CUET PG Nano Technology Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG Nano Technology paper 2024 on from March 23 in Shift 2. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Nano Technology question paper.

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Nano Science Nano Technology Question Paper With Solutions

Question 1:

Bond angle in ammonia molecule is:

  • (1) Higher than the methane molecule
  • (2) Higher than the water molecule
  • (3) Lower than the water molecule
  • (4) Equal to the methane molecule
Correct Answer: (2) Higher than the water molecule
View Solution

The bond angle in ammonia \(\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)\) is approximately \(107^\circ\), which is higher than that in water \(\left(\mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}\right)\), where the bond angle is \(104.5^\circ\). This difference arises due to the stronger lone pair-bond pair repulsion in water, which compresses its bond angle more than in ammonia.

Quick Tip: Remember: Bond angles decrease with increasing lone pair-bond pair repulsions.


Question 2:

Fullerene is the allotrope of:

  • (1) Carbon
  • (2) Sulphur
  • (3) Phosphorus
  • (4) Fluorine
Correct Answer: (1) Carbon
View Solution

Fullerenes, also known as buckyballs, are allotropes of carbon. These molecules consist of carbon atoms arranged in a spherical, tubular, or ellipsoidal structure. The most common fullerene is \(C_{60}\), which has a structure resembling a soccer ball.

Quick Tip: Fullerenes belong to the carbon family, similar to graphite and diamond.


Question 3:

Which of the following oxidation states of lanthanides is preferably more stable?

  • (1) +2 oxidation state
  • (2) +3 oxidation state
  • (3) +4 oxidation state
  • (4) +1 oxidation state
Correct Answer: (2) +3 oxidation state
View Solution

The +3 oxidation state is the most stable and common for lanthanides. This stability arises because the removal of three electrons results in a half-filled or empty \(4f\) orbital configuration, which is energetically favorable.

Quick Tip: Lanthanides prefer +3 oxidation due to their electron configuration stability.


Question 4:

Which pair of the following transition elements shows the highest number of oxidation states?

  • (1) Chromium and Titanium
  • (2) Nickel and Iron
  • (3) Copper and Zinc
  • (4) Chromium and Manganese
Correct Answer: (4) Chromium and Manganese
View Solution

Chromium and Manganese exhibit the highest number of oxidation states due to their ability to lose multiple \(d\)-electrons during bonding. Chromium exhibits oxidation states from +1 to +6, while Manganese shows oxidation states ranging from +2 to +7.

Quick Tip: The number of oxidation states increases with the availability of unpaired \(d\)-electrons.


Question 5:

Ziegler-Natta catalyst is used for the polymerization of ethylene to produce:

  • (1) Stereoregular polyethylene
  • (2) Branched polyethylene
  • (3) Low-density polyethylene
  • (4) Random polyethylene
Correct Answer: (3) Low-density polyethylene
View Solution

The Ziegler-Natta catalyst is specifically used to produce low-density polyethylene, such as isotactic and syndiotactic polymers. These polymers have well-defined arrangements of their molecular chains, leading to higher strength and crystallinity.

Quick Tip: Ziegler-Natta catalysts are designed for controlling the low-density of polymers.


Question 6:

PCl5 is highly reactive; hence, in solid state, it is dissociated into:

  • (1) [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6]- octahedral respectively
  • (2) [PCl3]+ and [PCl3]- respectively
  • (3) [PCl2]+ tetrahedral and [PCl4]- octahedral respectively
  • (4) [PCl2]+ tetrahedral and [PCl3]- octahedral respectively
Correct Answer: (1) [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6]- octahedral respectively
View Solution

In the solid state, PCl5 dissociates into [PCl4]+ and [PCl6]-. [PCl4]+ adopts a tetrahedral geometry due to sp3 hybridization, while [PCl6]- adopts an octahedral geometry due to sp3d2 hybridization.

Quick Tip: Remember: PCl5 in solid state dissociates due to ionic interactions stabilizing the ions.


Question 7:

For the change Fe3+ / Fe2+, E° is +0.77 V, which indicates:

  • (1) Fe3+ has the tendency to reduce to Fe.
  • (2) Fe2+ has the tendency to reduce to Fe.
  • (3) Fe2+ has the tendency to reduce to Fe but Fe3+ does not have the tendency to reduce to Fe.
  • (4) Neither Fe3+ nor Fe2+ have the tendency to reduce to Fe.
Correct Answer: (4) Neither Fe3+ nor Fe2+ have the tendency to reduce to Fe.
View Solution

The positive standard electrode potential (E° = +0.77 V) indicates that Fe3+ has a strong tendency to gain electrons and reduce to Fe2+. However, the reduction of Fe2+ to Fe is less favorable compared to Fe3+ to Fe2+.

Quick Tip: A positive E° value indicates a spontaneous reduction tendency.


Question 8:

Liquid drop model was proposed to explain:

  • (1) The structure of an atom
  • (2) The stability of the nucleus
  • (3) Geometry of the molecules
  • (4) Polarization in the molecule
Correct Answer: (2) The stability of the nucleus
View Solution

The liquid drop model explains the stability of the nucleus by considering the nucleus as a drop of incompressible nuclear fluid. It accounts for nuclear binding energy and processes such as nuclear fission.

Quick Tip: The liquid drop model helps in understanding nuclear forces and binding energy variations.


Question 9:

Gadolinium belongs to the:

  • (1) s-block elements
  • (2) p-block elements
  • (3) d-block elements
  • (4) f-block elements
Correct Answer: (4) f-block elements
View Solution

Gadolinium is an f-block element, specifically a lanthanide, with its electrons filling the \(4f\) orbital. It exhibits properties typical of rare-earth elements.

Quick Tip: Remember: Lanthanides and actinides belong to the f-block of the periodic table.


Question 10:

Which of the following has the highest bond order?

  • (1) O2-
  • (2) O22
  • (3) O2+
  • (4) O2++
Correct Answer: (4) O2++
View Solution

The bond order can be calculated using the formula: Bond Order = (Number of bonding electrons - Number of antibonding electrons) / 2. For O2++, the bond order is highest as there are fewer antibonding electrons compared to other species.

