CUET PG B.Ed. Science Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG B.Ed. Science paper 2024 on from March 27 in Shift 2. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 B.Ed. Science question paper.

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CUET PG 2024 B.Ed. Science Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Lecithin is an example of which type of biomolecule?

  1. Nucleotides
  2. Phospholipids
  3. Proteins
  4. Polysaccharides
Correct Answer: (2) Phospholipids
View Solution

Lecithin is a phospholipid, which is a type of lipid containing a phosphate group and plays a key role in forming cell membranes.

Phospholipids like lecithin are fundamental components of biological membranes.

Question 2:

Which of the following is NOT part of Forebrain?

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Thalamus
Correct Answer: (3) Cerebellum
View Solution

The forebrain comprises the cerebrum, hypothalamus, and thalamus. The cerebellum is part of the hindbrain.

Remember: Cerebellum is associated with the hindbrain, not the forebrain.

Question 3:

Match List-I with List-II:

List I (Cell/Tissue/Organs):
(A) Mesorchium
(B) Uriniferous tubules
(C) Endocrine glands
(D) Sinus venosus

List II (System):
(I) Reproductive system
(II) Vascular system
(III) Chemical coordination
(IV) Excretory system

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
View Solution

Mesorchium is part of the reproductive system, uriniferous tubules belong to the excretory system, endocrine glands are associated with chemical coordination, and sinus venosus is part of the vascular system.

Match organs and systems based on their functional associations.

Question 4:

Cranial meninges include:

(A) Dura mater
(B) Arachnoid
(C) Neurotransmitters
(D) Pia mater

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A) and (D) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (A), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
View Solution

Cranial meninges consist of three layers: dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater. Neurotransmitters are not part of the meninges.

Cranial meninges protect the brain with three distinct layers: dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.

Question 5:

Sequence of regions of the vertebral column, starting from the skull:

(A) Thoracic
(B) Cervical
(C) Sacral
(D) Lumbar

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  3. (B), (A), (C), (D)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (A), (D), (C)
View Solution

The vertebral column starts with the cervical region, followed by thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions.

Remember the vertebral sequence: Cervical → Thoracic → Lumbar → Sacral.

Question 6:

Colostrum is an example of:

  1. Active immunity
  2. Antigen
  3. Passive immunity
  4. Cancer
Correct Answer: (3) Passive immunity
View Solution

Colostrum provides antibodies to the newborn, offering passive immunity.

Passive immunity involves the transfer of ready-made antibodies, such as those in colostrum.

Question 7:

What is the role of Sertoli cells in the reproductive system?

  1. Synthesis of androgens
  2. Secretion of androgens
  3. To provide nutrition to germ cells
  4. Release antibodies
Correct Answer: (3) To provide nutrition to germ cells
View Solution

Sertoli cells support and nourish the developing germ cells in the testes.

Sertoli cells act as "nurse" cells for germ cells.

Question 8:

Match List-I with List-II:

List I (Structure):
(A) Fimbriae
(B) Seminiferous tubules
(C) Acrosome
(D) Graafian follicle

List II (Associated Organ):
(I) Spermatozoa
(II) Testes
(III) Ovary
(IV) Oviduct

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
View Solution

Fimbriae are associated with the oviduct, seminiferous tubules with testes, acrosome with spermatozoa, and Graafian follicle with the ovary.

Structure-organ relationships are key in anatomy.

Question 9:

EST refers to:

  1. Extra Sequence Tags
  2. External Sequence Tags
  3. Expressed Sequence Transcripts
  4. Expressed Sequence Tags
Correct Answer: (4) Expressed Sequence Tags
View Solution

Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are short sub-sequences of cDNA used to identify gene transcripts.

ESTs are essential tools for gene identification.

Question 10:

The correct order of steps in the process of recombinant DNA technology:

(A) Digestion by restriction enzyme
(B) Transformation
(C) Ligation
(D) Isolation of DNA

  1. (D), (C), (B), (A)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  3. (D), (A), (C), (B)
  4. (A), (D), (C), (B)
Correct Answer: (3) (D), (A), (C), (B)
View Solution

The correct sequence involves isolating DNA, digesting it with restriction enzymes, ligating it to vectors, and then transformation.

