JEE Advanced 2026 Question Paper 2 is available here for download. IIT Roorkee conducted JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 2 on May 17 from 2.30 PM to 5.30 PM. JEE Advanced Question Paper 2 was of total 180 marks.

  • JEE Advanced 2026 Question Paper was divided into 3 sections- Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics with 18 questions each section, total 54 questions.
  • Each section was divided into further sub-sections containing 4 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) having 3 marks each with negative marking of 1, 5 Multiple Select Questions (MSQs) with 4 marks each and partial marking, 4 Paragraph-based questions having 2 marks and no negative marking and 5 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions for 4 marks each and no negative marking.

Candidates can download JEE Advanced 2026 Question Paper 2 with Answer Key and Solutions PDF from the links provided below. According to initial student reactions, JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 2 was of moderate level.

JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 2 Solutions PDF

JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 2 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Let \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}\) be two vectors, and let \(P, Q\) and \(R\) be the points with position vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}\) and \(\vec{a} + \vec{b}\), respectively, with respect to the origin \(O\). If \(|\vec{a} + \vec{b}| = \sqrt{21}, |\vec{a} - \vec{b}| = 3\), and \(\vec{a}\) and \((\vec{a} - \vec{b})\) are perpendicular to each other, then the area of the triangle \(OPR\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 2:

Let \(T\) be the tangent to the parabola \(y^2 = 16x\) at the point \((64, 32)\). Let \(L\) be the tangent to the same parabola at another point \((x_1, y_1)\) on the parabola. If \(L\) and \(T\) are perpendicular to each other, then the distance between the point \((x_1, y_1)\) and the focus of the parabola, is

  • (A) \(\frac{15}{4}\)
  • (B) 4
  • (C) \(\frac{17}{4}\)
  • (D) 5

Question 3:

Let \(y : (-\infty, \infty) \to (0, \infty)\) be the solution of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{e^{5x}y^3 + y^3}{e^x + e^x y^4} \]
satisfying \(y(0) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). Then the value of \(y(\log_e 2)\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{5 + \sqrt{35}}{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{7 + \sqrt{53}}{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7 + \sqrt{53}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5 + \sqrt{35}}{2}\)

Question 4:

The value of the definite integral \( \int_0^2 \frac{1}{3^x + 3} dx \)
is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\log_e 3}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\log_e 3}{2}\)

Question 5:

Let \(\mathbb{R}\) denote the set of all real numbers. Consider the polynomial function \(f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) defined by \[ f(x) = \frac{d^{10}}{dx^{10}}((x^2 - 1)^{10}), for all x \in \mathbb{R}. \]
Here \(\frac{d^{10}}{dx^{10}}((x^2 - 1)^{10})\) is the \(10^{th}\) order derivative of the function \((x^2 - 1)^{10}\).
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  • (A) The coefficient of \(x^8\) in the polynomial \(f(x)\) is \((-10) \left( \frac{18!}{8!} \right)\)
  • (B) The value of \(f(1) + f(-1)\) is equal to \(10! 2^{11}\)
  • (C) The degree of the polynomial \(f(x)\) is 10
  • (D) The constant term of the polynomial \(f(x)\) is \(- \left( \frac{10!}{5!} \right)\)

Question 6:

Let \(a, b, c\) be positive integers in arithmetic progression such that the equation \[ ax^2 + bx + c = 0 \]
has only integer solutions.
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  • (A) \(c - b\) is an integer multiple of \(a\)
  • (B) Both the roots of the equation \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\) are odd integers
  • (C) If \(c = 15\), then \(ab = 8\)
  • (D) If \(b = 8\), then \(x = 3\) is a root of the equation \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\)

Question 7:

Let \(L\) be the straight line joining the points \(P(1, 2, -1)\) and \(Q(2, 3, 1)\). Let \(S\) be the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point \(R(4, -1, 5)\) to the line \(L\). Another line passing through \(R\) intersects \(L\) at a point \(T\) such that the point \(S\) divides the line segment \(PT\) internally in the ratio \(|PS| : |ST| = 1 : 2\), where \(|PS|\) and \(|ST|\) are the lengths of the line segments \(PS\) and \(ST\), respectively.
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  • (A) The orthocentre of the triangle \(PRT\) is \(\left( \frac{23}{5}, -4, \frac{31}{5} \right)\)
  • (B) The orthocentre of the triangle \(PRT\) is \((4, 3, 5)\)
  • (C) The area of the triangle \(PRT\) is \(6\sqrt{5}\)
  • (D) The area of the triangle \(PRT\) is \(18\sqrt{5}\)

Question 8:

Let \(y = f(x)\) be the real valued function defined on the interval \((0, \infty)\), satisfying \(f(1) = 0\) and the differential equation \[ x \frac{dy}{dx} = y - x^3. \]
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  • (A) The function \(f\) has a local minimum at \(x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) The function \(f\) has a local maximum at \(x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (C) The function \(f\) is increasing in the interval \((1, 2)\)
  • (D) If \(g(x) = 4x^3 - 5x^2 + \frac{3}{2}x\) for \(x > 0\), then the number of elements in the set \(\{ x \in (0, \infty) : f(x) = g(x) \}\) is 2}

Question 9:

Let \(\mathbb{R}\) denote the set of all real numbers and let \(i = \sqrt{-1}\). Consider the matrices \[ S = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1
1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} and T = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1
0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}. \]
Let \(a, b, c, d\) be real numbers such that \(ST = \begin{pmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{pmatrix}\).
Let \(H = \{ x + iy : x, y \in \mathbb{R} and y > 0 \}\).
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  • (A) \(\frac{b + ia}{d + ic} = i\)
  • (B) If \(\omega = \frac{-1 + i\sqrt{3}}{2}\), then \(\frac{a\omega + b}{c\omega + d} = \omega\)
  • (C) If \(m\) is an integer greater than 2 such that \((ST)^2 = (ST)^m\), then \(m\) is an integer multiple of 8
  • (D) If \(z \in H\), then \(\frac{az + b}{cz + d} \in H\)

Question 10:

Let \(\mathbb{N}\) denote the set of all positive integers. Consider the sets \(A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\}\) and \(B = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7\}\). Let \(S\) be the set of all functions \(f : A \to B\) such that \(f(2) \neq 2\) and \(f(4) \neq 4\). Consider the set \(T = \{ f \in S : there exists a function g : B \to \mathbb{N} such that g(f(x)) = 2^x for all x \in A \}\). Then the number of elements in the set \(T\) is \underline{\hspace{2cm.


Question 11:

A bookshelf contains 6 distinct books of Mathematics and 5 distinct books of Physics. From these 11 books, 6 books are chosen at random. Let \(X\) be the absolute value of the difference between the number of Mathematics books chosen and the number of Physics books chosen. If \(\alpha\) is the mean of the random variable \(X\), then the value of \(77\alpha\) is _____________.


Question 12:

Consider a data consisting of 10 observations \(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_{10}\), whose mean is 5 and variance is 7. If the mean and the variance of the first 8 observations \(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_8\) are 4 and 3.5, respectively, and \(x_9 < x_{10}\), then the value of \(3x_9 + 2x_{10}\) is ___________.


Question 13:

Consider the ellipse \(E\) given by \(\frac{x^2}{18} + \frac{y^2}{12} = 1\). Let \(H\) be the hyperbola whose eccentricity is the reciprocal of the eccentricity of \(E\) and whose foci are the same as that of \(E\). Let \(P\) and \(Q\) be the points of intersection of \(H\) and the parabola \(\sqrt{5}y = x^2\) in the first quadrant. Let \(d\) be the distance between \(P\) and \(Q\). If \(a\) and \(b\) are the integers such that \(d^2 = a + b\sqrt{5}\), then the value of \(a - b\) is _____________.


Question 14:

For a real number \(x\), let \([x]\) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\). For a finite set \(S\), let \(|S|\) denote the number of elements in the set \(S\). Consider the functions \(f : (-3, 3) \to (-\infty, \infty)\) and \(g : (-3, 3) \to (-\infty, \infty)\) defined by \(f(x) = [x^3]\ln(1 + \sin^2(\pi(x - [x])))\) and \(g(x) = x^3 \sin^2(\pi \ln(1 + x - [x]))\). Let \(A = \{ x \in (-3, 3) : f is discontinuous at x \}\) and \(B = \{ x \in (-3, 3) : g is discontinuous at x \}\). Then the value of \(|A| + 2|B| - |A \cap B|\) is \underline{\hspace{2cm.


Question 15:

Consider the curve \( C_1 \) given by \( y = e^{-x} \quad for x \in [0, 10\pi], \)
and the curve \( C_2 \) given by \(y = e^{-x}(\sin x + \cos x) \quad for x \in [0, 10\pi]. \)
Let \( n \) be the total number of points of intersection of the curves \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \).

Suppose that \( \alpha_1, \alpha_2, \dots, \alpha_n \in [0, 10\pi] \) are the \( x \)-coordinates of the points of intersection of the curves \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) such that \(\alpha_1 < \alpha_2 < \dots < \alpha_n. \)



Then the value of \(n\) is __________.


Question 16:

Let \(\beta\) be the area of the region enclosed between the curves \(C_1, C_2\), and the lines \(x = \alpha_1\) and \(x = \alpha_4\). Then the value of \(-\frac{1}{\pi} \ln(\beta - 2e^{-\pi/2})\) is __________.


Question 17:

Consider the ellipses given by \(x^2 + 4y^2 = 1\) and \(4x^2 + y^2 = 1\).

Let \(P\) be the point in the first quadrant where the given ellipses intersect. If \(\theta\) is the acute angle between the tangents to the given ellipses at the point \(P\), then the value of \(4 \tan \theta\) is _____________.


Question 18:

Consider the ellipses given by \(x^2 + 4y^2 = 1\) and \(4x^2 + y^2 = 1\).

If \(\alpha\) is the area of the common region that lies inside both the given ellipses, then the value of \(\tan(\alpha/2)\) is ____________.


Question 19:

A metal wire of cross-sectional area \(0.5 mm^2\) and length \(100 m\) is connected across a battery of e.m.f. \(2 V\) and internal resistance \(1 \Omega\). The density, atomic mass and electrical conductivity of the metal are \(6.35 \times 10^3 kg m^{-3}\), \(63.5 gm/mole\) and \(2 \times 10^8 mho m^{-1}\), respectively. Assuming one conduction electron per atom of the metal, the drift velocity (in \(mm s^{-1}\)) of the electrons in the wire is:

(Take Avogadro’s number as \(6 \times 10^{23}\) and charge of the electron as \(1.6 \times 10^{-19} C\).)

  • (A) \(0.052\)
  • (B) \(0.104\)
  • (C) \(0.208\)
  • (D) \(0.156\)

Question 20:

A nuclear reactor starts producing a radioactive nuclide \(X\) from \(t = 0\), at a constant rate of \(\alpha\) per second. Each decay of \(X\) produces energy \(E_0\), which is utilized to heat a liquid of mass \(m\) and specific heat \(s\). Assuming no heat loss from the liquid and taking \(\lambda\) as the decay constant of \(X\), the rate of increase in the temperature of the liquid is:

  • (A) \(\frac{\alpha E_0}{ms}(1 - e^{-\lambda t})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\alpha E_0}{ms}(e^{\lambda t} - 1)\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\lambda E_0}{ms}(1 - e^{-\lambda t})\)
  • (D) \(\frac{E_0}{ms}(\alpha - \lambda e^{-\lambda t})\)

Question 21:

A beam of polychromatic light passes through a thin prism of prism angle \(6^\circ\). The refractive index of the material of the prism varies with wavelength \((\lambda)\) as \(n(\lambda) = a\lambda + \frac{b}{\lambda^2}\), where \(a = 3\,\mu m^{-1}\) and \(b = 0.096\,\mu m^2\). If \(\lambda_{min}\) is the wavelength at which the angle of minimum deviation \(D_m\) is smallest, then the correct value of \(D_m\) at \(\lambda_{min}\) is

  • (A) \(6.4^\circ\)
  • (B) \(4.8^\circ\)
  • (C) \(3.2^\circ\)
  • (D) \(2.4^\circ\)

Question 22:

A particle of mass \(m\), and angular momentum \(\ell\) is moving in a circular orbit of radius \(r_0\) under the influence of an attractive force \(\vec{F}(r) = -\frac{k}{r^2}\hat{r}\). Keeping its angular momentum unchanged, the particle is displaced radially by a small distance \(\delta r \ll r_0\), due to which its radial distance varies periodically. The corresponding time period is:

  • (A) \(\frac{2\pi \ell^3}{mk^2}\)
  • (B) \(2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\pi \ell^3}{3mk^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\pi \ell^3}{5mk^2}\)

Question 23:

Consider two isosceles prisms 1 and 2 with prism angles \(A_1\) and \(A_2\) and refractive indices \(n_1\) and \(n_2\), respectively, as shown in the figure. The faces \(a_1b_1\) and \(a_2b_2\) are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the mirror \(M\). If a ray of light is incident on the face \(a_1c_1\) and emerges from the face \(a_2c_2\), then the correct statement(s) is/are:



  • (A) If both the prisms are at minimum deviation condition, then \(\frac{n_2}{n_1} = \sin \left( \frac{A_1}{2} \right) / \sin \left( \frac{A_2}{2} \right)\).
  • (B) If prism 2 is at minimum deviation condition, then \(\sin i_1 = n_2 \sin \left( \frac{A_2}{2} \right)\) is always true.
  • (C) If both the prisms 1 and 2 are thin and are at minimum deviation condition with angles of deviation \(\delta_{m1}\) and \(\delta_{m2}\), respectively, then \(\theta = \frac{\delta_{m1}}{2(n_1-1)} + \frac{\delta_{m2}}{2(n_2-1)}\).
  • (D) If prism 1 is at minimum deviation condition, then \(\sin i_2 = n_1 \sin \left( \frac{A_1}{2} \right)\) is always true.

Question 24:

In a vacuum chamber, a particle of charge \(1\,\mu C\) and mass \(1 mg\) is projected with a velocity \((\hat{i}+ 2\hat{j}) ms^{-1}\) from the \(XZ\) plane at time \(t = 0\) in an electric field of \(1 \hat{i} Vm^{-1}\). At \(t = 0.2 s\), the electric field is switched off and a magnetic field of \(6 \hat{j} T\) is switched on. The acceleration due to gravity is \(-10 \hat{j} ms^{-2}\). Correct option(s) is/are:

  • (A) The vertical distance of the particle from the \(XZ\) plane at \(t = 0.3 s\) is \(15 cm\).
  • (B) The vertical distance of the particle from the \(XZ\) plane at \(t = 0.4 s\) is \(10 cm\).
  • (C) The radius of the trajectory of the particle for \(t > 0.2 s\) is \(20 cm\).
  • (D) The particle will be in the \(XZ\) plane at \(t = 0.35 s\).

Question 25:

Two charges \(Q_1 = q\) and \(Q_2 = mq\) are placed at the points \(P_1(a, b)\) and \(P_2(ma, mb)\), respectively, in the \(XY\) plane, where \(a, b \neq 0\) and \(m \neq 0, 1\). If \(V_1\) is the potential at a point in the \(XY\) plane due to charge \(Q_1\) and \(V_2\) is the potential at that point due to charge \(Q_2\). Correct statement(s) for the points at which \(|V_1| = |V_2|\) is/are:

  • (A) For \(m = -1\), locus of these points is \(ax + by = 0\).
  • (B) For \(m = 2\), the locus of these points is a circle of radius \(\frac{2}{3}\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}\) centered at \((\frac{2}{3}a, \frac{2}{3}b)\).
  • (C) For \(m = -2\), the locus of these points is a circle of radius \(2\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}\) centered at \((2a, 2b)\).
  • (D) For \(m = -3\), locus of these points is \(3ax + 3by = 0\).

Question 26:

Consider an electric dipole comprising two charges \(+q\) and \(-q\) each with mass \(m\), separated by a fixed distance \(d\) and initially at rest with its dipole moment pointing along \(\hat{i}\). A uniform electric field \(E\hat{j}\) is turned on at time \(t = 0\) and it is turned off at \(t = t_f\), when the dipole moment makes an angle \(\theta_f\) with \(\hat{i}\). Neglecting any sources of energy loss, correct option(s) is/are:

  • (A) The center of mass of the dipole is deflected towards \(\hat{j}\) in the presence of the field.
  • (B) If the magnitude of the final angular velocity \(\omega_f = \sqrt{\frac{2qE}{md}}\), then \(\theta_f = \frac{\pi}{6}\).
  • (C) If \(\theta_f = \pi/3\), then the change in kinetic energy of the dipole is given by \(2\sqrt{3}qEd\).
  • (D) For \(\theta_f = \pi/4\), the dipole rotates around its center of mass with a constant angular velocity after \(t > t_f\).

Question 27:

Ten moles of an ideal monoatomic gas, initially in state \(a\) at atmospheric pressure and temperature \(T_a = 27^\circ C\), is enclosed in a metal cylinder of volume \(V_0\) fitted with a frictionless piston. The gas is suddenly compressed to state \(b\) with volume \(V_0/3\). Now, keeping the piston stationary, the cylinder is submerged in a water bath of temperature \(11^\circ C\) until the gas reaches the temperature of the water bath, which is denoted as state \(c\). Finally, while still in the water bath, the piston is brought slowly to its initial position, which is denoted as state \(f\). If \(R\) is universal gas constant, then the correct option(s) is/are:
Given: \(9^{1/3} = 2.08\)

  • (A) The schematic P-V diagram of the processes described above is:
  • (B) The change in internal energy in going from state \(a\) to \(b\) is \(4860R\).
  • (C) The net change in the internal energy in the whole process is \(-240R\).
  • (D) The pressure and temperature of the state \(b\) are \(2.08\) times the atmospheric pressure and \(624 K\), respectively.

Question 28:

Two thin wires, Wire-1 of diameter 0.650 mm and Wire-2 of unknown diameter \(d\) are given. To obtain the value of \(d\), the diameters of the two wires are measured with a screw gauge. The screw gauge has a pitch of 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale (CS). The smallest division on the linear scale (LS) is 0.5 mm. The table shows the readings of LS and CS for the measurements. The value of \(d\) (in µm) is:


Question 29:

In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width \((0.016 \pm 0.002)\) mm is used to measure the wavelength of a monochromatic light source. In the diffraction pattern, the angular distance between the central maximum and first minimum is measured to be \((2^\circ \pm 40')\). The value of the fractional error in the measurement of wavelength is:

(Given: \(\sin(2^\circ) = 0.035\))


Question 30:

As shown in the figure, a ray \(AB\) of unpolarized light enters from water of refractive index \(n_w = 4/3\) into a medium of refractive index \(n_p = 4/\sqrt{3}\) after passing through a glass plate of refractive index \(n_g = 1.5\) and a layer of water. At a particular incident angle \(i\) the reflected ray \(CD\) is polarized in the direction as shown in the figure. The value of \(i\) (in degrees) is:


Question 31:

As shown in the figure, the resistance of a galvanometer \(G\) can be found by the half-deflection method. Here the resistance \(R_2\) is adjusted such that when the key \(K\) is closed the deflection in the galvanometer becomes half of the value as compared to when \(K\) is open. Half-deflection is obtained at \(R_2 = 4\ \Omega\) and thus the galvanometer resistance is found to be \(6\ \Omega\). In this half-deflection condition the current (in mA) through the resistor \(R_1\) is:


Question 32:

In a new system of units, the units of mass, length, time and current are 5 kg, 5 m, 5 s and 5 A, respectively. If \(\mu_0\) and \(\epsilon_0\) are the permeability and permittivity of free space, respectively, then in this new system of units, the magnitude of one SI unit of \(\sqrt{\mu_0/\epsilon_0}\), is:


Question 33:

A container of height 2 m, length 2 m and breadth 1 m is made of insulating vertical walls and two large area horizontal metal plates (\(M_1\) and \(M_2\)) which extend far beyond the vertical walls in all directions. The container is partitioned into two equal chambers with a thin insulating vertical wall. The partition wall contains a small hole of cross-sectional area \(\sqrt{10} cm^2\) near its bottom edge. Initially the hole is closed and the left chamber of the container is completely filled with a liquid of dielectric constant \(\epsilon_r = 15\) and the right chamber is empty (\(\epsilon_r = 1\)). At time \(t = 0\), the hole is opened and the liquid flows from the left chamber to the right chamber. In both the chambers, the space above the liquid has \(\epsilon_r = 1\) and is maintained at atmospheric pressure. The schematic of the container at a time \(t > 0\) is shown in the figure. [Given: acceleration due to gravity is \(10 ms^{-2}\).]




The height (in m) of the liquid in left chamber at \(t = 500 s\) is:


Question 34:

The difference in the capacitance (in F) between the metal plates at \(t = 0\) and that at \(t = 500 s\) is \((8 - n)\epsilon_0\), where \(\epsilon_0\) is the permittivity of free space. The value of \(n\) is:


Question 35:

A uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m and mass 1 kg is pivoted at its top point \(C\) such that it can rotate freely around \(C\) in the \(XY\) plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, when the disk is at rest, a particle of mass 20 g, travelling along negative \(x\) direction in the \(XY\) plane with speed \(100 ms^{-1}\), hits the circumference of the disk at a point \(P\). After collision the particle moves along negative \(y\) direction at a speed of \(90 ms^{-1}\). (Given: the acceleration due to gravity (g) = \(-10 \hat{j} ms^{-2}\))




After the collision the disk starts to rotate around point \(C\) in the \(XY\) plane. The maximum change in the height (in m) of its center \(O\) is:


Question 36:

Amount of energy loss (in J) in the collision is:


Question 37:

At 300 K, the molar conductivities of the aqueous solutions of three salts at two different concentrations are given below:



The conductivity of a saturated aqueous solution of AgCl is \(1.40 \times 10^{-6}\) S cm\(^{-1}\) at 300 K. If the solubility of AgCl in water at 300 K is X mol L\(^{-1}\), then log\(_{10}\)(X\(^{-1}\)) is

(Assume that AgCl dissolved in water ionizes completely and that the molar conductivity of saturated AgCl solution is equal to its limiting molar conductivity.)

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 38:

The correct order of ONO bond angle in the given species is

  • (A) NO2+ < NO2 < NO3- < NO2-
  • (B) NO2- < NO3- < NO2 < NO2+
  • (C) NO3- < NO2 < NO2- < NO2+
  • (D) NO2- < NO3- < NO2+ < NO2

Question 39:

Natural rubber on complete ozonolysis (O\(_3\)/Zn-H\(_2\)O) gives compound X as the major product. X gives positive iodoform and Tollen's tests. X on heating with aqueous NaOH gives Y as the major product. Y is


  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 40:

A known artificial sweetener X is composed of 4-chloro-4-deoxy-\(\alpha\)-D-galactose and 1,6-dichloro-1,6-dideoxy-\(\beta\)-D-fructose joined by a glycosidic linkage.




Structure of D-galactose is given below:

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 41:

For a first-order reaction R \(\rightarrow\) P at a given temperature, \(k\) is the rate constant. For this reaction, at the given temperature, the concentrations of R and P at a time \(t\) are [R] and [P], respectively. The correct graphical representation(s) for this reaction is(are)


  • (A) [P] vs t (increasing curve)
  • (B) d[R]/dt vs [R] (increasing straight line)
  • (C) d[P]/dt vs t (decreasing curve)
  • (D) k vs t (horizontal line)

Question 42:

Correct statement(s) about the compounds P, Q and R is(are)

\( Xe(g) + F_2(g) \xrightarrow{873 K, 7 bar}{P} \)

(1 : 5 ratio)

\( P + O_2F_2 \xrightarrow{143 K}{Q} + O_2 \)

\( Q + H_2O \xrightarrow{complete hydrolysis}{R} + HF \)

  • (A) P has two lone pairs of electrons on the central atom.
  • (B) Q has a perfect octahedral geometry.
  • (C) Q can act as a fluorinating agent.
  • (D) The molecular structure of R is trigonal pyramidal.

Question 43:

The correct statement(s) regarding the periodic properties of elements is(are)

  • (A) Second ionization enthalpy of carbon atom is less than that of boron atom.
  • (B) Increasing order of ionic radii: Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+
  • (C) Under identical conditions, in solid state, the density of potassium metal is more than density of sodium metal.
  • (D) The H–H bond is weaker than F–F bond.

Question 44:

In the following reaction sequence, P, Q, S and T are the major products.




The correct statement(s) about P, Q, S and T is(are)

  • (A) Q on treatment with ethanol generates an aromatic aldehyde.
  • (B) S gives positive phthalein dye test.
  • (C) P is a dinitro compound.
  • (D) T is a coloured compound.

Question 45:

The correct statement(s) regarding sugars is(are)

Given: Specific rotations of L-(-)-glucose and L-(+)-fructose are \(-52.5^{\circ}\) and \(+92.5^{\circ}\), respectively.

  • (A) On treatment with HNO\(_3\), gluconic acid is oxidized to saccharic acid, whereas glucose is not oxidized to saccharic acid.
  • (B) Fructose gives a positive Fehling's test because it isomerises to glucose and another aldohexose in the presence of Fehling's reagent.
  • (C) Invert sugar is an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose formed after hydrolysis of the corresponding disaccharide.
  • (D) Specific rotation of invert sugar is \(-40^{\circ}\).

Question 46:

X\(^{a+}\) and Y\(^{b+}\) are hydrogen-like species. The wavelength of light absorbed during the transition between the states with principal quantum numbers \(n = 1\) and \(n = 2\) of X\(^{a+}\) is \(\lambda\). The wavelength of light absorbed during the transition between the states with principal quantum numbers \(n = 2\) and \(n = 4\) of Y\(^{b+}\) is \(9\lambda\). The lowest possible value of \((a+b)\) is _______.


Question 47:

At a given temperature, 0.45 g of acetic acid in 50 mL of water is shaken with 1.0 g of charcoal and the pH of the resulting solution is 3.0. Assume, the adsorption of acetic acid from the aqueous solution by charcoal follows Freundlich isotherm,
\( \frac{x}{m} = kC^{1/n} \)

If the plot of log\(_{10}\)(x/m) against log\(_{10}\)C gives a straight line with slope 1, the value of \(k\) in L mol\(^{-1}\) is _______.

Given: The molar mass of acetic acid is 60 g mol\(^{-1}\).

The acid dissociation constant of acetic acid is \(1.0 \times 10^{-5}\) at the given temperature.
\(x\) is the mass (in grams) of acetic acid adsorbed.
\(m\) is the mass (in grams) of charcoal.
\(C\) is the equilibrium concentration of acetic acid in the solution after the adsorption is complete.
\(k\) and \(n\) are constants for acetic acid–charcoal system at the given temperature.


Question 48:

In a solvent S, a compound B is partially dissociated into C and D as given below:

B \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2C + 2D

B, C and D are non-volatile in nature. The molar mass of B is 10 times the molar mass of S. The standard boiling point and the standard enthalpy of vaporization of S are 400 K and 10R J mol\(^{-1}\), respectively (R is the gas constant in J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)). A solution of B in S with an initial concentration of B as 0.25% (mass/mass) has a boiling point of 408 K at 1 bar pressure. In this solution, the mole percent of B that has been dissociated is _______.


Question 49:

Consider that the coordinating atoms of the ligands in cis-[Co(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)Cl\(_2\)]Cl and mer-[Co(NH\(_3\))\(_3\)Cl\(_3\)] octahedral complexes are at the vertices of an octahedron. The sum of total number of the triangular faces in both the complexes having one N atom and two Cl atoms at their corners is _______.


Question 50:

In the following reaction sequence, major products X and Y are acyclic monomers.
\(CH_3I \xrightarrow{1. KCN}{2. H_3O^+, \Delta}{3. Red P, Br_2}{4. NH_3 (excess)} X \)
\(Caprolactam \xrightarrow{H_3O^+, \Delta} Y \)

500 mol of X completely reacts with 500 mol of Y to give 1 mol of a single biodegradable acyclic copolymer Z as the only product. The amount of Z formed in grams is _______.

Given: Atomic mass (in amu): H : 1, C : 12, N : 14, O : 16, Br : 80


Question 51:

Two volatile liquids A and B form an ideal solution. Consider a 5 molal solution of B in A inside a closed container having a total vapour pressure of 100 mm Hg at 300 K. The vapour pressure of pure A at 300 K is 105 mm Hg. Assume that A and B behave as ideal gases in the vapour phase.

Given:
The gas constant \(R = 0.08 \,L atm K^{-1} mol^{-1}\)

Molar mass of A is \(50 \,g mol^{-1}\)

Molar mass of B is \(57 \,g mol^{-1}\)

Density of liquid B at \(300\,K\) is \(0.5 \,g mL^{-1}\)
\(1\,atm = 760\,mm Hg\)





At 300 K, the ratio of the molar volume of pure B in vapour phase to its molar volume in liquid phase is _______.


Question 52:

Two volatile liquids A and B form an ideal solution. Consider a 5 molal solution of B in A inside a closed container having a total vapour pressure of 100 mm Hg at 300 K. The vapour pressure of pure A at 300 K is 105 mm Hg. Assume that A and B behave as ideal gases in the vapour phase.

Given:
The gas constant \(R = 0.08 \,L atm K^{-1} mol^{-1}\)

Molar mass of A is \(50 \,g mol^{-1}\)

Molar mass of B is \(57 \,g mol^{-1}\)

Density of liquid B at \(300\,K\) is \(0.5 \,g mL^{-1}\)
\(1\,atm = 760\,mm Hg\)

The mole fraction of B in vapour phase which is in equilibrium with this solution is _______.


Question 53:

Consider the following reaction sequence in which J, K, L and M are the major products.



Given:

Atomic mass (in amu): H : 1,\; C : 12,\; N : 14,\; O : 16,\; S : 32,\; Br : 80,\; Ba : 137


The volume of 1 M aqueous \(H_2SO_4\) required to completely neutralize the ammonia evolved from 5.72 g of L in Kjeldahl’s method of nitrogen estimation is _____ mL.


Question 54:

Consider the following reaction sequence in which J, K, L and M are the major products.



Given:

Atomic mass (in amu): H : 1,\; C : 12,\; N : 14,\; O : 16,\; S : 32,\; Br : 80,\; Ba : 137



In sulphur estimation by Carius method, the amount of \(BaSO_4\) formed from 3.79 g of M is _____ g.

JEE Advanced Exam Pattern 2026: Marking Scheme for Each Subject in Paper 2

Section Types of Questions No. of Questions Marking Scheme Total Marks
1 Single Correct MCQs 4 +3 for correct, -1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted 12
2 Multiple Correct MCQs 5 +4 (all correct), +3 (3 out of 4 correct), +2 (2 correct), +1 (1 correct), 0 (none), -2 (others) 20
3 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) 5 +4 for correct, no negative marking 20
4 Paragraph-based/Comprehension 4 +2 for correct, no negative marking 8
Total 18 60

JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 2 Analysis

JEE Advanced 2026 Chapter-Wise Weightage

Physics Chapter-Wise Weightage

Chapter Weightage (%)
Mechanics (including Rotational Motion, Laws of Motion, etc.) 25–30%
Electrostatics & Capacitance 7–9%
Current Electricity 6–8%
Magnetism & Moving Charges 5–7%
Electromagnetic Induction & AC 5–6%
Heat and Thermodynamics 6–8%
Kinetic Theory of Gases 2–3%
Waves and Sound 4–5%
Optics (Ray + Wave) 8–10%
Modern Physics (Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductors) 6–8%
Units & Dimensions, Error Analysis 2–3%

Chemistry Chapter-Wise Weightage

Chapter Weightage (%)
Mole Concept & Stoichiometry 4–5%
Atomic Structure & Periodic Table 4–6%
Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure 6–8%
States of Matter 3–5%
Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry 5–7%
Equilibrium (Chemical + Ionic) 5–7%
Redox Reactions & Electrochemistry 5–6%
Chemical Kinetics 3–4%
Coordination Compounds 6–8%
The p-block, d- and f-block Elements 5–7%
Hydrocarbons & General Organic Chemistry 6–8%
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers 4–5%
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids 4–6%
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes 3–5%
Amines & Biomolecules 3–5%
Environmental Chemistry & Chemistry in Everyday Life 1–2%

Mathematics Chapter-Wise Weightage

Chapter Weightage (%)
Sets, Relations, Functions 3–4%
Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations 4–5%
Permutations & Combinations 3–4%
Binomial Theorem & Sequences 3–4%
Matrices and Determinants 5–6%
Probability 4–5%
Trigonometry 5–6%
Limits, Continuity, and Differentiability 6–8%
Application of Derivatives 5–6%
Integrals & Area under Curve 7–9%
Differential Equations 4–5%
Coordinate Geometry (Straight Line, Circle, Parabola, etc.) 10–12%
Vectors and 3D Geometry 6–8%

JEE Advanced 2026 Important Topics

Subject Important Topics
Physics
  • Rotational Motion
  • Laws of Motion
  • Electrostatics
  • Current Electricity
  • Optics
  • Modern Physics
  • Thermodynamics
  • Magnetism
  • EMI & AC
Chemistry
  • Chemical Bonding
  • Coordination Compounds
  • Electrochemistry
  • Thermodynamics
  • Chemical Kinetics
  • P-block
  • Aldehydes & Ketones
  • Organic Reaction Mechanisms
Mathematics
  • Calculus (Limits, Integration, AOD)
  • Vectors & 3D Geometry
  • Matrices & Determinants
  • Probability
  • Complex Numbers
  • Coordinate Geometry
  • Binomial Theorem