Quick Tip: Higher bond order indicates stronger and shorter bonds; fewer antibonding electrons increase bond order.


Question 11:

The correct energy order for molecular orbitals is:

  • (1) Bonding MO; Non-bonding MO; Antibonding MO
  • (2) Antibonding MO; Non-bonding MO; Bonding MO
  • (3) Non-bonding MO; Bonding MO; Antibonding MO
  • (4) Bonding MO; Antibonding MO; Non-bonding MO
Correct Answer: (1) Bonding MO; Non-bonding MO; Antibonding MO
View Solution

The energy order of molecular orbitals is based on the principle that bonding molecular orbitals have the lowest energy, non-bonding orbitals have intermediate energy, and antibonding molecular orbitals have the highest energy. This arrangement arises from the stabilization of bonding orbitals and the destabilization of antibonding orbitals.

Quick Tip: Bonding orbitals stabilize the molecule, antibonding orbitals destabilize it, and nonbonding orbitals neither stabilize nor destabilize.


Question 12:

[Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] are the examples of:

  • (1) Linkage isomerism
  • (2) Coordination isomerism
  • (3) Ionisation isomerism
  • (4) Hydrate isomerism
Correct Answer: (2) Coordination isomerism
View Solution

Coordination isomerism occurs when the ligands in the cation and anion exchange positions. Here, the ammonia ligand in [Co(NH3)6] and the cyanide ligand in [Cr(CN)6] are swapped, showing coordination isomerism.

Quick Tip: Coordination isomerism involves exchange of ligands between the coordination entities of a salt.


Question 13:

A thermodynamic process which is carried out at constant temperature is called:

  • (1) Isochoric process
  • (2) Isothermal process
  • (3) Isobaric process
  • (4) Adiabatic process
Correct Answer: (2) Isothermal process
View Solution

An isothermal process occurs at constant temperature, where the internal energy of the system remains unchanged. The heat added or removed from the system is fully utilized in doing work.

Quick Tip: In an isothermal process, temperature is constant, and work done equals the heat exchanged.


Question 14:

Which of the following is correct for ionic product of water:

  • (1) Kw = [H+][OH-]
  • (2) Kw = [H+] + [OH-]
  • (3) Kw = [H+] - [OH-]
  • (4) Kw = [H+] = [OH-]
Correct Answer: (1) Kw = [H+][OH-]
View Solution

The ionic product of water is defined as the product of the concentrations of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions in water at a given temperature. It is mathematically expressed as: Kw = [H+][OH-]

Quick Tip: Always remember that the ionic product Kw is a constant at a given temperature and depends only on the temperature.


Question 15:

For the isolated system, if the entropy change is positive, then the process will be:

  • (1) Spontaneous
  • (2) Non-spontaneous
  • (3) In equilibrium
  • (4) Reversible
Correct Answer: (1) Spontaneous
View Solution

In thermodynamics, if the entropy change(Delta S)of an isolated system is positive, it implies that the process is naturally occurring or spontaneous. A spontaneous process increases the overall disorder of the system.

Quick Tip: Remember, for an isolated system, entropy (S) always increases for spontaneous processes, as per the second law of thermodynamics.


Question 16:

Lower value (<10^-3) of equilibrium constant shows that the:

  • (1) Forward reaction is favoured.
  • (2) Backward reaction is favoured.
  • (3) Equilibrium will never be established.
  • (4) Concentration of products dominate over the concentration of reactants.
Correct Answer: (2) Backward reaction is favoured.
View Solution

A lower value of the equilibrium constant (Kc < 10^-3) indicates that the reaction does not proceed significantly towards the products, meaning the concentration of reactants is much higher than that of the products. Therefore, the backward reaction is favoured.

Quick Tip: The equilibrium constant provides insight into the extent of a reaction; small values favour reactants, while large values favour products.


Question 17:

Manufacturing of ammonia is favoured at:

  • (1) Low temperature and high pressure.
  • (2) High temperature and low pressure.
  • (3) High temperature and high pressure.
  • (4) Low temperature and low pressure.
Correct Answer: (1) Low temperature and high pressure.
View Solution

The Haber process for manufacturing ammonia \(\left(\mathrm{N}_2 + 3 \mathrm{H}_2 \leftrightarrow 2 \mathrm{NH}_3 + \Delta \mathrm{H}\right)\) is exothermic. Lower temperatures shift the equilibrium towards ammonia production due to Le Chatelier's principle. High pressure favours the formation of ammonia since fewer moles of gas are produced on the product side.

Quick Tip: The optimal conditions for the Haber process are low temperature (to favour exothermic reaction) and high pressure (to favour fewer moles of gas).


Question 18:

Which of the following statement is not correct for acids?

  • (1) They turn blue litmus to red
  • (2) They react with active metal to produce hydrogen
  • (3) They turn red litmus to blue
  • (4) They are sour in taste
Correct Answer: (3) They turn red litmus to blue
View Solution

- Acids turn blue litmus to red, which is a correct property of acids. - Acids react with active metals to produce hydrogen gas. - Acids do not turn red litmus to blue; this is characteristic of bases. - Acids are sour in taste, which is also a correct property.

Quick Tip: Always analyze chemical properties of acids and bases for identification.


Question 19:

The conjugate base of H2SO4 is

  • (1) SO4^2-
  • (2) HSO4^-
  • (3) HSO4^2-
  • (4) SO4^-
Correct Answer: (3) HSO4^2-
View Solution

- The conjugate base is formed when an acid donates a proton (H+). - For H2SO4, the conjugate base is HSO4^2- after losing one proton.

Quick Tip: Identify the conjugate base by removing one H+ ion from the acid molecule.


Question 20:

Which of the following acidity order is correct?