Question 11:

Large holes in "Swiss Cheese" are due to the production of large amounts of carbon dioxide gas by the bacterium:

  1. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
  2. Propionibacterium sharmanii
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Bifidobacterium jejuni
Correct Answer: (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
View Solution

The large holes in Swiss Cheese are created by CO2 produced during fermentation by Propionibacterium sharmanii.

This fermentation process is crucial for the unique texture and flavor of Swiss Cheese.

Question 12:

Identify which one is NOT a Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI):

  1. Leishmaniasis
  2. Syphilis
  3. Chlamydiasis
  4. Gonorrhoea
Correct Answer: (1) Leishmaniasis
View Solution

Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoa of the genus Leishmania and is transmitted by sandflies, not sexually.

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) are typically transmitted through sexual contact, unlike vector-borne diseases such as Leishmaniasis.

Question 13:

Carolus Linnaeus is credited for:

  1. Oxidative Phosphorylation
  2. Binomial Nomenclature
  3. Photoperiodism
  4. Cryopreservation
Correct Answer: (2) Binomial Nomenclature
View Solution

Carolus Linnaeus developed the binomial nomenclature system for naming species with two names: genus and species.

This system simplifies the classification and global identification of organisms.

Question 14:

Which of the following are NOT examples of brown algae?

  • (A) Laminaria
  • (B) Ectocarpus
  • (C) Volvox
  • (D) Porphyra
  1. (C) and (D) only
  2. (A) only
  3. (B), (C), and (D) only
  4. (B) and (C) only
Correct Answer: (1) (C) and (D) only
View Solution

Volvox is a green alga, and Porphyra is a red alga. Laminaria and Ectocarpus are examples of brown algae.

Brown algae belong to the class Phaeophyceae, characterized by the presence of fucoxanthin, which imparts the brown color.

Question 15:

Which of the following is an example of Sporozoan Protozoa?

  1. Entamoeba
  2. Trypanosoma
  3. Paramecium
  4. Plasmodium
Correct Answer: (4) Plasmodium
View Solution

Plasmodium, which causes malaria, belongs to the phylum Sporozoa (Apicomplexa), characterized by spore-forming stages.

Plasmodium undergoes a complex life cycle involving both sexual and asexual reproduction, making it a classic example of Sporozoan Protozoa.

Question 16:

Choose the correct order of taxonomical categories in descending order:

  • (A) Genus
  • (B) Order
  • (C) Phylum
  • (D) Class
  1. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  2. (C), (B), (D), (A)
  3. (B), (D), (C), (A)
  4. (C), (D), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (C), (D), (B), (A)
View Solution

The correct taxonomical hierarchy is Phylum → Class → Order → Genus.

Taxonomical categories are organized by descending levels of inclusivity, from broad groups (phylum) to specific classifications (genus).

Question 17:

Identify the non-endospermous seeds:

  • (A) Castor
  • (B) Pea
  • (C) Gram
  • (D) Bean
  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only
  3. (B), (C), and (D) only
  4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (C), and (D) only
View Solution

Pea, Gram, and Bean are dicots with non-endospermous seeds, while Castor has an endosperm.

Non-endospermous seeds use cotyledons for food storage, while endospermous seeds retain an endosperm for nourishment.

Question 18:

Conjoint, open vascular bundles are found in:

  1. Monocot stem
  2. Dicot stem
  3. Monocot root
  4. Dicot root
Correct Answer: (2) Dicot stem
View Solution

Dicot stems have conjoint, open vascular bundles allowing secondary growth.

The presence of a vascular cambium in dicots enables the formation of secondary xylem and phloem, leading to growth in girth.

Question 19:

In which type of chromosome, the centromere is located slightly away from the middle?

  1. Metacentric chromosome
  2. Sub-metacentric chromosome
  3. Acrocentric chromosome
  4. Telocentric chromosome
Correct Answer: (2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
View Solution

In sub-metacentric chromosomes, the centromere is slightly off-center, resulting in unequal arms.

Chromosome morphology is classified by centromere position, with sub-metacentric chromosomes having one arm longer than the other.

Question 20:

What is the percentage of Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) captured by plants?

  1. 100%
  2. 70-80%
  3. 40-50%
  4. 2-10%
Correct Answer: (4) 2-10%
View Solution

Only 2-10% of PAR is used by plants for photosynthesis, as most light is reflected or absorbed otherwise.

Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) refers to the light spectrum (400-700 nm) utilized in photosynthesis, with limited efficiency.

Question 21:

Which of the following is NOT a type of ex-situ conservation method?

  1. Cryopreservation
  2. Botanical gardens
  3. In-vitro fertilization
  4. National parks
Correct Answer: (4) National parks
View Solution

National parks are in-situ conservation methods as they conserve biodiversity within its natural habitat. Ex-situ methods involve conservation outside natural habitats.

Ex-situ conservation includes methods like gene banks, seed banks, and zoos, where species are preserved outside their natural environment.

Question 22:

The World Summit on Sustainable Development held in 2002 was organized at:

  1. Rio de Janeiro
  2. Johannesburg
  3. Montreal
  4. Los Angeles
Correct Answer: (2) Johannesburg
View Solution

The 2002 World Summit on Sustainable Development was held in Johannesburg, South Africa, focusing on sustainable development initiatives.

This summit aimed to review the progress made since the 1992 Rio Summit and to promote sustainable development globally.

Question 23:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Plant growth regulator):
(A) Auxins
(B) Gibberellins
(C) Cytokinins
(D) Abscisic acid

List-II (Function):
(I) Stress hormone
(II) Parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(III) Bolting in a rosette plant
(IV) Delay leaf senescence

  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
View Solution

Auxins promote parthenocarpy, gibberellins cause bolting, cytokinins delay senescence, and abscisic acid functions as a stress hormone.

Plant growth regulators have specific physiological roles, such as cell division, elongation, or stress response, impacting growth and development.

Question 24:

The path of transfer of electrons involves the following order in Z scheme:

  • (A) PS-I
  • (B) PS-II
  • (C) ETS
  • (D) NADP
  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  3. (B), (C), (A), (D)
  4. (B), (A), (D), (C)
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (C), (A), (D)
View Solution

The Z-scheme involves electron transfer from PS-II to ETS, then to PS-I, and finally to NADP to form NADPH.

The Z-scheme describes the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, where electrons move to produce ATP and NADPH.

Question 25:

Henri Becquerel discovered this phenomenon:

  1. Radioactivity
  2. Fluorescence
  3. Photoelectric effect
  4. Spectroscopy
Correct Answer: (1) Radioactivity
View Solution

Henri Becquerel discovered radioactivity in 1896 while working with phosphorescent materials.

Radioactivity involves the spontaneous emission of particles or radiation from unstable atomic nuclei.

Question 26:

Arrange the following according to their increasing size:

  • (A) Mg
  • (B) Al
  • (C) Mg2+
  • (D) Al3+
  1. (D), (B), (C), (A)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  3. (D), (B), (A), (C)
  4. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)
View Solution

Ionic size decreases with increasing positive charge due to greater nuclear pull on electrons.

Cations are smaller than their neutral atoms, and the size decreases further with increasing charge.

Question 27:

VSEPR theory stands for:

  1. Vacant Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory
  2. Valence Shell Electron Pair Retention Theory
  3. Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory
  4. Vacant Shell Electron Pair Resonance Theory
Correct Answer: (3) Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory
View Solution

VSEPR theory explains molecular geometry based on electron pair repulsion in the valence shell.

The VSEPR model is a fundamental theory for predicting the 3D shapes of molecules.

Question 28:

Select the disaccharide molecule from the following:

  1. Ribose
  2. Fructose
  3. Lactose
  4. Galactose
Correct Answer: (3) Lactose
View Solution

Lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose. Ribose, fructose, and galactose are monosaccharides.

Disaccharides consist of two monosaccharides joined by a glycosidic bond, while monosaccharides are simple sugars.

Question 29:

The element that does not belong to actinoids is:

  • (A) Mg
  • (B) Th
  • (C) U
  • (D) Ba
  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A), (C), and (D) only
  3. (A) and (D) only
  4. (B) and (C) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (D) only
View Solution

Mg and Ba are not part of the actinoid series, which includes elements from Th to Lr.

Actinoids are f-block elements with atomic numbers 89 to 103, primarily radioactive metals.

Question 30:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I:
(A) Halogens
(B) Noble gases
(C) Chalcogens
(D) Lanthanoids

List-II:
(I) Ne
(II) Ce
(III) S
(IV) Br

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
View Solution

Halogens include Br, noble gases include Ne, chalcogens include S, and lanthanoids include Ce.

