cm, 2 s

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges.
Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

• (1) There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
• (2) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
• (3) All bright fringes will be of equal width
• (4) Interference pattern will disappear

A horizontal force of 10 N is applied to a block A. The masses of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is: 

• (1) 4 N
• (2) 6 N
• (3) 10 N
• (4) Zero

Two bodies A and B of the same mass undergo completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity \( v_1 \) while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is \( v_2 \). The ratio \( v_1 : v_2 \) is:

• (1) 2 : 1
• (2) 4 : 1
• (3) 1 : 4
• (4) 1 : 2

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. The work done by the gas along the path bc is: 

• (1) 30 J
• (2) –90 J
• (3) –60 J
• (4) Zero

The mass of a planet is \( \frac{1}{10} \) that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

• (1) \( 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
• (2) \( 4.9 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
• (3) \( 3.92 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
• (4) \( 19.6 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The potential (\( V \)) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (\( r \)) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector \( \vec{P} \) of magnitude, \( 4 \times 10^{-6} \) C m, is \( \pm 9 \times 10^3 \) V. (Take \( \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \) SI units)
Reason R: \[ V = \pm \frac{2P}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 r^2} \] where \( r \) is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
• (2) A is true but R is false
• (3) A is false but R is true
• (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope for viewing a distant object is:

• (1) 28
• (2) 17
• (3) 32
• (4) 34

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass \( m \) from the surface of Earth of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \) in a circular orbit at an altitude of \( 2R \) from the surface of the Earth is:

• (1) \( \frac{2}{3} \frac{GmM}{R} \)
• (2) \( \frac{2}{R} GmM \)
• (3) \( \frac{3}{R} GmM \)
• (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \frac{GmM}{R} \)

Two heaters A and B have power ratings of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. These are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

• (1) 2 : 9
• (2) 1 : 2
• (3) 2 : 3
• (4) 1 : 1

A \(10 \mu F\) capacitor is connected to a \(210 V\), \(50 Hz\) source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (\(\pi = 3.14\)): 

• (1) 0.93 A
• (2) 1.20 A
• (3) 0.35 A
• (4) 0.58 A

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance. 

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then
A. The charge stored in it, increases.
B. The energy stored in it, decreases.
C. Its capacitance increases.
D. The ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. The product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, C and E only
• (2) B, D and E only
• (3) A, B and C only
• (4) A, B and E only

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If \( I \) is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

• (1) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \( I \) flows in the same direction as \( I \)
• (2) Displacement current of magnitude equal to \( I \) flows in a direction opposite to that of \( I \)
• (3) Displacement current of magnitude greater than \( I \) flows but can be in any direction
• (4) There is no current

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:

• (1) The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field
• (2) They travel with a speed equal to \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}}\)
• (3) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
• (4) They are transverse in nature

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is \( \frac{x}{2} \) times its original time period. Then the value of \( x \) is:

• (1) \( \sqrt{2} \)
• (2) \( 2\sqrt{3} \)
• (3) 4
• (4) \( \sqrt{3} \)

A force defined by \( F = \alpha t^2 + \beta t \) acts on a particle at a given time \( t \). The factor which is dimensionless, if \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are constants, is:

• (1) \( \frac{\alpha t}{\beta} \)
• (2) \( \alpha \beta t \)
• (3) \( \frac{\alpha \beta}{t} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\beta t}{\alpha} \)

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:
[A.] hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.
[B.] hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.
[C.] move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.
[D.] move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar. Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

• (1) A and C only
• (2) A, C and D only
• (3) C only
• (4) B and D only

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus, \( 0.5 \times 10^{11} \) N m\(^{-2}\) and coefficient of linear thermal expansion \( 10^{-5} \)°C\(^{-1}\), length 1 m and area of cross-section \( 10^{-3} \) m\(^{2}\) is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

• (1) \( 50 \times 10^3 \) N
• (2) \( 100 \times 10^3 \) N
• (3) \( 2 \times 10^3 \) N
• (4) \( 5 \times 10^3 \) N

An iron bar of length \( L \) has magnetic moment \( M \). It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle 60° with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

• (1) \( \frac{M}{2} \)
• (2) \( 2M \)
• (3) \( \frac{M}{\sqrt{3}} \)
• (4) \( M \)

The following graph represents the \( T \)-\( V \) curves of an ideal gas (where \( T \) is the temperature and \( V \) the volume) at three pressures \( P_1 \), \( P_2 \), and \( P_3 \), compared with those of Charles’s law represented as dotted lines.