  • (1) HI < HBr = HCl < HF
  • (2) HF < HCl < HI < HBr
  • (3) HI < HBr < HCl < HF
  • (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
Correct Answer: (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
View Solution

- Acidity of hydrogen halides increases as the bond strength decreases down the group. - Therefore, HF has the strongest bond and lowest acidity, while HI has the weakest bond and highest acidity.

Quick Tip: Remember: Acidity increases down the halogen group in the periodic table.


Question 21:

In methyl cation (CH3+), carbon is

  • (1) sp3-hybridized
  • (2) sp2-hybridized
  • (3) sp-hybridized
  • (4) spd2-hybridized
Correct Answer: (2) sp2-hybridized
View Solution

The methyl cation (CH3+) has three sigma bonds formed by carbon. The fourth orbital is empty, leaving the carbon atom with sp2-hybridization. The geometry of the methyl cation is planar trigonal due to the sp2-hybridization.

Quick Tip: Always analyze the hybridization by counting sigma bonds and lone pairs.


Question 22:

In naphthalene, total number of delocalized pi-electrons are

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (2) 10
View Solution

Naphthalene is an aromatic compound with two fused benzene rings. Each ring contributes 6 pi-electrons, but 2 electrons are shared between the two rings, giving a total of 10 delocalized pi-electrons. This satisfies Huckel's rule (4n+2) for aromaticity.

Quick Tip: For aromatic compounds, use Huckel's rule (4n+2) to calculate delocalized pi-electrons.


Question 23:

Friedel-Craft acylation is an example of

  • (1) Electrophilic substitution reaction
  • (2) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
  • (3) Electrophilic addition reaction
  • (4) Nucleophilic addition reaction
Correct Answer: (1) Electrophilic substitution reaction
View Solution

Friedel-Craft acylation involves the substitution of a hydrogen atom in an aromatic ring with an acyl group (-\(\mathrm{CO}-\)). This reaction proceeds via an electrophilic substitution mechanism, where the acylium ion acts as the electrophile.

Quick Tip: Understand the reaction mechanism to classify it correctly as electrophilic or nucleophilic.


Question 24:

Which of the following order of carbocation stability is correct?

  • (1) CH3+ < CH3CH2+ < (CH3)2CH+ < (CH3)3C+
  • (2) CH3+ > CH3CH2+ > (CH3)2CH+ > (CH3)3C+
  • (3) CH3CH2+ < CH3+ < (CH3)2CH+ < (CH3)3C+
  • (4) (CH3)2CH+ < CH3+ < CH3CH2+ < (CH3)3C+
Correct Answer: (1) CH3+ < CH3CH2+ < (CH3)2CH+ < (CH3)3C+
View Solution

The stability of carbocations increases with the number of alkyl groups attached to the positively charged carbon. This is due to the inductive and hyperconjugation effects provided by alkyl groups, which help stabilize the positive charge. Thus, tertiary carbocations (CH3)3C+ are more stable than secondary carbocations (CH3)2CH+, which are more stable than primary carbocations CH3CH2+, with methyl carbocations CH3+ being the least stable.

Quick Tip: Carbocation stability increases with the substitution on the positively charged carbon due to hyperconjugation and inductive effects.


Question 25:

The monomer unit of natural rubber is

  • (1) Isoprene
  • (2) Ethylene
  • (3) Isobutylene
  • (4) Propene
Correct Answer: (1) Isoprene
View Solution

Natural rubber is a polymer made up of repeating units of isoprene (C5H8). Isoprene undergoes polymerization to form polyisoprene, which constitutes natural rubber.

Quick Tip: Natural rubber is formed through polymerization of isoprene, a hydrocarbon monomer.


Question 26:

Which of the following are coherent sources?

  • (1) A 60 W and a 100 W bulbs
  • (2) Two bulbs each of 60 W
  • (3) Two halves of a 60 W bulb
  • (4) Two virtual sources obtained by a biprism
Correct Answer: (4) Two virtual sources obtained by a biprism
View Solution

Coherent sources are those that maintain a constant phase difference and have the same frequency. Two virtual sources obtained by a biprism satisfy these conditions, as they originate from a single coherent source.

Quick Tip: Coherence by considering sources with consistent phase relationships and identical frequencies.


Question 27:

In Newton's rings arrangement with air film in reflected light, the diameter of nth bright ring is Dn. If the air is replaced by liquid film of refractive index mu, the diameter of nth ring will become:

  • (1) sqrt(mu) Dn
  • (2) (1/sqrt(mu)) Dn
  • (3) (1/mu) Dn
  • (4) mu Dn
Correct Answer: (2) (1/sqrt(mu)) Dn
View Solution

When the air film is replaced with a liquid film of refractive index mu, the effective optical path length changes. The diameter of the nth ring is inversely proportional to the square root of the refractive index. Hence, Dn becomes (1/sqrt(mu)) Dn.

Quick Tip: Refractive index inversely affects the diameter of Newton's rings in optical interference setups.


Question 28:

The intensity ratio of the two interfering beams of light is beta. What is the value of (Imax - Imin)/(Imax + Imin)?

  • (1) 2 sqrt(beta)
  • (2) (2 sqrt(beta))/(1+beta)
  • (3) 2/(1+beta)
  • (4) (1+beta)/(2 sqrt(beta))
Correct Answer: (2) (2 sqrt(beta))/(1+beta)
View Solution

The contrast in the interference pattern is determined by the intensity ratio of the beams. The fringe visibility is given by: V = (Imax - Imin)/(Imax + Imin) where the intensity ratio beta relates to Imax and Imin. Simplifying the expression, we find that: (Imax - Imin)/(Imax + Imin) = (2 sqrt(beta))/(1+beta)

Quick Tip: The fringe visibility measures the sharpness of the interference pattern and depends on the intensity ratio beta.