Understanding periodic groups helps classify elements based on shared chemical properties.

Question 31:

Which of the following is an intensive property?

  1. Volume
  2. Mass
  3. Enthalpy
  4. Molar volume
Correct Answer: (4) Molar volume
View Solution

An intensive property is independent of the amount of matter. Molar volume, being a ratio of volume to amount, is an intensive property, unlike volume, mass, or enthalpy.

Examples of intensive properties include temperature, density, and molar properties, which are intrinsic to a material.

Question 32:

What is the oxidation number of O in OF2?

  1. +1
  2. +2
  3. +3
  4. -1
Correct Answer: (1) +1
View Solution

In OF2, fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen and has an oxidation state of -1. Since the compound is neutral, oxygen has an oxidation number of +1 to balance the two fluorine atoms.

Fluorine always has an oxidation state of -1 in its compounds, overriding oxygen's typical -2 state.

Question 33:

Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium are:

  1. Isobars
  2. Isotopes
  3. Isomers
  4. Enantiomers
Correct Answer: (2) Isotopes
View Solution

Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium are isotopes of hydrogen, differing in the number of neutrons but having the same atomic number.

Isotopes of an element have identical chemical properties but may differ in their physical properties due to mass differences.

Question 34:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I:
(A) Solvay process
(B) Kjeldahl's method
(C) Castner-Kellner process
(D) Carius method

List-II:
(I) Halogens
(II) Nitrogen
(III) Sodium carbonate
(IV) Sodium hydroxide

  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
View Solution

The Solvay process produces sodium carbonate, Kjeldahl's method estimates nitrogen, the Castner-Kellner process makes sodium hydroxide, and the Carius method analyzes halogens.

Each industrial or analytical process serves a specific purpose, such as manufacturing or chemical estimation.

Question 35:

Caustic soda is:

  1. Sodium carbonate
  2. Sodium hydroxide
  3. Sodium chloride
  4. Sodium hydrogencarbonate
Correct Answer: (2) Sodium hydroxide
View Solution

Caustic soda is the common name for sodium hydroxide (NaOH), which is a strong base widely used in various industries.

Sodium hydroxide is a key chemical in soap making, paper manufacturing, and cleaning agents.

Question 36:

Arrange the following as per the increase in atomic number:

  • (A) Carbon
  • (B) Tin
  • (C) Lead
  • (D) Silicon
  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (A), (D), (C), (B)
  3. (A), (D), (B), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (A), (D)
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (D), (B), (C)
View Solution

Atomic numbers increase in the sequence: Carbon (6), Silicon (14), Tin (50), Lead (82).

Elements are arranged in the periodic table based on their atomic numbers, reflecting their increasing proton count.

Question 37:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I:
(A) Ranitidine
(B) Norethindrone
(C) Aspirin
(D) Ofloxacin

List-II:
(I) Antacid
(II) Analgesic
(III) Antibiotic
(IV) Antifertility

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
View Solution

Ranitidine is an antacid, Norethindrone is an antifertility drug, Aspirin is an analgesic, and Ofloxacin is an antibiotic.

Drug classifications are based on their primary therapeutic effects, which guide their usage in treatments.

Question 38:

HTTP stands for:

  1. High Text Transfer Problem
  2. Hyper Technology Transfer Process
  3. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
  4. Hyper Technology Transfer Protocol
Correct Answer: (3) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
View Solution

HTTP is the foundation of data communication on the web, enabling the transfer of hypertext.

HTTP is a request-response protocol used by web browsers and servers to communicate efficiently.

Question 39:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for a database?

  • (A) Database is a collection of logically related data.
  • (B) DBMS is a specialized software that is responsible for the creation, maintenance, and use of a database.
  • (C) RDBMS stores the data centrally in the form of a collection of tables known as relations.
  • (D) SQL is a database that stores the data in tabular form.
  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
View Solution

SQL is not a database but a language to query databases. Statements (A), (B), and (C) are true.

Databases are essential for structured data storage and management, while SQL facilitates data interaction.

Question 40:

Which of the following is an example of Application Software?

  1. Android
  2. Unix
  3. Disk Defragmenter
  4. MS-Office
Correct Answer: (4) MS-Office
View Solution

MS-Office is application software used for document creation, data processing, and presentation.

Application software is designed to perform specific user-oriented tasks, unlike system software like Unix.

Question 41:

In MS-Word, Portrait and Landscape are:

  1. Page Orientation
  2. Page Scale
  3. Paper Size
  4. Page Margin
Correct Answer: (1) Page Orientation
View Solution

Portrait and Landscape refer to the page layout in terms of orientation, determining the direction in which the content is displayed.

Page Orientation can be set to Portrait for vertical layout or Landscape for horizontal layout in MS-Word.

Question 42:

C Programming language was developed by:

  1. Marcian "Ted" Hoff
  2. Douglas Engelbart
  3. Dennis Ritchie
  4. Charles Babbage
Correct Answer: (3) Dennis Ritchie
View Solution

Dennis Ritchie developed the C programming language at Bell Labs in 1972.

The C language is widely regarded as the precursor to many modern programming languages, including C++, Java, and Python.

Question 43:

___ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use and have a special meaning.

  1. Control words
  2. Saved words
  3. Important words
  4. Reserved words
Correct Answer: (4) Reserved words
View Solution

Reserved words are predefined in programming languages, and their use is restricted for specific operations. Examples include `if`, `else`, and `while`.

Reserved words ensure consistent syntax and prevent conflicts during program execution.

Question 44:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I:
(A) FTP
(B) Hub
(C) QWERTY
(D) Trojan

List-II:
(I) Malware
(II) Network Protocol
(III) Networking Device
(IV) Keyboard Layout

  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
View Solution

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a network protocol, Hub is a networking device, QWERTY refers to the keyboard layout, and Trojan is a type of malware.

Each item in List-I is categorized by its primary function or usage, aiding in better understanding of technology concepts.

Question 45:

Which one of the following is NOT a type of hacker?

  1. Black Hat hackers
  2. Orange Hat hackers
  3. Grey Hat hackers
  4. White Hat hackers
Correct Answer: (2) Orange Hat hackers
View Solution

Black Hat, Grey Hat, and White Hat hackers are real categories, while Orange Hat is fictional.

Hackers are categorized based on their intent and actions, such as malicious hacking (Black Hat) or ethical hacking (White Hat).

Question 46:

Which of the following is NOT a malware?

  1. Virus
  2. Spyware
  3. Worm
  4. Cookies
Correct Answer: (4) Cookies
View Solution

Cookies are used for storing user data in web browsers and are not malicious, unlike malware like viruses, spyware, or worms.

Cookies enhance user experience by remembering preferences but pose no direct security threat compared to malware.

Question 47:

Arrange the following binary numbers in increasing order:

(A) 0111
(B) 1110
(C) 1010
(D) 0010

  1. D < A < C < B
  2. A < D < C < B
  3. D < A < B < C
  4. D < B < A < C
Correct Answer: (3) D < A < C < B
View Solution

Converting binary to decimal: D (0010) = 2, A (0111) = 7, C (1010) = 10, B (1110) = 14. Order: D < A < C < B.

Understanding binary and decimal equivalence is fundamental in digital systems and computation.

Question 48:

Bandwidth is measured in:

  1. Hertz
  2. Bits
  3. Kbps
  4. Metre
Correct Answer: (1) Hertz
View Solution

Bandwidth is the range of frequencies within a given band, particularly in the context of transmitting a signal. It is measured in Hertz (Hz).

While digital communication often uses bits per second for data transfer rates, the scientific unit for bandwidth is Hertz.

Question 49:

Which of the following keys is used to establish a relationship between tables in a relational database?

  1. Primary Key
  2. Foreign Key
  3. Candidate Key
  4. Alternate Key
Correct Answer: (2) Foreign Key
View Solution

A Foreign Key is a field (or collection of fields) in one table that uniquely identifies a row of another table. It is used to establish a relationship between the two tables.

Foreign keys are vital for enforcing referential integrity in relational databases, ensuring data consistency across tables.

Question 50:

The particle nature of light can be explained by the:

  1. Doppler Effect
  2. Photoelectric Effect
  3. Young's Double Slit Experiment
  4. Piezo Effect

Question 51:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I:
(A) Intrinsic Semiconductor
(B) n-type Semiconductor
(C) p-type Semiconductor
(D) Compound Inorganic Semiconductor

List-II:
(I) CdS
(II) Si doped with B
(III) Si doped with As
(IV) Si

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
View Solution

Intrinsic semiconductors are pure materials like silicon (Si). Doping Si with As creates an n-type, while doping with B creates a p-type semiconductor. CdS is a compound inorganic semiconductor.

