CUET PG Medical Laboratory Technology Question Paper 2024 will be available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG Medical Laboratory Technology paper 2024 on from March 21 in Shift 1. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Medical Laboratory Technology question paper.
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Medical Laboratory Technology 2024 Questions with Solutions
Question 1:
What is the main function of myosin?
View Solution
Myosin is a motor protein that plays a key role in muscle contraction by hydrolyzing ATP to produce movement. Its primary function is ATPase activity.
ATPase activity in myosin is crucial for muscle contraction, as it provides the energy for the power stroke.
Question 2:
Which heart sound is sharp, short, and caused by the sudden closure of semilunar valves?
View Solution
The second heart sound (S2) is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the end of systole. It is sharp, short, and high-pitched.
The second heart sound (S2) marks the end of systole and is associated with the closing of the semilunar valves.
Question 3:
Which enzyme curdles the milk and converts caseinogens first into paracaseinogen and then into calcium paracaseinate?
View Solution
Chymosin, also known as rennet, is an enzyme that curdles milk by breaking down caseinogen into paracasein and calcium paracaseinate, which leads to the formation of curds.
Chymosin is crucial in dairy production, as it helps in curdling milk to separate curds from whey.
Question 4:
What is the main source of energy for skeletal muscle?
View Solution
Glucose, in the form of glycogen stored in muscles, is the primary energy source for skeletal muscles during short-term and intense activity.
During exercise, muscles primarily rely on glucose for quick energy production, especially in anaerobic conditions.
Question 5:
Muscle of forearm is divided into which groups?
View Solution
The muscles of the forearm can be categorized based on their location as superior (closer to the elbow) and inferior (closer to the wrist). These groupings help in classifying the muscles according to their function and position in the forearm.
The superior and inferior classification of muscles helps in understanding the anatomical positioning and movement function of the forearm muscles.
Question 6:
An increase in intraocular tension produced due to excessive collection of aqueous humour is called
View Solution
Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to an excessive buildup of aqueous humour, which can damage the optic nerve.
Regular eye exams can help detect glaucoma early and prevent vision loss caused by increased intraocular pressure.
Question 7:
Pleura, the covering of lungs is \_\_ membrane
View Solution
The pleura is a serous membrane that covers the lungs and lines the chest cavity. It produces a small amount of fluid to reduce friction during breathing.
The serous pleura plays an important role in reducing friction and protecting the lungs during respiratory movements.
Question 8:
Which bone is cubical in shape and situated at the roof of the nose and in between the eye orbits?
View Solution
The ethmoid bone is a cubical-shaped bone located at the roof of the nose and between the eye orbits, contributing to the nasal cavity and the orbits.
The ethmoid bone is important for forming the nasal septum and the walls of the eye orbits.
Question 9:
Resolving power of microscope is due to which of the following?
View Solution
The resolving power of a microscope is mainly due to the objective lens, which determines the clarity and detail of the image by focusing light through the specimen.
The objective lens has the greatest impact on the microscope's ability to resolve fine details of the specimen.
Question 10:
In which method of Hb estimation, hemoglobin is converted into carboxyhemoglobin?
View Solution
In Wu's method, hemoglobin is converted into carboxyhemoglobin by exposing the blood to carbon monoxide, which helps in measuring the concentration of hemoglobin.
Wu's method is commonly used for estimating hemoglobin concentration by converting it into carboxyhemoglobin using carbon monoxide.
Question 11:
The dilution factor of blood and RBC diluting fluid is in total erythrocyte count in counting chamber.
View Solution
In erythrocyte count, a dilution factor of 200 is commonly used when blood and diluting fluid are mixed for accurate counting in a chamber.
Using a dilution factor of 200 ensures accurate RBC count and helps in determining the concentration of red blood cells in the sample.
Question 12:
In which condition, there is an idiopathic primary absolute increase in red cell mass associated with panmyelosis?
View Solution
Polycythemia Vera is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in an increased red blood cell mass and is associated with panmyelosis, which is the proliferation of all bone marrow elements.
Polycythemia Vera leads to an increase in hematocrit and viscosity of blood, and requires careful management to prevent complications.
Question 13:
A 40 years old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of:
View Solution
After splenectomy, Howell-Jolly bodies, which are remnants of nuclear material, may appear in the peripheral blood smear due to the absence of the spleen's filtering function.
Howell-Jolly bodies indicate the spleen's inability to remove these remnants from the blood, which is common after splenectomy.
Question 14:
Which component is responsible for the survival of cells in the blood?
View Solution
Adenine is an important component used in blood storage solutions, as it helps in maintaining the ATP levels in red blood cells, contributing to their survival during storage.
Adenine helps in the preservation of red blood cells by maintaining their energy reserves during storage.
Question 15:
Which time is prolonged in liver disease, congenital deficiency of coagulation factors in the extrinsic pathway, and in oral anticoagulant therapy?
View Solution
Prothrombin time (PT) is used to assess the extrinsic and common coagulation pathways. It is prolonged in liver disease, deficiencies of coagulation factors, and oral anticoagulant therapy.
Prothrombin time is a key test for evaluating coagulation disorders, especially those related to liver function and anticoagulant therapy.
Question 16:
Which bleeding disorder is caused due to the deficiency of factor IX?
View Solution
Haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is a genetic bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of factor IX, which leads to impaired blood clotting.
Factor IX is a key component in the coagulation cascade. Its deficiency results in prolonged bleeding, especially in the joints, muscles, and internal organs. Haemophilia B is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern, primarily affecting males. Treatment includes the replacement of factor IX through recombinant factor products or plasma-derived concentrates to manage and prevent bleeding episodes.
Question 17:
Which of the following linkages makes cellulose unsuitable for human digestion?
View Solution
Cellulose is composed of beta-D-glucosidic linkages, which human digestive enzymes cannot break down, making cellulose indigestible.
The beta-D-glucosidic bonds in cellulose form a rigid, linear structure that is difficult to hydrolyze. Unlike ruminants and some other animals that have specialized microorganisms in their digestive systems to break down cellulose, humans lack the enzyme cellulase. As a result, cellulose passes through the digestive system as fiber, aiding in bowel health and promoting regularity.
Question 18:
Sanger studied in 1955 the structure of insulin. The reagent he used for this purpose and which is named after him is known as:
View Solution
Sanger used dinitrofluorobenzene (DNFB) to determine the amino acid sequence of insulin, marking a breakthrough in protein chemistry.
Dinitrofluorobenzene reacts with the amino group of proteins, tagging the terminal amino acid. This allows scientists to identify and analyze the protein's sequence. Sanger's work with DNFB on insulin led to the first complete determination of a protein's amino acid sequence. This research earned him the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1958, laying the foundation for modern proteomics.
Question 19:
Brucella is described correctly by the statement:
View Solution
Brucella is a genus of gram-negative bacteria responsible for brucellosis, a zoonotic disease that affects humans and animals.
Brucellosis is transmitted through direct contact with infected animals or consumption of unpasteurized dairy products. Symptoms in humans include fever, joint pain, and fatigue. It is considered an occupational hazard for veterinarians, farmers, and meat workers. Diagnosis is confirmed via blood cultures, and treatment includes antibiotics such as doxycycline and rifampin.
Question 20:
If the cystine content of double-stranded DNA is 20% of the total bases, then the adenine content will be:
View Solution
Cystine (C) pairs with guanine (G), collectively making up 40% of the DNA. The remaining 60% is equally split between adenine (A) and thymine (T), making adenine content 10%.
DNA bases follow Chargaff's rule, which states that the amount of adenine equals thymine, and the amount of guanine equals cystine in a double-stranded DNA molecule. If cystine is 20%, guanine must also be 20%. This leaves 60% for adenine and thymine combined, with each comprising 30% of the total, hence adenine content is 10%.
Question 21:
The terminal reaction in heme synthesis, where Fe3+ from transferrin is introduced into protoporphyrin IX, is catalysed by:
View Solution
Fermochelatase catalyzes the insertion of iron into protoporphyrin IX to form heme, a critical component for hemoglobin and other heme-containing proteins.
The process of heme synthesis occurs in the mitochondria and cytoplasm. The final step involves the enzymatic action of fermochelatase, which ensures the incorporation of Fe2+ (reduced iron) into the porphyrin ring. This is essential for the formation of functional hemoglobin, cytochromes, and other heme proteins. A deficiency in this enzyme can lead to conditions such as erythropoietic protoporphyria.
Question 22:
The first symptom of vitamin A deficiency is:
View Solution
Nyctalopia, or night blindness, occurs due to a lack of rhodopsin regeneration in the retina, which is dependent on vitamin A.
Vitamin A is crucial for the synthesis of rhodopsin, a pigment in the rod cells of the retina that allows vision in dim light. A deficiency in this vitamin initially manifests as difficulty in seeing in low light (nyctalopia). Prolonged deficiency can lead to more severe eye conditions, such as xerophthalmia and keratomalacia, ultimately causing blindness if untreated.
Question 23:
The enzyme that is concerned in the conversion of All-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal belongs to the class of:
View Solution
The enzyme responsible for converting all-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal, essential for visual function, is an isomerase.
This isomerization reaction is critical for the visual cycle. The 11-cis retinal binds to opsin to form rhodopsin, which is activated by light to initiate the visual signal transduction pathway. The conversion is a reversible reaction mediated by retinoid isomerase enzymes, ensuring the continuous availability of 11-cis retinal for visual processes.
Question 24:
The site of oxidative phosphorylation in the cell is:
View Solution
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria, where ATP is generated through the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis.
The inner mitochondrial membrane houses the components of the electron transport chain (ETC). During oxidative phosphorylation, electrons are transferred through a series of protein complexes, generating a proton gradient across the membrane. ATP synthase then uses this gradient to produce ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This process is the primary source of ATP in aerobic organisms.
Question 25:
The enzyme-cofactor associated with muscle glycogen phosphorylase is:
View Solution
Pyridoxal phosphate, a form of vitamin B6, acts as a cofactor for glycogen phosphorylase in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate.
Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the cleavage of glycogen by adding a phosphate group (phosphorolysis), releasing glucose-1-phosphate. Pyridoxal phosphate serves as a cofactor by stabilizing the transition state and facilitating the reaction. This process is crucial for energy production during muscle activity.
Question 26:
Who introduced the vaccination method for the prevention of smallpox?
View Solution
Edward Jenner introduced the smallpox vaccination in 1796, using material from cowpox lesions to create immunity against smallpox.
Edward Jenner's pioneering work in vaccination marked the beginning of immunology. He observed that milkmaids who had contracted cowpox were immune to smallpox. By inoculating a young boy with cowpox material and subsequently exposing him to smallpox, Jenner demonstrated effective immunity. This discovery laid the foundation for modern vaccination practices, leading to the eradication of smallpox globally by 1980.
Question 27:
All are spore-forming bacteria except:
View Solution
Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not form spores, unlike Clostridium and Bacillus species, which form endospores to survive harsh environments.
Endospores are highly resistant structures formed by certain bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, to survive extreme conditions like heat, desiccation, and chemicals. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, on the other hand, relies on biofilm formation and other mechanisms for survival but does not produce spores. Understanding bacterial survival strategies is crucial for infection control.
Question 28:
Culture medium with low redox potential is required for growth of:
View Solution
Anaerobic bacteria require a low redox potential environment because they thrive in the absence of oxygen.
Anaerobic bacteria are sensitive to oxygen and require conditions with low or no oxygen levels to grow. Media like thioglycollate broth or anaerobic chambers are used to maintain low redox potential. These conditions mimic natural anaerobic environments, such as deep tissues or the gut, where these bacteria are commonly found.
Question 29:
Which of the following bacteria can survive in the Holder method of pasteurization?
View Solution
Coxiella burnetii can survive the Holder method of pasteurization, which heats milk to 63°C for 30 minutes.
The Holder method is designed to eliminate most pathogenic bacteria in milk. However, Coxiella burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, can survive this process. This resistance led to the adoption of higher temperature-short time (HTST) pasteurization methods, which effectively kill this resilient pathogen while preserving milk's nutritional qualities.
Question 30:
Which enrichment medium is preferred to grow Vibrio cholerae?
View Solution
Alkaline peptone water is used to selectively enrich Vibrio cholerae by creating an alkaline environment that inhibits the growth of other bacteria.
Vibrio cholerae thrives in alkaline conditions, making alkaline peptone water an ideal enrichment medium for its isolation. This medium has a high pH (around 8.5-9.0) and supports the rapid growth of Vibrio species. It is commonly used for stool sample enrichment during cholera outbreaks to detect the pathogen efficiently.
Question 31:
Which of the following bacteria produce saccharolytic reaction in cooked meat broth (CMB)?
View Solution
Clostridium perfringens produces a saccharolytic reaction in CMB, fermenting carbohydrates to produce acid and gas, which is a diagnostic characteristic.
The saccharolytic reaction is observed as a change in the pH and gas production in cooked meat broth, making it a valuable test in identifying C. perfringens in clinical and food microbiology settings. This bacterium is a common cause of foodborne illness and gas gangrene.
Question 32:
The mutation in which a purine is replaced by pyrimidine and vice versa is known as:
View Solution
Transversion is a mutation where a purine is substituted by a pyrimidine or vice versa, which can cause significant structural changes in the DNA molecule.
Purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine) differ in structure. Transversions disrupt the Watson-Crick base pairing, potentially leading to replication errors or altered protein function. These mutations are less common than transitions due to stricter structural constraints.
Question 33:
Which biochemical test is done to differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from other streptococci?
View Solution
The CAMP test identifies Streptococcus agalactiae through the enhanced hemolysis pattern it produces when cultured with Staphylococcus aureus.
The CAMP factor is a diffusible protein produced by S. agalactiae that interacts synergistically with Staphylococcus aureus beta-hemolysin, forming an arrowhead-shaped zone of hemolysis. This specific reaction helps in distinguishing S. agalactiae from other Group B streptococci.
Question 34:
Which test is done to diagnose Rickettsial infection?
View Solution
The Weil-Felix test is based on the cross-reactivity between Rickettsial antigens and Proteus species, enabling serological diagnosis of Rickettsial infections.
In this test, patient serum is mixed with specific Proteus antigens. Agglutination indicates the presence of antibodies against Rickettsia, suggesting infection. Although simple, this test has been largely replaced by more specific methods like PCR and immunofluorescence.
Question 35:
Which class of immunoglobulin has maximum concentration in the human body?
View Solution
IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin, constituting about 75% of the total antibodies in the body and providing long-term immunity.
IgG is critical for neutralizing pathogens, activating complement, and enhancing phagocytosis. It is the only antibody that can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the fetus. Its abundance reflects its importance in secondary immune responses.
Question 36:
Frozen section is used to demonstrate inclusion of:
View Solution
Frozen sectioning is used to preserve and demonstrate lipid inclusions in tissues, as it prevents lipid dissolution that occurs during paraffin embedding.
Lipid inclusions are vital for diagnosing lipid storage diseases. Using frozen sections helps in rapid tissue analysis while maintaining the integrity of lipid-containing structures. This method is commonly applied in pathology and research.
Question 37:
Aggregation of basophilic material scattered throughout the nucleus is called:
View Solution
Chromatin granules represent DNA-protein complexes visible in the nucleus and are responsible for genetic regulation and DNA replication.
These granules are basophilic due to their high nucleic acid content and play a crucial role in transcription and other nuclear activities. Their appearance and distribution can vary depending on the cell's functional state.
Question 38:
Which fixative is used for sections cut by cryostat?
View Solution
Absolute ethyl alcohol is ideal for fixing cryostat sections, preserving tissue morphology and preventing artifacts.
Cryostat sections are thin slices of tissue prepared at low temperatures. Absolute ethyl alcohol is effective in maintaining structural integrity and is especially useful for rapid diagnostic procedures.
Question 39:
In Heidenhain's Susa fixative, the shrinkage produced by mercuric chloride is compensated by the addition of which solution?
View Solution
Acetic acid in Heidenhain's Susa fixative counteracts the shrinkage effects of mercuric chloride, ensuring better tissue preservation.
Heidenhain's Susa fixative is widely used for morphological studies, and acetic acid plays a crucial role in balancing tissue shrinkage to maintain structural accuracy in histological preparations.
Question 40:
In which type of decalcification method are positively charged calcium ions attracted to a negatively charged electrode?
View Solution
In electrolyte decalcification, calcium ions are removed by an electric current, with the ions migrating toward a negatively charged electrode.
This method is efficient for decalcifying tissues while preserving their structure for microscopic examination. It is especially useful in preparing bone and calcified tissue samples for histological analysis.
Question 41:
The penetration of the paraffin wax in the tissue occurs more readily if part of the cell is:
View Solution
Proteins provide structural stability, enhancing paraffin wax penetration during tissue processing, crucial for embedding and sectioning.
The paraffin wax technique is a standard method in histopathology. Protein-rich tissues absorb wax efficiently due to their compatibility with organic solvents used in tissue clearing and embedding processes, ensuring well-preserved samples for microscopic examination.
Question 42:
In which microtome is a double concave knife used?
View Solution
The Cambridge rocking microtome utilizes a double concave knife to produce thin, uniform tissue sections efficiently.
This microtome is widely used for biological specimens. Its rocking motion and knife design allow precision in sectioning soft tissues, making it suitable for routine histological applications.
Question 43:
In honing technique, what is used to prevent the hone from slipping during use?
View Solution
A damp cloth ensures the hone stays in place during sharpening, allowing for precision and safety in the honing process.
Honing knives or blades is a critical step in maintaining sharpness. Using a damp cloth under the hone provides friction, preventing accidental movement and ensuring an even sharpening surface.
Question 44:
First component of complement which binds to antigen-antibody complex in classical pathway is:
View Solution
C1q recognizes and binds to the antigen-antibody complex, initiating the complement activation in the classical pathway.
The complement system enhances immune defense mechanisms. The binding of C1q triggers a cascade involving C1r and C1s, eventually leading to opsonization, inflammation, and pathogen lysis.
Question 45:
The widely accepted theory of antibody formation is:
View Solution
Clonal selection theory proposes that specific lymphocytes are activated upon antigen encounter, leading to proliferation and antibody production tailored to the antigen.
This theory underpins modern immunology, explaining how the body mounts precise responses to diverse antigens. It highlights the role of memory cells in providing long-term immunity against previously encountered pathogens.
Question 46:
Match List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| Cellulose | Dietary fiber |
| Inulin | Glomerular filtration rate measurement |
| Starch | Main dietary carbohydrate |
| Heparin | Anticoagulant |
View Solution
- Cellulose: A dietary fiber aiding in digestion. - Inulin: Used in renal studies for assessing kidney filtration efficiency. - Starch: A primary energy source in human diets. - Heparin: Prevents blood clot formation, vital in medical procedures.
Question 47:
Match List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| Semiconservative replication of DNA | Meselson and Stahl |
| Double helical structure of DNA | Watson, Crick, and Wilkins |
| Adenosine Monophosphate | Embden |
| Synthesis of Alanine tRNA | H. Khorana |
View Solution
- Semiconservative replication of DNA was demonstrated by Meselson and Stahl through their groundbreaking experiment using isotopic nitrogen. - Watson, Crick, and Wilkins discovered the double-helical structure of DNA, for which they received the Nobel Prize. - Embden contributed to the understanding of nucleotide biosynthesis. - H. Khorana synthesized alanine tRNA, a significant milestone in genetic research.
Question 48:
Match List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| The end of the lag phase | Bacteria have maximum cell size |
| In the log phase | Cells are smaller and stain uniformly |
| In the stationary phase | Cells are Gram-variable and show irregular staining |
| In the phase of decline | Involution forms are common |
View Solution
- In the lag phase, cells prepare for division and reach their maximum size. - During the log phase, cells actively divide and exhibit uniform staining. - In the stationary phase, nutrient depletion and waste accumulation lead to irregular staining. - Involution forms occur in the decline phase as cells die off.
Question 49:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Immunoglobulins | Functions |
|---|---|
| IgG | Protects body fluids |
| IgA | Protects body surfaces |
| IgM | Protects blood stream |
| IgE | Mediates reaginic hypersensitivity |
View Solution
- IgG is the most abundant antibody, offering systemic immunity and protecting body fluids. - IgA is found in mucosal areas, such as respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, protecting body surfaces. - IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response, primarily protecting the bloodstream. - IgE is involved in allergic reactions and hypersensitivity, binding to allergens and triggering histamine release.
Question 50:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Deficiency Syndrome | Associated Conditions |
|---|---|
| C1 inhibitor deficiency | Hereditary angioneurotic oedema |
| C1, C2, C4 components deficiency | Systemic lupus erythematosus |
| C3 and regulatory protein deficiency | Recurrent pyogenic infections |
| C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 deficiency | Bacteremia with Gram-negative diplococci |
View Solution
- Deficiency of C1 inhibitor leads to uncontrolled complement activation, causing hereditary angioneurotic oedema. - Deficiencies in C1, C2, and C4 are linked to autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. - C3 deficiency results in increased susceptibility to bacterial infections due to impaired opsonization. - Deficiencies in terminal complement components (C5-C9) predispose individuals to Neisseria infections.
Question 51:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Microtome Knives | Use |
|---|---|
| (A) Plano Concave | (IV) It has one surface plane and other concave |
| (B) Tool Edge profile | (I) It has got both surfaces flat with a steep cutting edge |
| (C) Biconcave | (II) Its both surfaces are concave |
| (D) Plane edge/Wedge shaped | (III) Both the surfaces are flat |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
- Plano Concave: One surface plane and other concave.
- Tool Edge profile: Both surfaces flat with a steep cutting edge.
- Biconcave: Both surfaces are concave.
- Plane edge/Wedge shaped: Both surfaces are flat.
Microtome knives are specialized blades used in histology and pathology to cut extremely thin sections of tissues for examination. Each type of knife has a unique use depending on the tissue type and desired thickness.
Question 52:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Stain | Component/Tissue |
|---|---|
| (A) Periodic acid-Schiff | (III) Carbohydrate |
| (B) Mucicarmine | (IV) Acidic mucin |
| (C) Van Gieson's | (I) Extracellular collagen |
| (D) Verhoeff's elastic | (II) Elastic fibers |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Periodic acid-Schiff stains carbohydrates.
Mucicarmine stains acidic mucins.
Van Gieson's stains extracellular collagen.
Verhoeff's elastic stains elastic fibers.
Histological stains are essential tools in pathology for identifying specific tissue components. Their correct application ensures accurate diagnosis and understanding of tissue structure.
Question 53:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Term(s) | Description |
|---|---|
| (A) Glycolysis | (I) Production of pyruvate |
| (B) Anaerobic | (III) Metabolic activities without oxygen |
| (C) Binary fission | (II) Division carried out by bacteria |
| (D) Conjugation | (IV) Production of tube to connect two bacteria |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Glycolysis refers to the production of pyruvate through the breakdown of glucose. Anaerobic processes are metabolic activities that occur without oxygen. Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria where the cell divides into two. Conjugation involves the formation of a tube to connect two bacteria, allowing the transfer of genetic material.
Understanding these biological processes helps in studying metabolic pathways and mechanisms of genetic exchange in microorganisms.
Question 54:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Vertebrae | Number |
|---|---|
| (A) Cervical Vertebrae | (II) They are 7 in number |
| (B) Thoracic Vertebrae | (III) They are 12 in number |
| (C) Lumbar Vertebrae | (IV) They are 5 in number |
| (D) Coccygeal Vertebrae | (I) They are 4 in number |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Cervical Vertebrae are seven in number and form the neck region. Thoracic Vertebrae are twelve in number and connect to the ribs. Lumbar Vertebrae are five in number and are located in the lower back. Coccygeal Vertebrae are four in number and form the tailbone.
The human vertebral column is divided into five regions, each with a specific number of vertebrae that contribute to its structure and function.
Question 55:
Match List-I with List-II:
| Condition | Symptoms |
|---|---|
| (A) Glomerulonephritis | (II) An infection of kidney leading to inflammation |
| (B) Anuria | (I) Cessation of urine secretion |
| (C) Polyuria | (IV) Secretion of large quantities of urine |
| (D) Cystitis | (III) Inflammation of urinary bladder |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Glomerulonephritis involves inflammation of the kidney due to infection. Anuria is characterized by a cessation of urine secretion. Polyuria refers to the secretion of large volumes of urine. Cystitis involves inflammation of the urinary bladder.
Recognizing these conditions and their symptoms is essential for diagnosing and managing kidney and urinary tract disorders.
Question 56:
Identify the metalloproteins from the following:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Ceruloplasmin is a copper-binding metalloprotein, and transferrin is an iron-transporting metalloprotein. These proteins play critical roles in transporting and regulating metal ions in the body. Albumin and mucin are not metalloproteins.
Metalloproteins are proteins that bind metal ions tightly. Ceruloplasmin carries copper in the bloodstream and regulates its metabolism. Transferrin transports iron in the blood to cells where it is required. Understanding the roles of these metalloproteins is crucial for diagnosing conditions like Wilson's disease (excess copper) and iron deficiency anemia. Albumin, although a major plasma protein, primarily regulates osmotic pressure and does not bind metals specifically.
Question 57:
The hydrogen peroxide formed in erythrocytes is converted into water by which of the following?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Catalase and glutathione peroxidase are enzymes that neutralize hydrogen peroxide by converting it to water. This protects erythrocytes from oxidative damage caused by reactive oxygen species.
Reactive oxygen species (ROS) like hydrogen peroxide can cause damage to cell membranes and DNA. Catalase decomposes hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen rapidly. Glutathione peroxidase, on the other hand, reduces hydrogen peroxide using glutathione as a substrate. These enzymes work synergistically to maintain redox balance in cells, preventing oxidative stress. G6PD indirectly supports this process by maintaining levels of NADPH, which is required for glutathione regeneration. Methemoglobin reductase is involved in reducing methemoglobin but does not directly act on hydrogen peroxide.
Question 58:
Excess niacin administration may cause:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Niacin (vitamin B3) in high doses commonly causes flushing syndrome, which is a sudden reddening of the skin, and may lead to lowering of blood pressure. Vasoconstriction and hypertension are not typical effects of excess niacin.
Flushing syndrome occurs due to niacin's vasodilatory effect on small blood vessels. This often results in redness, warmth, and a tingling sensation, particularly on the face and neck. This is a benign side effect and can be minimized by taking niacin with food. In some cases, niacin may also cause a temporary lowering of blood pressure due to its vasodilatory properties. Excessive doses, however, should be avoided as they can lead to liver damage and gastrointestinal discomfort.
Question 59:
What are the identical urinary findings in both metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Both metabolic and respiratory acidosis result in an acidic urinary pH (A), increased NaHPO4 (B), and increased titrable acidity (C). NH4Cl levels do not decrease significantly in these conditions.
Acidosis, whether metabolic or respiratory, leads to the excretion of hydrogen ions in urine to maintain blood pH. This increases urinary acidity and titrable acidity, which refers to the ability of urine to neutralize a base. Sodium phosphate (NaHPO4) acts as a buffer, increasing its excretion to aid in hydrogen ion removal. Understanding these compensatory mechanisms is important for diagnosing and managing acid-base disorders.
Question 60:
De novo synthesis of purines is not operative in:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Erythrocytes lack the necessary organelles for de novo purine synthesis, relying instead on salvage pathways. The brain also relies on salvage pathways rather than de novo synthesis.
De novo synthesis of purines is an energy-intensive process carried out in the liver and kidney. Erythrocytes lack nuclei and mitochondria, making them incapable of this process. The brain prioritizes energy-efficient salvage pathways to recycle purines from degraded nucleotides. Understanding these pathways helps in studying disorders like Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which involves defects in purine salvage mechanisms.
Question 61:
Read the following statements and choose the correct answers:
Choose the correct answer:
View Solution
Granular parts of bacteria stain blue-black with Neisser's stain, and negative staining is crucial for identifying bacterial capsules.
Neisser's stain is commonly used for identifying volutin granules in bacteria. These granules take up a blue-black color, contrasting with the rest of the bacterial body. Negative staining is a unique method where the background is stained, leaving the capsule clear, making it an effective tool for capsule visualization. Hiss's method, in contrast, stains the capsule faintly and the background more vividly, which does not match the description given in option (D).
Question 62:
Read the following statements and choose the correct answers:
Choose the correct answer:
View Solution
MacConkey agar uses E. coli as a positive control, and the Candle Jar method creates a CO2-rich environment for bacterial growth.
MacConkey agar is a selective medium designed to grow Gram-negative bacteria and differentiate lactose fermenters. E. coli is commonly used as a positive control due to its robust lactose fermentation, producing pink colonies. The Candle Jar method increases CO2 levels, stimulating the growth of capnophilic organisms. The statement about Clostridium botulinum is partially incorrect, as this organism typically does not thrive on aerobic plates, making option (B) invalid.
Question 63:
Read the following statements and choose the correct answers:
Choose the correct answer:
View Solution
Toxic granules in neutrophils are markers of bacterial infections. Charcot-Leyden crystals form from eosinophil degradation, and HLA tests are critical for transplantation compatibility.
Toxic granules in neutrophils are prominent in bacterial infections, indicating severe inflammation. Charcot-Leyden crystals, made of eosinophil-derived proteins, are seen in allergic and parasitic conditions. HLA typing ensures compatibility between donor and recipient tissues, reducing rejection risk. However, myxedema is not associated with basophilia, making option (B) partially incorrect.
Question 64:
Read the following statements and choose the correct answers:
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Telophase results in two daughter cells, and reticular fibers provide structural support. Osmosis is unrelated to cell division.
During telophase, chromosomes de-condense, and nuclear membranes reform, resulting in two daughter cells. Reticular fibers create a supportive framework in tissues like the lymph nodes and spleen. Osmosis refers to the movement of water across membranes and has no connection to cell division. Granulomas in gumma are firm due to fibrotic changes, not soft as mentioned in option (D).
Question 65:
Read the following statements and choose the correct answers:
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The frontal bone forms the forehead and roof of the orbit, and the parietal bone forms the roof and sides of the cranial cavity.
The frontal bone provides structural integrity to the forehead and protects the frontal lobes of the brain. The parietal bone connects to other cranial bones via sutures, forming the cranial vault. The sphenoid bone, contrary to statement (A), is centrally located in the cranial base and not at the back.
Question 66:
Arrange the following in proper sequence:
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The staining process follows this order: primary stain, mordant, decolorization, and counterstaining.
In the staining procedure, the primary stain binds to the target structures. Mordant (e.g., iodine in Gram staining) fixes the dye onto the cell. Decolorization (alcohol or acetone) removes excess stain, differentiating structures. Finally, a counterstain highlights other components for contrast, ensuring clear observation under the microscope.
Question 67:
Arrange the following steps of sporulation in the correct order from the initial stage:
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Sporulation begins with axial filament formation, followed by septum formation, forespore engulfment, and cortex formation.
Axial filament formation organizes the genetic material in preparation for spore development. Septum formation separates the forespore from the mother cell. The mother cell engulfs the forespore, creating a protective layer. Finally, the cortex, a thick peptidoglycan layer, forms to shield the spore from environmental stress.
Question 68:
Arrange the following events in the inflammatory response in the correct sequence:
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The inflammatory response begins with tissue damage releasing mediators, causing capillary permeability. Fluid leaks (exudate), phagocytes migrate, and bacteria are destroyed.
Inflammation is a protective response to infection or injury. Chemical mediators like histamine increase capillary permeability (B), allowing fluid and immune cells to reach the affected area (C). Phagocytes, such as neutrophils, migrate to the site (A) and engulf pathogens, destroying them along with exudate (D).
Question 69:
Arrange the following steps of tissue processing in a histopathology lab in the correct sequence:
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Tissue processing starts with fixation, followed by dehydration, clearing, and infiltration & impregnation.
Fixation preserves tissue structure by cross-linking proteins and preventing decay. Dehydration removes water, allowing for clearing with organic solvents (e.g., xylene). Clearing prepares the tissue for paraffin embedding, which infiltrates and impregnates the tissue for sectioning.
Question 70:
Arrange the following steps of phagocytosis in sequence:
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Phagocytosis begins with attachment to pseudopodia, followed by ingestion (phagosome formation), fusion with lysosome, and bacterial destruction.
The immune response starts with pseudopodia extending to engulf the bacterium (D). The ingested bacterium is enclosed in a phagosome (B), which fuses with a lysosome containing hydrolytic enzymes (A). These enzymes degrade the bacterium (C), protecting the body from infection.
Question 71:
Arrange the following steps of immune response in the correct sequence:
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The immune response follows this sequence: Internalized antigen is digested by the cell (B), the altered self-cell presents the antigen (D), T cell receptors recognize the antigen bound to MHC (A), and the antigen-MHC complex activates T cells (C).
In adaptive immunity, antigen-presenting cells (APCs) internalize and digest foreign antigens. The digested antigen is presented on the cell surface bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules. T cells recognize this antigen-MHC complex using their T cell receptors. Activation of T cells triggers a cascade of immune responses to eliminate pathogens.
Question 72:
Arrange the following steps for WBC counting in the correct order:
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The correct order for WBC counting starts with using a WBC pipette (C), drawing the blood sample to the 0.5 mark (A), mixing with WBC diluting fluid (D), and placing the cover slip on the chamber (B).
Accurate WBC counting requires precise handling of the sample. The WBC pipette ensures proper measurement of blood and diluting fluid. Mixing the blood-diluent minimizes errors and ensures even distribution of cells. Proper placement of the cover slip is critical for consistent readings under the microscope.
Question 73:
Arrange the following steps in the degradation of uric acid in animals other than humans in the correct sequence:
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In animals, uric acid (B) is converted to allantoin (A), followed by allantoin acid (D), which is then converted to urea (C) and finally ammonia (E).
Animals other than humans have enzymes that degrade uric acid more efficiently. The conversion of uric acid to allantoin reduces crystallization risk. Allantoin acid is an intermediate step, leading to urea and ammonia, which are excreted as nitrogenous waste.
Question 74:
Arrange the following reactions of the citric acid cycle in the correct order:
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The steps of the citric acid cycle include: formation of citrate (C), isomerization to isocitrate (D), formation of alpha-ketoglutarate (A), conversion to succinyl CoA (B), and finally succinate formation (E).
The citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) is central to cellular respiration. Each step involves specific enzymes and intermediates, converting acetyl-CoA into energy-rich molecules like ATP and NADH. These reactions occur in the mitochondrial matrix.
Question 75:
Arrange the following in order from top to bottom lateral view of the adult skull:
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The order of structures in the lateral view of the skull is: Supra-orbital foramen (C), Nasal bone (E), Lacrimal bone (A), Infra-orbital foramen (D), and Maxilla (B).
The skull's lateral view reveals bones and foramina critical for structural support and passage of nerves and vessels. The supra-orbital foramen is located at the top, and the maxilla at the bottom, contributing to facial anatomy.








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