Question 29:

In an experiment similar to Young's experiment, interference is observed using waves associated with electrons. The electron being produced in an electron gun. In order to increase the fringe width:

  • (1) Electron gun voltage be increased
  • (2) Electron gun voltage be decreased
  • (3) The slits be moved away from each other
  • (4) The screen be moved closer to interfering slits
Correct Answer: (2) Electron gun voltage be decreased
View Solution

Decreasing the voltage of the electron gun reduces the energy of the electrons, which increases their wavelength. According to the fringe width equation for interference, \[ w = \frac{\lambda D}{d} \] where \(\lambda\) is the wavelength, \(D\) is the distance between the slits and the screen, and \(d\) is the slit separation. A larger \(\lambda\) results in a larger fringe width \(w\).

Quick Tip: The fringe width increases with the wavelength of the electron waves, which can be adjusted by varying the voltage.


Question 30:

Using light of lambda = 5.9 x 10^-7 m, it is found that in a thin film of air, 7.4 fringes occur between two points. Deduce the difference of film thickness between these points.

  • (1) 0.22 x 10^-5 m
  • (2) 0.32 x 10^-5 m
  • (3) 0.44 x 10^-5 m
  • (4) 2.21 x 10^-5 m
Correct Answer: (1) 0.22 x 10^-5 m
View Solution

The difference in film thickness Delta t can be calculated using the formula: Delta t = (m lambda)/2 where m is the number of fringes, and lambda is the wavelength of light. Given: m = 7.4, lambda = 5.9 x 10^-7 m. Substitute the values: Delta t = (7.4 x 5.9 x 10^-7)/2 = (43.66 x 10^-7)/2 = 21.83 x 10^-7 m = 0.22 x 10^-5 m. Hence, the difference in film thickness is 0.22 x 10^-5 m.

Quick Tip: For thin films, the fringe count and wavelength are directly proportional to the thickness difference. Always use Delta t = (m lambda)/2 for such problems.


Question 31:

The main difference in the phenomenon of interference and diffraction is that:

  • (1) Diffraction is due to superposition of light waves from the same wave front whereas interference is the superposition of waves from two isolated sources.
  • (2) Diffraction is due to superposition of light waves from different wave fronts, whereas the interference is the superposition of two waves derived from the same source.
  • (3) Diffraction is due to superposition of waves derived from the same source, whereas the interference is the bending of light from the same wavefront.
  • (4) Diffraction is caused by reflected waves from a source whereas interference caused is due to refraction of waves from a surface.
Correct Answer: (2) Diffraction is due to superposition of light waves from different wave fronts, whereas the interference is the superposition of two waves derived from the same source.
View Solution

Diffraction occurs when light waves from a single wavefront interact due to obstacles, creating characteristic patterns. In contrast, interference results from the interaction of waves from two coherent sources. The key difference lies in the origin of the wavefronts involved.

Quick Tip: Differentiate between wavefront interactions: diffraction involves single wavefront bending; interference requires two coherent sources.


Question 32:

If N is the total number of lines on the grating, n is the order of spectrum and lambda is the wavelength of light used, then resolving power of grating is given by:

  • (1) N n lambda
  • (2) N n
  • (3) (N lambda)/n
  • (4) N/n
Correct Answer: (2) N n
View Solution

The resolving power of a grating is directly proportional to the number of lines (N) and the order of the spectrum (n). Thus, it is given by N n.

Quick Tip: Resolving power increases with the number of lines and the order of the spectrum.


Question 33:

The condition for obtaining Fraunhofer diffraction from a single slit is that the light wavefront incident on the slit should be:

  • (1) Spherical
  • (2) Cylindrical
  • (3) Elliptical
  • (4) Plane
Correct Answer: (4) Plane
View Solution

Fraunhofer diffraction occurs when the incident wavefront is plane, implying that the source and the screen are at infinity, or collimating lenses are used to produce and receive parallel light beams.

Quick Tip: Plane wavefront ensures uniform and coherent light for Fraunhofer diffraction.


Question 34:

In a diffraction experiment, the size of obstacle in the path of light should be of the order of:

  • (1) 1 mm
  • (2) 0.1 mm
  • (3) 10^-4 mm
  • (4) 1 cm
Correct Answer: (3) 10^-4 mm
View Solution

The size of the obstacle in a diffraction experiment is comparable to the wavelength of light. For visible light, this corresponds to approximately 10^-4 mm. Larger or smaller obstacles would not produce observable diffraction patterns.

Quick Tip: Diffraction occurs when the obstacle's size is similar to the wavelength of the light used.


Question 35:

Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will reveal:

  • (1) That the central maximum has become narrower
  • (2) More number of fringes
  • (3) Less number of fringes
  • (4) No diffraction pattern
Correct Answer: (4) No diffraction pattern
View Solution

The wavelength of X-rays is much smaller than the slit width of 0.6 mm. As a result, the condition for diffraction (slit width comparable to wavelength) is not met, and no diffraction pattern is observed.

Quick Tip: Diffraction requires the slit width to be comparable to the wavelength of light.


Question 36:

If a wave can be polarized, it must be:

  • (1) A transverse wave
  • (2) A stationary wave
  • (3) A longitudinal wave
  • (4) An electromagnetic wave
Correct Answer: (1) A transverse wave
View Solution

Polarization is a property of transverse waves, where the oscillations occur in directions perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Longitudinal waves, like sound, cannot be polarized as their oscillations are along the direction of propagation.

Quick Tip: Only transverse waves exhibit polarization due to their perpendicular oscillation nature.


Question 37:

When a circularly polarized light, after passing through a quarter-wave plate is examined through a rotating Nicol prism, the emergent light would show that:

  • (1) the intensity of emergent light is \((1/4)^{\text{th}}\) to the intensity of incident light
  • (2) there is no variation of intensity
  • (3) there is variation of intensity with minimum zero
  • (4) that the intensity of emergent and that of incident light is same
Correct Answer: (3) there is variation of intensity with minimum zero
View Solution

Circularly polarized light passing through a Nicol prism exhibits intensity variations due to interference. The minimum intensity observed corresponds to destructive interference.

Quick Tip: The Nicol prism allows the analysis of polarization states, revealing intensity variations with circularly polarized light.


Question 38:

When unpolarized light falls on two Nicol prisms so oriented that no light is transmitted. If a third Nicol prism is placed between them, not parallel to either of the two above Nicol prisms, then:

  • (1) no light is transmitted
  • (2) some light is transmitted
  • (3) light may or may not be transmitted
  • (4) exactly 50% light is transmitted
Correct Answer: (2) some light is transmitted
View Solution

The addition of a third Nicol prism between two crossed Nicol prisms introduces a plane of polarization, allowing some light to pass through.

Quick Tip: A third Nicol prism alters the orientation of light's polarization, enabling partial transmission in otherwise blocked configurations.


Question 39:

Unpolarized light can be converted into a partially polarized or plane polarized light by several processes. Which of the following can do this?

(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(C) Double refraction
(D) Diffraction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution

- Reflection: Polarization occurs as light reflects off a non-metallic surface at specific angles, leading to partially polarized light.
- Refraction: At the boundary between two media, refracted light can become partially polarized.
- Double refraction: Certain anisotropic materials split unpolarized light into two polarized rays.
- Diffraction: Does not cause polarization. It involves the bending of light around obstacles but does not alter the polarization state.

Quick Tip: Reflection, refraction, and double refraction are key phenomena used to polarize light, while diffraction does not contribute to polarization.


Question 40:

If 8 cm length of 5% solution causes the optical rotation of \(20^\circ\), how much length of 10% solution of the same substance will cause \(35^\circ\) rotation?

  • (1) 7 cm
  • (2) 8 cm
  • (3) 12 cm
  • (4) 15 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 7 cm
View Solution

The optical rotation \((\alpha)\) is directly proportional to the concentration \((C)\) of the solution and the path length \((l)\): \[ \alpha \propto C \cdot l \] Given: \(\alpha_1 = 20^\circ\), \(C_1 = 5\%\), \(l_1 = 8 \mathrm{cm}\), \(\alpha_2 = 35^\circ\), \(C_2 = 10\%\). Using proportionality: \[ \frac{\alpha_1}{\alpha_2} = \frac{C_2 \cdot l_2}{C_1 \cdot l_1} \] Substitute the values: \[ \frac{20}{35} = \frac{10 \cdot l_2}{5 \cdot 8} \] \[ \frac{4}{7} = \frac{2 \cdot l_2}{8} \] \[ l_2 = \frac{4 \cdot 8}{7 \cdot 2} = 7 \mathrm{cm} \]

Quick Tip: Use the direct proportionality between optical rotation, concentration, and path length to solve such problems.


Question 41:

Choose the correct statements for the photoelectric effect:

(A) The number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to light intensity.
(B) The velocity of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
(C) The photoelectric effect is an instantaneous process.
(D) The stopping potential is independent of the incident frequency.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B), and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

1. The number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to the light intensity because higher intensity provides more photons to release electrons.
2. The velocity of photoelectrons depends on the frequency of light, as the energy of photoelectrons is given by \(E = h f - \phi\).
3. The photoelectric effect is an instantaneous process as the emission of photoelectrons occurs without any delay when sufficient energy is provided.
4. The stopping potential depends on the frequency of the incident light, so statement (D) is incorrect.

Quick Tip: For the photoelectric effect, remember: intensity influences the number of photoelectrons, while frequency impacts their velocity.


Question 42:

According to the uncertainty relation, the minimum uncertainty in the velocity of an electron orbiting around the nucleus in an orbit of radius r is:

  • (1) h / (2πmr)
  • (2) h / (2mr)
  • (3) 2mr
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (1) h / (2πmr)
View Solution

Using the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, Δp · Δx ≥ h / 2, we calculate the uncertainty in velocity for an electron in orbit, leading to the given answer.

Quick Tip: The relationship h = h / (2π) for conversions.


Question 43:

In a reversible process, the entropy of the system:

  • (1) increases
  • (2) decreases
  • (3) remains constant
  • (4) remains zero
Correct Answer: (3) remains constant
View Solution

For a reversible process, entropy changes are zero as there is no net entropy production in the system. The entropy remains constant.

Quick Tip: Reversible processes are idealized and involve no dissipation.


Question 44:

The relative permittivity of distilled water is 81. Calculate the velocity of light in it.

  • (1) 2.0 × 10^7 m/s
  • (2) 2.8 × 10^7 m/s
  • (3) 3.3 × 10^7 m/s
  • (4) 3.0 × 10^8 m/s
Correct Answer: (3) 3.3 × 10^7 m/s
View Solution

Using the formula v = c / √(εr), where c is the speed of light in a vacuum and εr is the relative permittivity: v = (3.0 × 10^8) / √(81) = 3.3 × 10^7 m/s

Quick Tip: v = c / √(εr) for speed in dielectric media.


Question 45:

Copper crystal belongs to:

  • (1) bcc structure
  • (2) close packed fcc structure
  • (3) close packed hexagonal structure
  • (4) face centred tetragonal structure
Correct Answer: (2) close packed fcc structure
View Solution

Copper crystallizes in a face-centered cubic (fcc) structure due to its high atomic packing factor, making it stable and dense. This type of structure ensures efficient atomic arrangement and provides optimal mechanical and thermal properties.

Quick Tip: Metals with high ductility and thermal conductivity often exhibit an fcc structure.


Question 46:

Dielectric materials are mainly:

  • (1) insulating
  • (2) conducting
  • (3) semiconducting
  • (4) ferroelectric
Correct Answer: (1) insulating
View Solution

Dielectric materials are poor conductors of electricity but can store electrical energy when placed in an electric field. They are primarily used as insulators in capacitors, transformers, and other electronic devices.

Quick Tip: Dielectric materials have high resistivity and a large breakdown voltage, making them ideal for insulation.


Question 47:

The resistivity of a metal

  • (1) increases linearly with T at high temperatures
  • (2) decreases linearly with T at high temperatures
  • (3) is proportional to T^3 at high temperatures
  • (4) is proportional to T^(1/3) at high temperatures
Correct Answer: (1) increases linearly with T at high temperatures
View Solution

As temperature increases, the lattice vibrations in metals intensify, causing more frequent collisions of conduction electrons with lattice ions. This results in a linear increase in resistivity with temperature at high ranges.

Quick Tip: Resistivity of metals is dominated by temperature-dependent lattice vibrations.


Question 48:

The resistivity of a sample semiconductor is 9 milli-ohm-metre. Its holes have mobility of 0.03 m^2 / V s. The Hall coefficient is:

  • (1) 1.7 x 10^-4 m^3 / C
  • (2) 2.7 x 10^-4 m^3 / C
  • (3) 3.4 x 10^-4 m^3 / C
  • (4) 4.9 x 10^-4 m^3 / C
Correct Answer: (2) 2.7 x 10^-4 m^3 / C
View Solution

The Hall coefficient (RH) is calculated using the formula: RH = (mu * rho) / 1 where mu = 0.03 m^2 / V s and rho = 9 x 10^-3 ohm m. Substituting: RH = 0.03 * 9 x 10^-3 = 2.7 x 10^-4 m^3 / C

Quick Tip: The Hall coefficient is directly proportional to the mobility and resistivity of the material.


Question 49:

Cooper pair is a system of two electrons bound by exchange of:

  • (1) phonon between them
  • (2) photon between them
  • (3) proton between them
  • (4) neutron between them
Correct Answer: (1) phonon between them
View Solution

In the BCS theory of superconductivity, Cooper pairs are formed when electrons interact with the crystal lattice through the exchange of phonons (quantized lattice vibrations). This interaction causes an attractive force that overcomes the natural repulsion between electrons.

Quick Tip: Phonons play a key role in binding electrons into Cooper pairs, crucial for understanding superconductivity.


Question 50:

The diamagnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is:

  • (1) small and negative
  • (2) small and positive
  • (3) large and negative
  • (4) large and positive
Correct Answer: (1) small and negative
View Solution

Diamagnetic materials have no unpaired electrons, and their magnetic susceptibility \((x)\) is always negative and small. This is because they slightly oppose the applied magnetic field due to the induced current loops within the material.

Quick Tip: Diamagnetic materials always exhibit a small negative susceptibility regardless of the temperature.


Question 51:

Out of all the 20 standard amino acids, which one of the following amino acids does not have any asymmetric carbon atom?

  • (1) Lysine
  • (2) Glycine
  • (3) Alanine
  • (4) Tyrosine
Correct Answer: (2) Glycine
View Solution

Glycine is the simplest amino acid with the formula \(\mathrm{NH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{COOH}\). Its alpha carbon is bonded to two hydrogen atoms, making it symmetric and thus not chiral. In contrast, all other amino acids except glycine have at least one asymmetric (chiral) carbon atom.

Quick Tip: Glycine's lack of a chiral center makes it the only achiral standard amino acid.


Question 52:

A sample of purified DNA contains 20 mole percentage of Cytosine (C). If only the four major bases are present i.e., A, T, G, and C, then the mole percentage of Purine residues in the DNA sample is:

  • (1) 40%
  • (2) 60%
  • (3) 30%
  • (4) 20%
Correct Answer: (3) 30%
View Solution

DNA bases include two purines (Adenine, A and Guanine, G) and two pyrimidines (Cytosine, C and Thymine, T). Given Cytosine is 20%, Thymine must also be 20% to maintain base pairing. Thus, purines (A and G) together make up the remaining 60% (equally divided). Therefore, the total mole percentage of purine residues (A + G) is 30%.

Quick Tip: DNA base pairing ensures %A + %G = %T + %C in a sample.


Question 53:

Match List-I with List-II:

| List I (Enzymes) | List II (Function/Role) |
| --- | --- |
| A. Hydrolases | IV. Cleavage of bonds by adding water |
| B. Isomerases | III. Catalyze intramolecular arrangements and produces isomeric forms |
| C. Oxidoreductases | II. Catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions |
| D. Transferases | I. Transfer of groups from one molecule to another |

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
View Solution

- Hydrolases (A) catalyze the cleavage of bonds by adding water (IV).
- Isomerases (B) catalyze intramolecular arrangements to produce isomers (III).
- Oxidoreductases (C) catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions (II).
- Transferases (D) transfer functional groups between molecules (I).

Quick Tip: Enzyme classification is based on the type of reaction they catalyze. Memorize key examples for better recall.


Question 54:

In Citric acid cycle, how many steps are involved in Oxidation-Reduction?

  • (1) Two
  • (2) One
  • (3) Five
  • (4) Four
Correct Answer: (4) Four
View Solution

The Citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, involves four oxidation-reduction steps:
1. Isocitrate is oxidized to alpha-ketoglutarate.
2. Alpha-ketoglutarate is oxidized to succinyl-CoA.
3. Succinate is oxidized to fumarate.
4. Malate is oxidized to oxaloacetate.
Each of these steps produces reduced cofactors such as {NADH} or {FADH}, which are critical for ATP production during oxidative phosphorylation.

Quick Tip: The intermediates of the Krebs cycle and their associated enzymes for quick recall in exams.


Question 55:

Blood performs which of the following functions?

  • (1) Transportation of gases, nutrients, hormones, and wastes.
  • (2) Protection against blood loss by clotting.
  • (3) Regulation of pH, body temperature, and water content of cells.
  • (4) Protection against diseases through phagocytic activity with cells and antibodies.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  • (3) (A), (B), and (C) only
  • (4) (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C) only
View Solution

Blood performs multiple essential functions in the body:
1. Transportation: It carries oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic waste products.
2. Protection: Blood clots to prevent excessive blood loss and fights infections through immune responses.
3. Regulation: It helps in maintaining pH balance, body temperature, and water content of cells.
Thus, all options (A), (B), (C) only are correct. Quick Tip: The acronym TPR (Transportation, Protection, Regulation) to recall the major functions of blood.


Question 56:

Phospholipids derived from sphingosine are known as:

  • (1) Glycolipids
  • (2) Sphingophospholipids
  • (3) Lipoproteins
  • (4) Glycerophospholipids
Correct Answer: (2) Sphingophospholipids
View Solution

Sphingophospholipids are a class of phospholipids that incorporate sphingosine as a backbone. These lipids play an essential role in cell membrane structure and signaling pathways. Quick Tip: Sphingosine-based lipids primarily form the backbone of sphingophospholipids, crucial for nerve cell membranes.


Question 57:

The plasma membrane of human RBC has:

  • (1) 45% Lipid and 47% Protein
  • (2) 43% Lipid and 49% Protein
  • (3) 40% Lipid and 52% Protein
  • (4) 35% Lipid and 57% Protein
Correct Answer: (2) 43% Lipid and 49% Protein
View Solution

The plasma membrane of human red blood cells contains a composition of approximately 43% lipids and 49% proteins. This composition allows the membrane to maintain flexibility and stability while facilitating transport functions. Quick Tip: Red blood cell membranes have more protein than lipids to support oxygen exchange and structural integrity.


Question 58:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The overall size of prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes are 70S and 80S, respectively.

Reason (R): The small subunit of prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes are 30S and 40S, respectively. The large subunit of prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes are 50S and 60S, respectively.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Ribosomes in prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ in their sedimentation coefficients. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S (with 50S large and 30S small subunits), and eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S (with 60S large and 40S small subunits). The reason correctly explains the assertion. Quick Tip: The sedimentation coefficient (S) is not additive due to the shape and density of ribosomal subunits.


Question 59:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Phases) List-II (Features)
A. Metaphase III. Chromosomes get aligned along metaphase plate through spindle fibres
B. Anaphase I. Splitting of centromeres, separation of chromatids, they move opposite poles
C. Telophase IV. Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosomes
D. Cytokinesis II. Formation of furrow/cell plate and division of cytoplasm into two

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

The phases of cell division are characterized by specific events:
- Metaphase: Chromosomes align along the metaphase plate through spindle fibres.
- Anaphase: Centromeres split, and chromatids move toward opposite poles.
- Telophase: Nuclear envelope reassembles around chromosomes.
- Cytokinesis: The cytoplasm divides into two cells via a furrow or cell plate.
Quick Tip: Memorize the sequence and key events of mitotic phases for quick identification.


Question 60:

Formation of Chiasmata occurs at which stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I?

  • (1) Leptotene
  • (2) Pachytene
  • (3) Zygotene
  • (4) Diplotene
Correct Answer: (4) Diplotene
View Solution

Chiasmata formation, which represents the physical manifestation of crossing over between homologous chromosomes, occurs during the Diplotene stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I. During this stage, the homologous chromosomes begin to separate, but remain connected at the points of crossing over, termed chiasmata. Quick Tip: The sequence of Prophase I stages as Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, and Diakinesis, and associate key events with each.


Question 61:

From the following, identify the statements which are true for a tumor suppressor gene, p53:

  • (1) It encodes 53 kDa protein.
  • (2) It is located on chromosome no. 17.
  • (3) It is known as guardian of genome.
  • (4) It checks progression of cell cycle in G1 phase.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
View Solution

The p53 gene encodes a 53 kDa protein that functions as a tumor suppressor. It is located on chromosome 17 and plays a critical role in regulating cell cycle progression at the G1 phase. It is often referred to as the "guardian of the genome" for its role in preventing genomic instability and maintaining the integrity of DNA. Quick Tip: The mnemonic "p53 = Protector of 53 kDa genome," highlighting its role in regulating the cell cycle and genomic stability.


Question 62:

If pH of a solution HA, which dissociates into H⁺ + A⁻, equals the pKa, then

  • (1) The concentration of the acid form of compound [HA] equals the concentration of dissociated form of the compound [A⁻].
  • (2) The solution has higher capacity for buffering than at any other pH.
  • (3) The pH of a solution is 7.
  • (4) The hydrogen ion concentration is equal to dissociated of the acid HA into H⁺ + A⁻.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
View Solution

When the pH of a solution equals the pKa, the concentrations of [HA] and [A⁻] are equal, indicating the solution is at its maximum buffering capacity. The pH may not necessarily be 7 as it depends on the acid dissociation constant Ka. Statement (D) is true since [H⁺] equals the dissociated form of HA. Quick Tip: The rule of thumb for buffers is: pH = pKa means equal concentrations of weak acid and its conjugate base.


Question 63:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Endocrine Glands) List-II (Hormones)
A. Adrenal Cortex I. T3 and T4
B. Ovaries II. Testosterone
C. Thyroid Gland III. Aldosterone
D. Testes IV. Progesterone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

- The adrenal cortex primarily secretes aldosterone (III), which regulates sodium and potassium levels.
- The ovaries produce progesterone (IV), a hormone critical for maintaining pregnancy.
- The thyroid gland secretes T3 and T4 (I), which regulate metabolic processes.
- The testes produce testosterone (II), responsible for male secondary sexual characteristics.
Quick Tip: The glands and their associated hormones using mnemonics like "ATP" for Adrenal-Aldosterone, Thyroid-T3/T4, and Progesterone-Ovaries.


Question 64:

Statement (I): DNA Polymerase activity is involved in the proofreading activity during DNA replication.

Statement (II): 5' to 3' exonuclease activity is involved in the proofreading activity during DNA replication.

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
  • (3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
  • (4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
Correct Answer: (3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
View Solution

DNA Polymerase activity is responsible for proofreading during DNA replication, specifically correcting mismatches via 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. The mentioned 5' to 3' exonuclease activity is not involved in proofreading; instead, it is used for primer removal and strand replacement in certain polymerases. Quick Tip: Proofreading occurs via 3' to 5' exonuclease activity, ensuring high fidelity in DNA replication.


Question 65:

Telomerase is:

  • (1) Involved in replication of linear double-stranded DNA.
  • (2) Species-specific.
  • (3) A ribonucleoprotein.
  • (4) Present in somatic cells.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
View Solution

Telomerase is essential for the replication of linear chromosomes, preventing the shortening of telomeres during cell division. It is species-specific, and as a ribonucleoprotein enzyme, it uses its RNA component as a template for adding telomeric sequences. However, telomerase is not commonly present in somatic cells, except in cases like cancer cells or stem cells. Quick Tip: Link telomerase function with telomere length maintenance and its role in aging and cancer biology.


Question 66:

In E. coli, during mismatch repair, the parental strand is identified by:

  • (1) Glycosylated adenines.
  • (2) Methylated adenines.
  • (3) Single-stranded breaks.
  • (4) Methylation of guanine at the 6th position.
Correct Answer: (2) Methylated adenines.
View Solution

During mismatch repair in E. coli, the parental DNA strand is identified by the presence of methylated adenines. The Dam methylase enzyme methylates the adenine residues in the sequence GATC on the parental strand. The newly synthesized strand remains temporarily unmethylated, allowing the mismatch repair machinery to distinguish between the parental and the daughter strands. Quick Tip: E. coli, GATC methylation is the key to distinguishing the strands during mismatch repair.


Question 67:

Assertion-Reason on tRNA Processing

Assertion (A): During pre-tRNA processing, addition of a poly-A tail takes place.

Reason (R): Addition of a CCA sequence at the 3' end takes place during pre-tRNA processing.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
View Solution

During pre-tRNA processing, a poly-A tail is not added. The poly-A tail addition is specific to mRNA. However, the CCA sequence is indeed added at the 3' end during tRNA maturation, as this sequence is necessary for amino acid attachment. Quick Tip: CCA addition is unique to tRNA, while the poly-A tail is specific to mRNA.


Question 68:

Shine Dalgarno sequence is involved in

  • (1) Binding of DNA polymerase to ori during DNA replication.
  • (2) Binding of RNA polymerase during transcription.
  • (3) Binding of Snurps during splicing.
  • (4) Binding of ribosomes to mRNA during translation initiation.
Correct Answer: (4) Binding of ribosomes to mRNA during translation initiation.
View Solution

The Shine Dalgarno sequence is a ribosomal binding site in bacterial mRNA. It helps the ribosome align the mRNA properly for translation initiation. It is typically located upstream of the start codon. Quick Tip: The Shine Dalgarno sequence is specific to prokaryotic mRNA and is absent in eukaryotes.


Question 69:

The clot consists of

  • (1) Blood.
  • (2) Network of insoluble protein fibers.
  • (3) Serum.
  • (4) Platelets.
Correct Answer: (2) Network of insoluble protein fibers.
View Solution

Clots are formed during the coagulation process and are primarily made up of fibrin, an insoluble protein fiber network. This structure traps blood cells, effectively sealing wounds. Quick Tip: Think of fibrin as the "glue" holding the clot structure together.


Question 70:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The first heart sound 'lub' is heard when ventricles contract at systole, and the second heart sound 'dup' is heard when ventricles relax at the beginning of diastole.

Reason (R): The 'lub' sound is associated with closure of AV valves, and the 'dup' sound is associated with closure of semilunar valves.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

The first heart sound 'lub' is caused by the closure of atrioventricular (AV) valves during ventricular contraction (systole). The second heart sound 'dup' is caused by the closure of semilunar valves during ventricular relaxation (diastole). Thus, both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason explains the assertion. Quick Tip: 'Lub' = AV valve closure during systole. 'Dup' = Semilunar valve closure during diastole.


Question 71:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Disease) List-II (Causative Agents)
A. Syphilis I. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Tuberculosis II. Treponema pallidum
C. AIDS III. Bordetella pertussis
D. Whooping Cough  IV. Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution

Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum (II), Tuberculosis by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (I), AIDS by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (IV), and Whooping Cough by Bordetella pertussis (III). Quick Tip: Causative agents by associating the disease with its unique symptoms or key features for easy memorization.


Question 72:

Methylcytosines are common sites for the mutations as

  • (1) They can mispair with Adenine.
  • (2) They can deaminate to Uracil.
  • (3) They can pair with Uracil.
  • (4) They can deaminate to Thymidine.
Correct Answer: (4) They can deaminate to Thymidine.
View Solution

Methylcytosines often undergo deamination, converting into thymine rather than uracil. This type of mutation can lead to point mutations, significantly impacting genetic sequences. Quick Tip: Methylcytosines deaminate to thymidine, leading to common point mutations. Memorize this for understanding DNA mutation patterns.


Question 73:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Concept) List-II (Example)
A. Incomplete Dominance I. Skin colour in Human beings
B. Complementary Genes II. AB blood group in Human beings
C. Polygenes III. Pink Flower in 4 o'clock plant
D. Co-dominance IV. Purple color in maize

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

Incomplete dominance is exemplified by Pink flowers in 4 o'clock plants (III), Complementary genes by Purple color in maize (IV), Polygenes by Skin color in humans (I), and Co-dominance by AB blood group (II). Quick Tip: Matching List questions can be answered easily by connecting the scientific concept to real-life examples.


Question 74:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Innate immune response is antigen non-specific, and rapid.

Statement (II): Adaptive immune response is antigen specific, and rapid.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
  • (3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
  • (4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
Correct Answer: (3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
View Solution

The innate immune response is non-specific and rapid, whereas the adaptive immune response is specific but slower, requiring time to develop against a particular antigen. Hence, Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false. Quick Tip: Innate immunity acts as the body's first line of defense and is non-specific. Adaptive immunity takes longer to respond but is highly specific to the antigen.


Question 75:

The smallest unit of antigen that has capacity to bind with antibodies is known as

  • (1) Paratope.
  • (2) Epitope.
  • (3) Monotope.
  • (4) Hapten.
Correct Answer: (2) Epitope.
View Solution

The epitope is the specific part of an antigen recognized and bound by antibodies. It is the smallest functional unit in antigen-antibody interactions. Quick Tip: Epitope = Antigen's binding site; Paratope = Antibody's binding site.


CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper