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CUET Political Science Question Paper 2024: Download Set C Question paper with Answers PDF
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| Updated On - Nov 11, 2024

CUET Political Science Question Paper 2024 (Set C) is available here now. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Political Science paper on 18 May in Shift 1B from 3:30 PM to 4:15 PM. CUET Political Science Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 45 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Political Science.

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CUET 2024 History Question Paper (Set-C) with Solution

Serial No. Question Answer Solution
Q.1

Who among the following entered into a Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947?

(1) Maharaja of Manipur
(2) Nizam of Hyderabad
(3) Nawab of Junagadh
(4) Maharaja of Kashmir

(4) Maharaja of Kashmir had signed a standstill agreement in November 1947 agreeing to maintain the status quo till he decided whether to accede the state to India or Pakistan.
Q.2

Which of the following Princely States were reluctant to sign the Instrument of Accession with India?

(1) Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab
(2) Kerala, Hyderabad, Bombay
(3) Assam, Goa, Tripura
(4) Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir

(4) Hyderabad, Junagadh, and Kashmir were hesitant to join India at the time of partition. Hyderabad and Junagadh were largely Hindu-majority regions but ruled by Muslim leaders, and Kashmir had strategic importance.
Q.3

The ‘two-nation theory’ was advanced by which of the following party?

(1) Janata Dal
(2) Muslim League
(3) Socialist Party
(4) Swatantra Party

(2) The 'two-nation theory' was cited by the Muslim League, headed by Muhammad Ali Jinnah, as a rationale for creating a separate nation for Muslims, leading to the formation of Pakistan.
Q.4

Who was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Sardar Patel
(3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(4) Potti Sriramulu

(3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as 'Frontier Gandhi', was a Pashtun independence activist who worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi in the non-violent struggle against British rule.
Q.5

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (A) S.A. Dange (B) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (C) Minoo Masani (D) Ashok Mehta

List-II (I) Bharatiya Jana Sangh (II) Swatantra Party (III) Praja Socialist Party (IV) Communist Party of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(1) S.A. Dange was a follower of the Communist Party of India, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee followed Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Minoo Masani was associated with the Swatantra Party, and Ashok Mehta was a member of the Praja Socialist Party.
Q.6

Who was the leader of the anti-caste movement and the founder of the Independent Labour Party?

(1) Acharya Narendra Dev
(2) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
(3) A.K. Gopalan
(4) Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar

(4) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is a prominent leader of the anti-caste movement and formed the Independent Labour Party in 1936 to protect the interests of workers and Dalits.
Q.7

Who among the following was known as the "Milkman of India"?

(1) Arun Krishna
(2) Muljibhai Patel
(3) Verghese Kurien
(4) M.S. Swaminathan

(3) Verghese Kurien is known as the "Milkman of India" for his significant role in India's White Revolution, which made India the world's largest milk producer.
Q.8

Statement I: The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industries.
Statement II: A bulk of industries like electricity, railways, and steel could be developed by the private sector.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

(3) The Second Five Year Plan focused on developing large-scale industries like steel and electricity, mainly through public sectors, not private sectors.
Q.9

The Second Five Year Plan was drafted under the leadership of _______________.

(1) K.N. Raj
(2) P.C. Mahalanobis
(3) J.C. Kumarappa
(4) P.C. Mahapatra

(2) The Second Five Year Plan was drawn up by P.C. Mahalanobis, who emphasized industrialization and heavy industries.
Q.10

Which of the following treaty was rejected by India as discriminatory as it prevented only non-nuclear countries from acquiring nuclear weapons?

(1) Intermediate Range Nuclear Force Treaty
(2) Non-Proliferation Treaty
(3) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(4) Strategic Offensive Reduction Treaty

(2) India rejected the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) as discriminatory, allowing only the five recognized nuclear-armed states to maintain nuclear weapons while preventing others from developing them.
Q.11

Where was the first summit of the NAM (Non-Alignment Movement) held?

(1) Bengaluru
(2) Belgrade
(3) Belgium
(4) Belarus

(2) The first summit of the Non-Alignment Movement took place in Belgrade, Yugoslavia, in 1961, formed as an alternative to the bloc politics of the Cold War.
Q.12

The Shimla Agreement of 1972 was signed between India and which of the following countries?

(1) Nepal (2) Pakistan (3) China (4) Bangladesh

(2) The Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 1972 after the 1971 Indo-Pak war, aimed at restoring peace and normalizing relations.
Q.13

Who proposed in 1963 that all senior Congressman should resign from office to make way for younger party workers?

(1) S. Nijalingappa (2) V.V. Giri (3) K. Kamaraj (4) Indira Gandhi

(3) K. Kamaraj, known as the 'Kingmaker', proposed the 'Kamaraj Plan' in 1963, suggesting that senior Congress leaders resign to promote younger party workers.
Q.14

Who gave the strategy of ‘Non-Congressism’?

(1) Ram Manohar Lohia
(2) C. Natarajan Annadurai
(3) K. Kamaraj

(4) Karpoori Thakur

(1) Ram Manohar Lohia, a socialist leader, advocated for 'Non-Congressism' to unite opposition parties against Congress's dominance in Indian politics.
Q.15

The Mandal Commission was appointed by ________________ Government at the Centre.

(1) Indian National Congress Party
(2) Bharatiya Janata Party
(3) Janata Party
(4) Samajwadi Party

(3) The Mandal Commission was established by the Janata Party government in 1979 under Prime Minister Morarji Desai to identify socially and educationally backward classes and suggest upliftment measures.
Q.16

In 1974, the nationwide strike by all the employees of the Railways was led by which of the following leaders?

(1) Jayaprakash Narayan (2) Charu Majumdar (3) George Fernandes (4) Indira Gandhi

(3) The 1974 Indian railway strike, led by George Fernandes, was the largest industrial action in India, demanding better wages and working conditions for railway employees.
Q.17

Which of the following political party led the movement for the formation of Punjabi Suba?

(1) Congress (2) Lok Dal (3) Akali Dal (4) CPI

(3) The Akali Dal led the movement for a separate Punjabi-speaking state, resulting in the creation of Punjab in 1966.
Q.18

Who among the following led the Anti-Brahmin movement, worked for the Justice Party, and also founded Dravidar Kazhagam?

(1) A.K. Gopalan (2) E.V. Ramasami Naicker (3) K. Kamaraj (4) Potti Sriramulu

(2) E.V. Ramasami Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, was the main leader of the Anti-Brahmin movement, advocating for social justice and equality for the oppressed classes in Tamil Nadu.
Q.19

The historic Dandi March led by Gandhi in 1930 was a protest against the ___________.

(1) British government’s refusal to grant independence
(2) imposition of tax on salt
(3) partition of India
(4) separation of Bengal

(2) The Dandi March was a non-violent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi against the British salt tax, symbolizing the fight for Indian independence.
Q.20

Which of the following movements started in response to the British decision to separate the provinces of Bengal?

(1) Khilafat Movement
(2) Non-Cooperation Movement
(3) Swadeshi Movement
(4) Civil Disobedience Movement

(3) The Swadeshi Movement emerged in response to the British decision to partition Bengal in 1905, encouraging the boycott of British goods and promoting Indian industries.
Q.21

Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party?

(1) Mayawati (2) B.R. Ambedkar (3) Jagjivan Ram (4) Kanshi Ram

(4) The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed in 1984 by Kanshi Ram to make the Bahujans (Dalits, OBCs, and religious minorities) visible in politics.
Q.22

The model of transition in Russia, Central Asia, and East Europe that was influenced by the World Bank and the IMF came to be known as:

(1) Current Therapy (2) Shock Therapy (3) Fiscal Therapy (4) Glasnost

(2) The term "Shock Therapy" denotes the sudden changeover from a state-controlled economy to a free-market economy in countries like Russia, influenced by the World Bank and the IMF policy. This policy required sharp privatization and decontrol.
Q.23

In which year was Mikhail Gorbachev elected as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union?

(1) 1982 (2) 1983 (3) 1984 (4) 1985

(4) Mikhail Gorbachev was appointed General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985. He introduced policies of Glasnost and Perestroika, which further resulted in the breaking of the Soviet Union.
Q.24

Which of the following countries have not accepted Euro as the common currency?

(1) Denmark and Sweden (2) Spain and Portugal (3) Greece and Germany (4) France and Austria

(1) Denmark and Sweden are members of the EU but have chosen not to adopt the Euro as their common currency and instead retain their national currencies.
Q.25

The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), established in 1994, is the organization that carries out the coordination of:

(1) Trade and Finance (2) Friendship and Solidarity (3) Security and Foreign Policy (4) Investment and Labour

(3) The ASEAN Regional Forum is an institution that addresses security concerns and foreign policy to promote regional peace and stability through dialogue and cooperation among its member states.
Q.26

Which of the following nations adopted an ‘Open Door’ policy and economic reforms in 1978?

(1) South Korea (2) China (3) USA (4) Japan

(2) China introduced the 'Open Door' policy in 1978 headed by Deng Xiaoping. This policy saw foreign investment and economic reforms change the face of China into a global economic superpower.
Q.27

In 1966, who made the six-point proposal for the greater autonomy of East Pakistan?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman
(3) General Yahya Khan
(4) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

(2) In 1966, Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman, political party leader of Awami League in East Pakistan, presented a six-point program for more autonomy of East Pakistan. This was a precursor to Bangladesh's Liberation War and Bangladesh itself.
Q.28

Which of the following countries joined SAARC in the year 2007?

(1) Bhutan (2) Nepal (3) Afghanistan (4) Bangladesh

(3) Afghanistan became the eighth member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) in 2007, joining the existing members from South Asia.
Q.29

Which of the following countries is not included in South Asia?

(1) Pakistan (2) China (3) Bangladesh (4) Nepal

(2) China is geographically located in East Asia, not South Asia. South Asia primarily includes countries like India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, and the Maldives.
Q.30

At the Yalta Conference, the ‘Big Three’ decided to organize a United Nations Conference on the proposed world organization. The ‘Big Three’ stood for:

(1) Roosevelt, Churchill, and Krushchev
(2) Roosevelt, Churchill, and Stalin
(3) Deng Xiaoping, Churchill, and Stalin
(4) Kennedy, Attlee, and Stalin

(2) The 'Big Three' at the Yalta Conference in 1945 were Franklin D. Roosevelt (USA), Winston Churchill (UK), and Joseph Stalin (Soviet Union). They agreed to have the United Nations for permanent peace throughout the world after the end of World War II.
Q.31

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was established in:

(1) 1951 (2) 1953 (3) 1955 (4) 1957

(4) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was established in 1957 to promote the development of atomic energy for peaceful purposes and to prevent atomic energy from being used for developing weapons of war.
Q.32

Which of the following organizations provides loans and grants to member countries for human development (education and health), agriculture, and rural development infrastructure and environment protection?

(1) WTO (2) World Bank (3) IMF (4) UNO

(2) The World Bank provides economic and technical assistance to developing countries on projects related to human development, infrastructure, agriculture, and environmental protection.
Q.33

What is the full form of START?

(1) Strategic Arms Reduction Toll
(2) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(3) Strategic Arms Reduction Tactics
(4) Strategic Arms Reduction Tax

(2) START is the abbreviation for Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty, which is an agreement between the US and Soviet Union/Russia to reduce and limit strategic weapons from nuclear arms.
Q.34

Which of the following is a threat to Global security?

(1) Human Rights (2) Arms Control (3) Terrorism (4) Disarmament

(3) Terrorism is considered a serious threat to global security as it affects peace and stability negatively through the use of violence and fear throughout nations.
Q.35

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Indigenous People) (A) Mapuche (B) Kuna Tribe (C) Indigenous people of Cordillera Region (D) Tribal people of the Chittagong Hill Tracts

List-II (Region) (I) East of Panama Canal (II) Bangladesh (III) Chile (IV) Philippines

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(2) The Mapuche people are from Chile. The Kuna tribe lives east of the Panama Canal. Indigenous people of the Cordillera region are from the Philippines. It is a small ethnic minority of Bangladesh with their culture.
Q.36

When was the Kyoto Protocol signed?

(1) 1992 (2) 1995 (3) 1997 (4) 1999

(3) The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty signed in 1997 under which countries agreed to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions. It came into force in 2005.
Q.37

When was the Energy Conservation Act passed?

(1) 1998 (2) 1999 (3) 2001 (4) 2005

(3) The Energy Conservation Act was enacted in India in the year 2001, with the aim of making sure that there is a proper utilization of energy and saving it in each sector of the economy.
Q.38

Which of the following global platforms brings together Human Rights activists, environmentalists, labor, youth, and women activists opposed to neo-liberal globalization?

(1) World Economic Forum (2) World Social Forum (3) World Cultural Forum (4) G-20

(2) The World Social Forum (WSF) is a global forum for activists, human rights advocates, environmentalists, and labor organizations to resist neo-liberal globalization and to promote social justice.
Q.39

Which of the statements is true about globalization?

(1) Globalization is purely an economic phenomenon.
(2) Globalization is purely a cultural phenomenon.
(3) Globalization is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.
(4) Globalization has had a universal impact on all states and societies.

(3) Globalization is a multidimensional process, encompassing economic, political, cultural, and technological changes that influence all spheres of life in different societies.
Q.40

When is ‘Ambedkar Jayanti’ observed in India?

(1) January 14 (2) February 14 (3) March 14 (4) April 14

(4) Ambedkar Jayanti, the birthday of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, is observed on 14th April every year in India by remembering his contributions to social justice and equality.
Q.41

Look at the picture and identify the Logo.

(1) EU (2) SAARC (3) UN (4) ASEAN

(2) The image above represents the SAARC logo, which is an abbreviation for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation, created in 1985 to promote regional cooperation and development among South Asian nations.
Q.42

Who was the second Secretary General of the UN?

(1) U. Thant (2) Trygve Lie (3) Dag Hammarskjöld (4) Kurt Waldheim

(3) Dag Hammarskjold was the second Secretary-General of the United Nations, serving from 1953 until his death in 1961. He was posthumously awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1961.
Q.43

Which day is celebrated as the UN Day?

(1) 20th October (2) 22nd October (3) 24th October (4) 26th October

(3) United Nations Day is observed on October 24th every year in memory of the coming into force of the UN Charter on that date in 1945.
Q.44

The UN was founded as a successor to which of the following?

(1) League of Nations (2) Concert of Europe (3) Council of Europe (4) Hague Conference

(1) The United Nations was established in 1945 as a successor to the League of Nations, which was set up after the end of World War I but failed to prevent the occurrence of World War II.
Q.45

Write the full form of UNDP.

(1) United Nations Development Planning (2) United Nations Development Programme (3) United Nations Design Programme (4) United News Development Programme

(2) UNDP is an acronym for United Nations Development Programme. It is the United Nations global development network that provides technical and financial assistance to developing countries to help them achieve sustainable development.
Q.46

The North-East region consists of seven States called ______________.

(1) Seven Sisters (2) Seven Stars (3) Seven Seas (4) Seven Brothers

(1) The most beautiful states of India can be found in North-East India, commonly known as the "Seven Sisters" because there are seven states: Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Q.47

Which of the following countries does the North-East region share its boundaries with?

(1) China, Nepal, and Bangladesh
(2) China, Bhutan, and Bangladesh
(3) China, Myanmar, and Bangladesh
(4) China, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh

(3) The North-East region of India is strategically important as it borders China, Myanmar, and Bangladesh.
Q.48

In which year was the State of Nagaland created?

(1) 1961 (2) 1963 (3) 1965 (4) 1967

(2) The State of Nagaland was established in 1963 as the 16th state of India after a political movement among the Nagas for a separate state.
Q.49

Khasi tribes, an ethnic group, are the inhabitants of which of the following States?

(1) Manipur (2) Mizoram (3) Nagaland (4) Meghalaya

(4) The Khasi tribes primarily dwell in the northeastern state of Meghalaya. They are one of the native tribes of the state and possess a matrilineal society.
Q.50

The North-East serves as a gateway to which of the regions mentioned below?

(1) South-East Asia (2) South Asia (3) West Asia (4) Europe

(1) The North-East region of India is a gateway to South-East Asia due to its geographical proximity to nations like Myanmar and Thailand.

CUET Previous Year Question Paper PDF

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CUET Questions

1.
In a series of 4 trials, the probability of getting two successes is equal to the probability of getting three successes. The probability of getting at least one success is:

    • \(\frac{609}{625}\)
    • \(\frac{16}{625}\)
    • \(\frac{513}{625}\)
    • \(\frac{112}{625}\)

    2.
    If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 1 \\ -2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( B^T = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \), then the matrix \( AB \) is:

      • \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
      • \( \begin{bmatrix} 15 & -11 \\ -2 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \)
      • \( \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 49 \\ -2 & -20 \end{bmatrix} \)
      • \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 9 \\ -2 & -20 \end{bmatrix} \)

      3.

      If \( y = e^{{2}\log_e t} \) and \( x = \log_3(e^{t^2}) \), then \( \frac{dy}{dx} \) is equal to:

        • \( \frac{1}{4t\sqrt{t}} \)
        • \({2t^2} \)
        • \( \frac{\log_e 3}{4t\sqrt{t}} \)
        • \( \frac{2t^2}{e^{\frac{1}{2}\log_e t}} \)

        4.
        Vibhuti bought a car worth ₹10,25,000 and made a down payment of ₹4,00,000. The balance is to be paid in 3 years by equal monthly installments at an interest rate of 12% p.a. The EMI that Vibhuti has to pay for the car is:
        (Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))

          • ₹20,700.85
          • ₹27,058.87
          • ₹20,833.33
          • ₹25,708.89

          5.
          The cost of a machinery is ₹8,00,000. Its scrap value will be one-tenth of its original cost in 15 years. Using the linear method of depreciation, the book value of the machine at the end of the 10th year will be:

            • ₹4,80,000
            • ₹3,20,000
            • ₹3,68,000
            • ₹4,32,000

            6.
            A sample size of \(x\) is considered to be sufficient to hold the Central Limit Theorem (CLT). The value of \(x\) should be:

              • less than 20
              • greater than or equal to 30
              • less than 30
              • sample size does not affect the CLT

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