Then the correct relation is:

• (1) \( P_1 > P_3 > P_2 \)
• (2) \( P_2 > P_1 > P_3 \)
• (3) \( P_1 > P_2 > P_3 \)
• (4) \( P_3 > P_2 > P_1 \)

The velocity (\( v \))–time (\( t \)) plot of the motion of a body is shown below:

The acceleration (\( a \))–time (\( t \)) graph that best suits this motion is: 

 

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Li < B < Be < C < N
• (2) Li < Be < C < B < N
• (3) Li < Be < N < B < C
• (4) Li < Be < B < C < N

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

The Henry’s law constant (\( K_H \)) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, \( 2 \times 10^{-5} \), and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follows the order:

• (1) B > C > A
• (2) A > C > B
• (3) A > B > C
• (4) B > A > C

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Si < C < O < N < F
• (2) O < F < N < C < Si
• (3) F < O < N < C < Si
• (4) Si < C < N < O < F

The compound that will undergo \( S_N1 \) reaction with the fastest rate is: 

In which of the following processes entropy increases?
A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from \(130 K\) to \(0 K\).
C. \( 2NaHCO_3(s) \rightarrow Na_2CO_3(s) + CO_2(g) + H_2O(g) \)
D. \( Cl_2(g) \rightarrow 2Cl(g) \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B and D
• (2) A, C and D
• (3) C and D
• (4) A and C

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Which plot of \( \ln k \) vs \( \frac{1}{T} \) is consistent with Arrhenius equation? 

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order \[ \text{n-pentane} > \text{isopentane} > \text{neopentane} \] Statement II: When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of a sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

• (1) 250 mg
• (2) Zero mg
• (3) 200 mg
• (4) 750 mg

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent? 

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The \( E^{\circ} \) value for the Mn$^{3+$/Mn$^{2+$ couple is more positive than that of Cr$^{3+$/Cr$^{2+$ or Fe$^{3+$/Fe$^{2+$ due to change of

• (1) \( d^5 \) to \( d^2 \) configuration
• (2) \( d^4 \) to \( d^5 \) configuration
• (3) \( d^3 \) to \( d^5 \) configuration
• (4) \( d^5 \) to \( d^4 \) configuration

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

Match List I with List II. 

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show –2 oxidation state?
(1) Se
(2) Te
(3) Po
(4) O

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follows the order H$_2$O \(>\) H$_2$Te \(>\) H$_2$Se \(>\) H$_2$S. Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H$_2$O is expected to have a lower boiling point than the other members of the group, but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H$_2$O, it has a higher boiling point.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?
 A. Ti$^{3+$ \hspace{1cm B. Cr$^{2+$
C. Mn$^{2+$ \hspace{1cm D. Fe$^{2+$
E. Sc$^{3+$

• (1) A and E only
• (2) B and C only
• (3) A and D only
• (4) B and D only

The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are: 
A. Tollen’s reagent
B. Schiff’s reagent
C. HCN
D. NH$_2$OH
E. NaHSO$_3$

• (1) A and D
• (2) B and E
• (3) E and D
• (4) B and C

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Both [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+}$ and [CoF$_6$]$^{3-}$ complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behavior. Statement II: [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+}$ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF$_6$]$^{3-}$ is paramagnetic.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

The most stable carbocation among the following is: 

Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is

• (1) Alkaline copper sulphate
• (2) Alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
• (3) Aqueous sodium citrate
• (4) Aqueous copper sulphate

In which of the following equilibria, \( K_p \) and \( K_c \) are NOT equal?