Semiconductors play a critical role in modern electronics, with doping altering their conductivity properties.

Question 52:

Two capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) are connected in parallel. If charge \( Q \) is given to the assembly, then the ratio of charge on \( C_1 \) to charge on \( C_2 \) will be:

  1. \( C_2 / C_1 \)
  2. \( C_1 / C_2 \)
  3. 1
  4. \( C_1 C_2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( C_1 / C_2 \)
View Solution

In parallel connection, the charge on each capacitor is proportional to its capacitance, so the ratio is \( Q_1 / Q_2 = C_1 / C_2 \).

Parallel capacitors share the same voltage, and their charge distribution depends on individual capacitance values.

Question 53:

Out of the following, select the molecules having zero dipole moment:

(A) \( CH_4 \)
(B) \( CO_2 \)
(C) \( H_2O \)
(D) \( NaCl \)

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A) and (C) only
  3. (A) and (D) only
  4. (A) and (B) only
Correct Answer: (4) (A) and (B) only
View Solution

\( CH_4 \) and \( CO_2 \) are symmetric molecules with zero dipole moments. \( H_2O \) and \( NaCl \) are polar molecules with non-zero dipole moments.

Symmetry in molecular geometry often leads to cancellation of dipole moments, resulting in a net dipole of zero.

Question 54:

Identify the materials which exhibit weak dependence of resistivity with temperature:

(A) Copper
(B) Nichrome
(C) Constantan
(D) Manganin

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C), and (D) only
View Solution

Nichrome, Constantan, and Manganin exhibit weak temperature dependence, making them suitable for resistors. Copper strongly depends on temperature.

Alloys like Nichrome and Constantan are preferred for precision resistors due to their stable resistivity over temperature variations.

Question 55:

Which of the following statements are related to the limitations of Bohr's model?

(A) It is applicable to two-electron atoms such as helium.
(B) It is applicable to hydrogenic atoms.
(C) It is able to account for the intensity variations.
(D) It is unable to account for the intensity variations.

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (B) only
  3. (B) and (D) only
  4. (A) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (D) only
View Solution

Bohr's model is applicable only to hydrogen-like atoms and fails to explain intensity variations in spectral lines.

The model's inability to address multi-electron systems and intensity variations in spectral lines led to the development of quantum mechanics.

Question 56:

The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is:

  1. Small and positive
  2. Small and negative
  3. Large and negative
  4. Large and positive
Correct Answer: (1) Small and positive
View Solution

Paramagnetic materials have unpaired electrons and are weakly attracted to a magnetic field, leading to a small positive magnetic susceptibility.

Paramagnetic materials align weakly with external magnetic fields due to the presence of magnetic dipoles.

Question 57:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: Physical Quantity
(A) Electric Flux
(B) Magnetic Moment
(C) Magnetic Field
(D) Magnetic Flux

List-II: Units
(I) Tesla
(II) Volt Meter
(III) Weber
(IV) Ampere Meter

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
View Solution

- Electric Flux is measured in Volt Meters.
- Magnetic Moment is measured in Weber.
- Magnetic Field is measured in Tesla.
- Magnetic Flux is measured in Ampere Meter.

Understanding the correct units for physical quantities is fundamental in solving physics problems.

Question 58:

The mass defect in a nuclear fusion reaction is 0.1%. What amount of energy is liberated in 1 kg fusion reaction?

  1. \( 9 \times 10^{16} \, \text{Joule} \)
  2. \( 9 \times 10^{15} \, \text{Joule} \)
  3. \( 9 \times 10^{13} \, \text{Joule} \)
  4. \( 9 \times 10^{12} \, \text{Joule} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 9 \times 10^{13} \, \text{Joule} \)
View Solution

Using Einstein’s equation \( E = \Delta m c^2 \), with a mass defect of 0.1% for 1 kg and \( c = 3 \times 10^8 \, \text{m/s} \), the energy released is \( 9 \times 10^{13} \, \text{J} \).

Fusion reactions produce enormous energy, as even a tiny mass defect translates into large energy outputs.

Question 59:

Lenz's law is associated with:

  1. Conservation of mass
  2. Conservation of energy
  3. Conservation of current
  4. Conservation of motion
Correct Answer: (2) Conservation of energy
View Solution

Lenz's law ensures that the direction of induced current opposes the change in magnetic flux, thereby conserving energy in the system.

Lenz's law demonstrates how induced currents create magnetic fields that resist changes in the existing field, maintaining energy conservation.

Question 60:

Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the order of increasing wavelength:

(A) Gamma rays
(B) Radio waves
(C) Microwaves
(D) Ultraviolet rays

  1. (B), (D), (C), (A)
  2. (A), (B), (D), (C)
  3. (A), (D), (C), (B)
  4. (B), (C), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (D), (C), (B)
View Solution

Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength, followed by ultraviolet rays, microwaves, and then radio waves with the longest wavelength.

The wavelength determines the energy and applications of electromagnetic waves, with shorter wavelengths carrying higher energy.

Question 61:

Which phenomenon of light is used in optical fibres?

  1. Refraction
  2. Diffraction
  3. Reflection
  4. Total Internal Reflection
Correct Answer: (4) Total Internal Reflection
View Solution

The phenomenon used in optical fibres is Total Internal Reflection (TIR). This occurs when light traveling inside the core of the optical fibre hits the boundary with the cladding at an angle greater than the critical angle. At this point, the light reflects entirely within the core, allowing it to travel long distances without escaping, even around curves in the fibre. This property is crucial for transmitting signals in telecommunications and medical imaging.

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Total Internal Reflection (TIR) ensures efficient signal transmission in optical fibres by preventing the loss of light energy.

Question 62:

Trypanosoma belongs to which group of Protozoa?

  1. Amoeboids
  2. Flagellated
  3. Ciliated
  4. Sporozoans
Correct Answer: (2) Flagellated
View Solution

Trypanosoma belongs to the group of Flagellated Protozoa, also known as Mastigophora. These organisms use whip-like structures called flagella for movement. Trypanosoma is a parasitic protozoan responsible for diseases such as African sleeping sickness (caused by Trypanosoma brucei) and Chagas disease (caused by Trypanosoma cruzi). Its flagellum is crucial for motility and attachment to host tissues.

Flagellated protozoa, like Trypanosoma, use their flagella for locomotion and host interactions.

Question 63:

Which of the following is a biological hazard?

  1. Inorganic dust
  2. Anthrax
  3. Alcoholism
  4. Noise
Correct Answer: (2) Anthrax
View Solution

A biological hazard is a risk posed by biological agents, such as bacteria, viruses, or toxins, that can cause diseases in humans or animals. Anthrax, caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, is a prime example of a biological hazard. It is typically transmitted through contact with infected animals or their products and can lead to severe respiratory, gastrointestinal, or cutaneous infections.

Biological hazards include infectious agents like bacteria and viruses, which can cause diseases such as anthrax, tuberculosis, and influenza.

Question 64:

Magnification of concave lens is always:

  1. = +1
  2. = -1
  3. > +1
  4. < +1
Correct Answer: (4) < +1
View Solution

The magnification (M) of a concave lens is always less than +1. Concave lenses are diverging lenses, and they produce virtual, upright, and diminished images of the object. This means the size of the image is smaller than the size of the object, leading to a magnification value less than +1.

Magnification M = Image Height / Object Height for concave lenses is always less than +1 because they produce smaller, virtual images.

Question 65:

The entry level in Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya (KGBV) is:

  1. Class I
  2. Class VI
  3. Class IX
  4. Nursery
Correct Answer: (2) Class VI
View Solution

Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya (KGBV) is a scheme aimed at providing quality education to girls belonging to disadvantaged groups, particularly those from Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, and minority communities. The scheme focuses on girls in upper primary levels, with the entry point typically starting at Class VI. The initiative ensures residential schooling facilities for girls who are out of school or at risk of dropping out.

Question 66:

Which of the following is a communicable disease?

  1. Hypertension
  2. Hepatitis
  3. Diabetes
  4. Cancer
Correct Answer: (2) Hepatitis
View Solution

Hepatitis is a communicable disease caused by viruses. It spreads through contaminated food, water, or direct contact with an infected person.

Hepatitis can be prevented through vaccination and maintaining hygiene, such as washing hands and avoiding contaminated food and water.

Question 67:

The term "hidden hunger" is associated with:

  1. Protein deficiency
  2. Micronutrient deficiency
  3. Fat insufficiency
  4. Lack of energy
Correct Answer: (2) Micronutrient deficiency
View Solution

"Hidden hunger" refers to the chronic lack of vitamins and minerals (micronutrients) in the diet. It is prevalent in populations with limited access to diverse and nutritious food.

Addressing hidden hunger requires dietary diversification, fortification of staple foods, and nutritional education.

Question 68:

Identify the duties of a front office manager.

(A) Responsible for managing the front office, lobby, and transport activities.
(B) Organizes, supervises, and controls all uniformed services.
(C) Provides information and communicates with in-house guests and visitors.
(D) Schedules shifts/staff rotations and duties of the staff in shifts.

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (A), (B), and (D) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (A) and (B) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (D) only
View Solution

The front office manager focuses on managing front office activities and staff scheduling. Other tasks may fall under additional roles like guest relations or lobby managers.

Role clarity improves coordination and efficiency in hospitality management.

Question 69:

HACCP stands for which among the following?

  1. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
  2. Highly Analytical Critical Control Process
  3. Hazardous Activity Check Control Parameters
  4. Hazard Analysis Check Control Process
Correct Answer: (1) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
View Solution

HACCP is a systematic approach to food safety that identifies, evaluates, and controls hazards throughout the production process.

HACCP is crucial for maintaining hygiene and safety in food production industries.

Question 70:

Arrange the steps of the media planning process in the correct sequence:

(A) Deciding and developing media strategies.
(B) Developing a media schedule for plan of action for execution.
(C) Identifying group media targets.
(D) Deciding and defining media objectives.

  1. (D), (A), (C), (B)
  2. (C), (D), (A), (B)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (D), (A), (B)
View Solution

Media planning begins with identifying targets, followed by defining objectives, deciding strategies, and finally developing execution plans.

A systematic media planning process ensures the efficient allocation of resources and targeting of the desired audience.

Question 71:

Arrange the organizational chart of a housekeeping department below the level of Executive Housekeeper:

(A) Housemen.
(B) Room Attendant.
(C) Floor Supervisor.
(D) Assistant Housekeeper.

  1. (C), (A), (D), (B)
  2. (A), (B), (D), (C)
  3. (D), (A), (C), (B)
  4. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)
View Solution

The hierarchy begins with the Assistant Housekeeper, followed by Floor Supervisors, Room Attendants, and Housemen at the base.

An organized structure ensures efficient housekeeping operations.

Question 72:

Identify the units/terms associated with fabric inspection and testing:

(A) Thread Count.
(B) Parts per Million.
(C) Gram per Square Meter.
(D) Picks per Inch.

  1. (A), (C), and (D) only
  2. (A), (B), and (D) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (C), and (D) only
View Solution

Thread Count, Gram per Square Meter, and Picks per Inch are directly associated with fabric quality. Parts per Million is used in chemical analysis.

Accurate testing ensures fabric durability and performance.

Question 73:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Processed Foods):
(A) Manufactured Foods
(B) Food Derivatives
(C) Functional Foods
(D) Medical Foods

List II (Examples):
(I) Low Sodium Salt
(II) Probiotics
(III) Pickles, Jams, Marmalades, Squashes
(IV) Conversion of Oil to Vanaspati

  1. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

Matching involves associating processed food categories with their examples.

Classification aids in understanding food processing techniques.

Question 74:

Name the process of problem-solving with the purpose of getting a "zero-defect" product in a garment industry:

  1. Quality Assurance
  2. Quality Control
  3. Quality Management
  4. Quality Specifications
Correct Answer: (2) Quality Control
View Solution

Quality control involves identifying and eliminating defects in production to achieve a "zero-defect" standard.

Systematic quality control ensures consistent product excellence.

Question 75:

Red Ribbon Express (RRE) is a nationwide campaign for generating awareness on:

  1. Malaria
  2. Breast Cancer
  3. AIDS
  4. Diabetes
Correct Answer: (3) AIDS
View Solution

Red Ribbon Express is an innovative campaign aimed at spreading awareness about HIV/AIDS and related health issues in India.

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