• (1) \( H_2(g) + I_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2HI(g) \)
• (2) \( CO(g) + H_2O(g) \rightleftharpoons CO_2(g) + H_2(g) \)
• (3) \( 2BrCl(g) \rightleftharpoons Br_2(g) + Cl_2(g) \)
• (4) \( PCl_5(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) \)

Match List I with List II. 

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

A compound with a molecular formula of \( C_6H_{14} \) has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

• (1) 2-methylpentane
• (2) 2,3-dimethylbutane
• (3) 2,2-dimethylbutane
• (4) n-hexane

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of:

• (1) Probability of collision
• (2) Orientation of reactant molecules during collision
• (3) Rate constant at two different temperatures
• (4) Rate constant at standard temperature

On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as:

• (1) Sublimation
• (2) Distillation
• (3) Chromatography
• (4) Crystallization

The energy of an electron in the ground state (\( n = 1 \)) for He\(^+\) ion is \(-x J\), then that for an electron in \( n = 2 \) state for Be\(^3+\) ion in J is

• (1) \( -\frac{x}{9} \)
• (2) \( -4x \)
• (3) \( -\frac{4x}{9} \)
• (4) \( -x \)

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

• (1) \( 2KClO_3 + I_2 \rightarrow 2KIO_3 + Cl_2 \)
• (2) \( H_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow 2HCl \)
• (3) \( BaCl_2 + Na_2SO_4 \rightarrow BaSO_4 + 2NaCl \)
• (4) \( Zn + CuSO_4 \rightarrow ZnSO_4 + Cu \)

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation. 

• (1) (i) \( BH_3 \)
  (ii) \( H_2O_2 / OH^- \)
  (iii) \( PCC \)
• (2) (i) \( BH_3 \)
  (ii) \( H_2O_2 / OH^- \)
  (iii) \( alk.KMnO_4 \)
  (iv) \( H_3O^+ \)
• (3) (i) \( H_2O/H^+ \)
• (4) (i) \( H_2O/H^+ \)
  (ii) \( CrO_3 \)

Match List I with List II. 

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

For the reaction \[ 2A \rightleftharpoons B + C, \quad K_C = 4 \times 10^{-3} \] At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: \[ [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ M} \] Then, which of the following is correct?

• (1) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
• (2) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
• (3) Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
• (4) Reaction is at equilibrium.

The highest number of helium atoms is in

• (1) 4 u of helium
• (2) 4 g of helium
• (3) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
• (4) 4 mol of helium

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is:

• (1) Ce$^{3+}$ and Eu$^{2+}$
• (2) Gd$^{3+}$ and Eu$^{3+}$
• (3) Pm$^{3+}$ and Sm$^{3+}$
• (4) Ce$^{4+}$ and Yb$^{2+}$

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are: \[ 3ROH + PCl_5 \rightarrow 3RCl + A \] \[ ROH + PCl_5 \rightarrow RCl + HCl + B \]

• (1) POCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_4$
• (2) H$_3$PO$_4$ and POCl$_3$
• (3) H$_3$PO$_3$ and POCl$_3$
• (4) POCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_3$

Given below are two statements: Statement I: [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+$ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH$_3$)$_4$Cl$_2$]$^+$ is a heteroleptic complex. Statement II: Complex [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+$ has only one kind of ligand but [Co(NH$_3$)$_4$Cl$_2$]$^+$ has more than one kind of ligands.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence: \[ \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - I \xrightarrow{\text{NaCN}} A \] \[ \text{A} \xrightarrow{\text{Partial Hydrolysis}} B \xrightarrow{\text{NaOH, Br}_2} C \ (\text{major}) \]

• (1) Butylamine
• (2) Butanamide
• (3) $\alpha$-Bromobutanoic acid
• (4) Propylamine

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25$^\circ$C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is: (Given $R = 2.0$ cal K$^{-1$ mol$^{-1$)

• (1) -413.14 calories
• (2) 413.14 calories
• (3) 100 calories
• (4) 0 calorie

Identify the correct answer.

• (1) BF$_3$ has non-zero dipole moment
• (2) Dipole moment of NF$_3$ is greater than that of NH$_3$
• (3) Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO$_3^{2-}$ ion
• (4) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone

For the given reaction: 

During the preparation of Mohr’s salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe$^{2+}$ ion?

• (1) Concentrated sulphuric acid
• (2) Dilute nitric acid
• (3) Dilute sulphuric acid
• (4) Dilute hydrochloric acid

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI. A. Al$^{3+$ \quad B. Cu$^{2+$ \quad C. Ba$^{2+$ \quad D. Co$^{2+$ \quad E. Mg$^{2+$

• (1) B, C, A, D, E
• (2) E, C, D, B, A
• (3) E, A, B, C, D
• (4) B, A, D, C, E

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of \[ \text{N}_2 = 3.0 \times 10^{-3} M, \quad \text{O}_2 = 4.2 \times 10^{-3} M, \quad \text{NO} = 2.8 \times 10^{-3} M. \] 2NO(g) $\rightleftharpoons$ N$_2$(g) + O$_2$(g) If 0.1 mol L$^{-1}$ of NO is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation ($\alpha$) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

• (1) 0.0889
• (2) 0.8889
• (3) 0.717
• (4) 0.00889

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol$^{-1}$, 1 F = 96487 C)

• (1) 0.315 g
• (2) 31.5 g
• (3) 0.0315 g
• (4) 3.15 g

The plot of osmotic pressure (\(\Pi\)) vs concentration (mol L$^{-1$) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol$^{-1$. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use \( R = 0.083 \) L bar mol$^{-1$ K$^{-1$)

• (1) 310°C
• (2) 25.73°C
• (3) 12.05°C
• (4) 37°C

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are 

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from \(27^\circ C\) to \(57^\circ C\). Calculate the energy of activation. \[ \text{Given } R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}, \log 4 = 0.6021 \]

• (1) 380.4 kJ/mol
• (2) 3.80 kJ/mol
• (3) 3804 kJ/mol
• (4) 38.04 kJ/mol

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is: \[ \text{Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32} \]

• (1) ABC$_3$
• (2) AB$_2$C$_2$
• (3) ABC$_4$
• (4) A$_2$BC$_2$

List of endangered species was released by

• (1) WWF
• (2) FOAM
• (3) IUCN
• (4) GEAC

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and downstream end;

• (1) Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
• (2) Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
• (3) Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator
• (4) Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

• (1) Phospholipids
• (2) Glycerides
• (3) Carbohydrates
• (4) Amino acids

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
(A) Light
(B) Chlorophyll
(C) CO$_2$
(D) ATP
(E) NADPH

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Bulliform cells are responsible for

• (1) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
• (2) Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
• (3) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
• (4) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

• (1) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
• (2) Only pink flowered plants
• (3) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
• (4) Only red flowered plants

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

• (1) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
• (2) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
• (3) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
• (4) promotes apical dominance.

Identify the set of correct statements:
A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.
B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water.
C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.
D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon-like.
E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.

• (1) A, B, C and D only
• (2) A, C, D and E only
• (3) B, C, D and E only
• (4) C, D and E only

Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates. 

• (1) B
• (2) C
• (3) D
• (4) A

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

• (1) Metaphase
• (2) Anaphase
• (3) Telophase
• (4) Prophase

Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?

• (1) Cassia
• (2) Pisum
• (3) Sesbania
• (4) Datura

In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls? 

• (1) D
• (2) A
• (3) B
• (4) C

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

• (1) Redifferentiation
• (2) Dedifferentiation
• (3) Maturation
• (4) Differentiation

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
E. It shows ability to replicate.

• (1) D and E only
• (2) B and C only
• (3) A and E only
• (4) A and B only

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

• (1) 6 bp
• (2) 4 bp
• (3) 10 bp
• (4) 8 bp

The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care is called

• (1) Biodiversity conservation
• (2) Semi-conservative method
• (3) Sustainable development
• (4) in-situ conservation

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in \textit{B. thuringiensis}. However, after ingestion by the insect, the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla, and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b). 

• (1) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
• (2) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
• (3) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
• (4) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous

Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

• (1) Mode of nutrition
• (2) Mode of spore formation
• (3) Fruiting body
• (4) Morphology of mycelium

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:
A. Over exploitation
B. Co-extinction
C. Mutation
D. Habitat loss and fragmentation
E. Migration

• (1) A, B, C and D only
• (2) A, B and E only
• (3) A, B and D only
• (4) A, C and D only

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

• (1) bb
• (2) Bb
• (3) BB/Bb
• (4) BB

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

• (1) Feedback inhibition
• (2) Competitive inhibition
• (3) Enzyme activation
• (4) Cofactor inhibition

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
A. Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant and the other is recessive.
B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in \( F_2 \) generation.
C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor.
E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.

• (1) A, C, D and E only
• (2) B, C and D only
• (3) A, B, C, D and E
• (4) A, B and C only

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.
Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO2 fixed in the Calvin cycle?

• (1) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
• (2) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
• (3) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
• (4) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is: \[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{K - N}{K} \right). \] From this equation, \( K \) indicates:

• (1) Biotic potential
• (2) Carrying capacity
• (3) Population density
• (4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because
A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.
B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.
E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A and B only
• (2) A, B and E only
• (3) A, B and D only
• (4) A, C, D and E only

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of:

• (1) Acetylase
• (2) Permease
• (3) Polymerase
• (4) Beta-galactosidase

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

• (1) Niacin
• (2) Flavin
• (3) Haem
• (4) Zinc

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

• (1) Micropropagation
• (2) Differentiation
• (3) Somatic hybridization
• (4) Totipotency

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Match List I with List II

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
In the members of Phaeophyceae,
A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) B, C, D and E only
• (2) A, C, D and E only
• (3) A, B, C and E only
• (4) A, B, C and D only

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

• (1) Circular, double stranded
• (2) Linear, single stranded
• (3) Circular, single stranded
• (4) Linear, double stranded

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?

• (1) The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5’ → 3’
• (2) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ as well as 3’ → 5’ direction
• (3) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ direction
• (4) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3’ → 5’

Identify the correct description about the given figure: 

• (1) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
• (2) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
• (3) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy.
• (4) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

• (1) Somatic embryos
• (2) Protoplasts
• (3) Pollens
• (4) Callus

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In C3 plants, some O\textsubscript{2} binds to RuBisCO, hence CO\textsubscript{2} fixation is decreased. Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is \(100x\) \((\text{kcal m}^{-2} \text{yr}^{-1})\), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

• (1) \( x \) \((\text{kcal m}^{-2} \text{yr}^{-1})\)
• (2) \( 10x \) \((\text{kcal m}^{-2} \text{yr}^{-1})\)
• (3) \( \frac{100x}{3} \) \((\text{kcal m}^{-2} \text{yr}^{-1})\)
• (4) \( \frac{x}{10} \) \((\text{kcal m}^{-2} \text{yr}^{-1})\)

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

• (1) Succinic acid \(\rightarrow\) Malic acid
• (2) Succinyl-CoA \(\rightarrow\) Succinic acid
• (3) Isocitrate \(\rightarrow\) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutaric acid
• (4) Malic acid \(\rightarrow\) Oxaloacetic acid

Match List-I with List-II 

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the yield?

• (1) Gibberellin
• (2) Cytokinin
• (3) Abscisic acid
• (4) Auxin

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R: Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in females and Leydig cells in males. Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in females while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human beings. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
• (2) A is true but R is false
• (3) A is false but R is true
• (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Following are the stages of the pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of the pathway from the options given below:

• (1) A-E-C-B-D
• (2) B-D-E-C-A
• (3) E-A-D-B-C
• (4) E-C-A-D-B

Match List I with List II: 

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

• (1) Genetic drift
• (2) Gene migration
• (3) Constant gene pool
• (4) Genetic recombination

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on:

• (1) 10th segment
• (2) 8th and 9th segment
• (3) 11th segment
• (4) 5th segment

Match List I with List II: 

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

The flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are an example of:

• (1) Natural selection
• (2) Convergent evolution
• (3) Divergent evolution
• (4) Adaptive radiation

Match List I with List II: 

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Match List I with List II:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Match List I with List II: 

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Which of the following is not a component of the Fallopian tube?

• (1) Isthmus
• (2) Infundibulum
• (3) Ampulla
• (4) Uterine fundus

Following are the stages of cell division:
A. Gap 2 phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Synthesis phase
D. Karyokinesis
E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:

• (1) E-B-D-A-C
• (2) B-D-E-A-C
• (3) E-C-A-D-B
• (4) C-E-D-A-B

Match List I with List II: 

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Given below are two statements: Assertion A: Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the newborn baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
• (2) A is correct but R is not correct
• (3) A is not correct but R is correct
• (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

• (1) High pO2 and Lesser H+ concentration
• (2) Low pCO2 and High H+ concentration
• (3) Low pCO2 and High temperature
• (4) High pO2 and High pCO2

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

• (1) Periodic abstinence
• (2) Lactational amenorrhea
• (3) Vaults
• (4) Coitus interruptus

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Muscular dystrophy
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B & E only
• (2) B, C & E only
• (3) C, D & E only
• (4) A, B & D only

The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

• (1) Tumor independent plasmid
• (2) Tumor inducing plasmid
• (3) Temperature independent plasmid
• (4) Tumour inhibiting plasmid

Which one is the correct product of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to the given template? \[ \text{3'-TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA-5'} \]

• (1) 5'-AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU-3'
• (2) 5'-AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU-3'
• (3) 5'-ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT-3'
• (4) 5'-AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU-3'

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

• (1) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
• (2) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
• (3) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system
• (4) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

• (1) Testosterone
• (2) Progesterone
• (3) Glucagon
• (4) Cortisol

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence (Past to Recent). 

• (1) B-A-D-C
• (2) C-B-D-A
• (3) A-D-C-B
• (4) D-A-C-B

Three types of muscles are given as a, b, and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body: 

• (1) (a) Skeletal - Triceps, (b) Smooth - Stomach, (c) Cardiac - Heart
• (2) (a) Skeletal - Biceps, (b) Involuntary - Intestine, (c) Smooth - Heart
• (3) (a) Involuntary - Nose tip, (b) Skeletal - Bone, (c) Cardiac - Heart
• (4) (a) Smooth - Toes, (b) Skeletal - Legs, (c) Cardiac - Heart

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Match List I with List II 

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

The following diagram shows restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes: 

• (1) The gene ‘X’ controls the copy number of the linked DNA, and ‘Y’ codes for a protein involved in plasmid replication.
• (2) The gene ‘X’ codes for a protein involved in plasmid replication, and ‘Y’ provides antibiotic resistance.
• (3) Gene ‘X’ is responsible for recognition sites, and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
• (4) The gene ‘X’ provides antibiotic resistance, and ‘Y’ codes for a protein involved in plasmid replication.

Consider the following statements: 

• (1) A only
• (2) C only
• (3) D only
• (4) B only

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

• (1) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
• (2) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
• (3) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
• (4) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Match List I with List II related to the digestive system of cockroach. 

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Match List I with List II: 

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+, and child is O+. Their respective genotype can be:

• (1) B only
• (2) C \& B only
• (3) D \& E only
• (4) A only

Match List I with List II:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Given below are two statements: Statement I:Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double-membrane bound organelles.
Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable compared to chloroplast.

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis. 

• (1) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
• (2) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
• (3) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
• (4) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.

The following are the statements about non-chordates: A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. B. Notochord is absent. C. Central nervous system is dorsal. D. Heart is dorsal if present. E. Post-anal tail is absent. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) A, B \& D only
• (2) B, D \& E only
• (3) B, C \& D only
• (4) A \& C only

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely. Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
• (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
• (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps: A. Substrate enzyme complex formation. B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate. C. Release of products. D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken. E. Substrate binding to active site.

• (1) A, E, B, D, C
• (2) B, A, C, D, E
• (3) E, D, C, B, A
• (4) E, A, D, C, B

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

• (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
• (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
• (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Match List I with List II:

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV