CUET PG Applied Geography Question Paper 2024 will be available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG Food Science and Technology paper 2024 on from March 16 in Shift 2. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Applied Geography question paper.

CUET PG Applied Geography Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

CUET PG 2024 Applied Geography​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution


 


Question 1:

_____ is a woolly-haired racial group.

Options:

  • (1) Nordic
  • (2) Alpine
  • (3) Mediterranean
  • (4) Negroes
Correct Answer: (4) Negroes
View Solution



The "Negroes" racial group refers to people with distinct woolly hair characteristics, typically associated with Sub-Saharan African populations. These traits have been historically categorized in anthropology based on physical features. Quick Tip: Understanding racial categorizations helps in exploring human diversity and its historical classifications.


Question 2:

In the High Stationary Stage of demographic transition __.

Options:

  • (1) Infant mortality rates are low
  • (2) Population growth rates are low and fluctuating
  • (3) Population explosion takes place
  • (4) Population growth rates are high due to high crude birth rates
Correct Answer: (2) Population growth rates are low and fluctuating
View Solution



In the High Stationary Stage, both crude birth and death rates remain high, leading to a stable population with low and fluctuating growth rates. This stage is common in pre-industrial societies with limited access to modern medicine. Quick Tip: The demographic transition model explains population growth changes over time, tied to socioeconomic development.


Question 3:

In 2022, life expectancy at birth was highest in __:

Options:

  • (1) Japan
  • (2) United Kingdom
  • (3) Switzerland
  • (4) France
Correct Answer: (1) Japan
View Solution



Japan has the highest life expectancy due to factors such as its healthcare system, balanced diet, and emphasis on social and family structures. The average life expectancy in Japan exceeds 84 years. Quick Tip: High life expectancy is often a result of superior healthcare, lifestyle, and socio-economic conditions.


Question 4:

_____ settlements are generally associated with fertile alluvial plains and security concerns.

Options:

  • (1) Semi-compact
  • (2) Hamleted
  • (3) Nucleated
  • (4) Dispersed
Correct Answer: (3) Nucleated
View Solution



Nucleated settlements form in fertile regions, often near water sources. The compact clustering of homes provides advantages in security, community development, and efficient land use for agriculture. Quick Tip: Nucleated settlements reflect human adaptations to agricultural needs and security in resource-rich areas.


Question 5:

_____ signifies 'super-metropolitan region’ extending as a union of conurbations.

Options:

  • (1) Global city
  • (2) Megalopolis
  • (3) Meta city
  • (4) Edge city
Correct Answer: (2) Megalopolis
View Solution



A megalopolis is an extensive urban region formed by the merging of several metropolitan areas. It represents advanced urbanization and interconnected transportation and economic networks. Quick Tip: Megalopolises symbolize the evolution of densely interconnected urban regions.


Question 6:

Arrange the following religions in descending order in terms of the number of adherents in the world.

  • (1) Hinduism
  • (2) Christianity
  • (3) Buddhism
  • (4) Islam
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (2) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (3) (B), (D), (A), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (D), (A), (C).
View Solution



Christianity and Islam have the largest number of adherents, followed by Hinduism and Buddhism. This ranking reflects their respective populations and global spread. Quick Tip: Christianity and Islam are the two largest religions by number of adherents, with Hinduism and Buddhism following behind.


Question 7:

Arrange the following continents in descending order of level of urbanization in 2022:

  • (1) Africa
  • (2) South America
  • (3) Asia
  • (4) Europe
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (2) (D), (B), (A), (C)
  • (3) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (4) (B), (D), (C), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (D), (C), (A)
View Solution



South America is more urbanized than Europe, followed by Asia and then Africa. Africa has the least level of urbanization due to varying developmental levels and demographic trends. Quick Tip: South America has a higher urbanization rate than Europe, with Asia and Africa trailing due to varying developmental levels.


Question 8:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
View Solution



The geography of leisure is linked to sociology, cultural geography to anthropology, behavioral geography to psychology, and social well-being to welfare economics. These relationships highlight interdisciplinary approaches in human geography. Quick Tip: Human geography overlaps with various disciplines such as sociology, anthropology, and economics to study the human-environment interaction.


Question 9:

Identify the correct statements with reference to the level of urbanization in 2022.

  • (A) The level of urbanization at world level is 45 percent.
  • (B) Africa is less urbanized as compared to world average level of urbanization.
  • (C) Western Asia is more urbanized as compared to Central Asia.
  • (D) Europe is less urbanized as compared to North America.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
View Solution



Africa is less urbanized compared to the world average. Western Asia has higher urbanization levels than Central Asia, while Europe is less urbanized compared to North America. Quick Tip: Urbanization levels vary by region, with North America and Europe leading in urbanization rates, followed by parts of Asia and Africa.


Question 10:

Scale is commonly used to evaluate topological and metric properties of the geographic features on a map except:

Options:

  • (1) Distance
  • (2) Direction
  • (3) Connectivity
  • (4) Contiguity
Correct Answer: (4) Contiguity.
View Solution



Scale is used for measuring distance, direction, and connectivity but not for contiguity, which refers to adjacency or closeness of geographic features. Quick Tip: Contiguity refers to how close or adjacent features are to each other, which cannot be directly evaluated using a scale.


Question 11:

If two points located 10 km apart on ground are shown 5 cm apart on a map, then the scale of the map is:

Options:

  • (1) 1:200
  • (2) 1:20000
  • (3) 1:200000
  • (4) 1:2000
Correct Answer: (3) 1:200000.
View Solution



To calculate the scale, divide the actual ground distance by the map distance. Here, 10 km = 1,000,000 cm. Divide \(1,000,000 \, cm\) by \(5 \, cm\), giving a scale of 1:200,000. Quick Tip: Always convert the ground distance into the same unit as the map distance to accurately calculate the scale.


Question 12:

In a Zenithal projection, a ____ is made tangent to a transparent globe.

Options:

  • (1) Plane
  • (2) Cone
  • (3) Circle
  • (4) Cylinder
Correct Answer: (1) Plane.
View Solution



Zenithal projections use a plane as the projection surface, tangent to the globe at a specific point, often used for mapping polar regions. Quick Tip: Zenithal projections are suitable for mapping polar areas due to their accurate depiction of regions near the tangent point.


Question 13:

Bonne's projection is a modified version of the:

Options:

  • (1) Cylindrical projection
  • (2) Zenithal projection
  • (3) Mercator's projection
  • (4) Simple conical projection
Correct Answer: (4) Simple conical projection.
View Solution



Bonne's projection is derived from the simple conical projection and includes a secant line as a standard parallel, making it useful for mapping regions with an east-west extent. Quick Tip: Bonne's projection is widely used for mapping countries or regions with predominantly east-west orientations.


Question 14:

Which of the following landforms is represented in the diagram given below?



Options:

  • (1) Plain
  • (2) V-shaped valley
  • (3) U-shaped valley
  • (4) Hill
Correct Answer: (4) Hill.
View Solution



The diagram represents a hill, which is a raised area of land with a rounded summit. It is distinct from valleys, which have a depression. Quick Tip: Hills are smaller elevated landforms with rounded summits, contrasting with the steep sides of valleys.


Question 15:

Arrange the following reference numbers of topographical maps in order of scale from larger to smaller:

  • (A) 44 A/10/5
  • (B) 53 B/10
  • (C) 64C
  • (D) 45
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
View Solution



Reference numbers in topographical maps indicate scales, with smaller fractions representing larger scales. \(44A/10/5\) represents the largest scale, followed by \(53B/10\), \(64C\), and finally \(45\). Quick Tip: Topographical maps with detailed scales are essential for precise geographic analysis and planning.


Question 16:

Identify the correct statements about scale and representation of information on maps.

  • (A) Increasing the size of the denominator of R.F. means making each detail smaller and less exact on a map.
  • (B) A map always gives every detail to scale.
  • (C) As more area is covered by the same size map, exactness of delineation increases and more details can be shown.
  • (D) All maps give areas covered by spatially distributed details to the scale shown within the scope of each map unit.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A) and (D) only.
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (D) only.
View Solution



Maps represent the world on a reduced scale. Statement (A) correctly explains that an increased denominator results in less detail on maps. Statement (D) accurately describes how maps represent spatially distributed areas according to their scale. Statement (B) is incorrect since maps cannot always include every detail, and statement (C) is contradictory since covering more area often reduces map detail. Quick Tip: Maps with a larger denominator scale represent smaller details. Always consider the scale for detail accuracy.


Question 17:

Identify correct statements about flow diagrams.

  • (A) When part of the commodity is diverted to a different direction, the main flowline also becomes thicker proportionately.
  • (B) The thickness of the lines is determined by the volume or quantity of flow.
  • (C) Movement of goods can be shown only in one direction.
  • (D) These are not suitable to represent international, national or regional flow of various commodities.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (A) and (B) only.
Correct Answer: (4) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution



Flow diagrams visually represent the movement of goods or quantities. Statement (A) is correct as diversion impacts the thickness of the main flowline proportionately. Statement (B) accurately describes how line thickness indicates flow quantity. Statement (C) is incorrect since movements can be multi-directional, and (D) is invalid as flow diagrams are versatile across scales. Quick Tip: Flow diagrams effectively represent both volume and direction of movements in various contexts.


Question 18:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).
View Solution



Mapping sheets are classified based on their scale and area coverage. Million sheets cover large areas with minimal detail, whereas special sheets provide finer details for smaller areas. This classification helps standardize cartographic practices. Quick Tip: Understanding map sheet classifications aids in selecting appropriate scales for mapping tasks.


Question 19:

Choose the sequence of the following Biosphere Reserves from West to East as per Map of India.

  • (A) Panna
  • (B) Simlipal
  • (C) Nilgiri
  • (D) Manas
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (A), (D)
Correct Answer: (b) (C), (A), (B), (D).
View Solution



The correct sequence of Biosphere Reserves from West to East is Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka), Panna (Madhya Pradesh), Simlipal (Odisha), and Manas (Assam). This follows the geographic positioning of these reserves on the map of India. Quick Tip: Memorizing the geographic location of major Biosphere Reserves aids in better understanding of India's ecological diversity.


Question 20:

Choose the sequence of the following initiatives of Govt. of India in chronological order of their initiation:

  • (A) Biological Diversity Act
  • (B) National Green Tribunal
  • (C) National Environment Policy
  • (D) Project Elephant
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (D), (A), (B), (C)
  • (3) (D), (A), (C), (B)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (D), (A), (C), (B).
View Solution



The correct sequence of initiatives is: Project Elephant (1992), Biological Diversity Act (2002), National Environment Policy (2006), and National Green Tribunal (2010). These initiatives reflect the chronological development of India’s environmental policies. Quick Tip: Learning the timeline of environmental initiatives helps in understanding policy progression and priorities.


Question 21:

Match List I with List II





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution



The correct match is: Keoladeo in Rajasthan, Bandipur in Karnataka, Indravati in Chhattisgarh, and Kaziranga in Assam. This match is based on the geographic location of these famous National Parks. Quick Tip: Familiarity with National Parks and their states is crucial for ecological and conservation studies.


Question 22:

The aim of the Indian Rhino Vision-2020 was to increase the one-horn Rhino population to at least up to by 2020.

  • (1) 1000
  • (2) 2000
  • (3) 3500
  • (4) 3000
Correct Answer: (4) 3000.
View Solution



The Indian Rhino Vision-2020 initiative aimed to ensure the population of one-horned rhinoceroses in Assam reached 3000 by 2020 through habitat management and anti-poaching measures. Quick Tip: Conservation programs like Indian Rhino Vision-2020 are pivotal in protecting endangered species and their habitats.


Question 23:

Acid rain is caused by:

  • (1) ozone depletion
  • (2) water pollution
  • (3) deforestation
  • (4) air pollution
Correct Answer: (4) air pollution.
View Solution



Acid rain is primarily caused by sulfur dioxide (SO\textsubscript{2) and nitrogen oxides (NO\textsubscript{x) released into the atmosphere, which react with water vapor to form acidic compounds. The main sources are industrial emissions and vehicle exhaust. Quick Tip: Limiting industrial emissions and using cleaner fuels can significantly reduce acid rain formation.


Question 24:

______ is a natural cause of loss of biodiversity.

  • (1) Habitat loss
  • (2) Environmental pollution
  • (3) Drought
  • (4) Intensive agriculture
Correct Answer: (3) Drought.
View Solution



Droughts are natural phenomena that significantly impact biodiversity by reducing water availability, disrupting food chains, and causing habitat loss. Unlike human-induced factors, droughts are climatic events that naturally influence ecosystems. Quick Tip: Droughts affect biodiversity, especially in ecosystems with limited water resources, emphasizing the importance of water conservation.


Question 25:

Identify the correct statements.

  • (A) The term Ecology was coined by Haeckel in 1869.
  • (B) Ecology is the study of relationships between organisms and their physical environment as well as relationships among organisms.
  • (C) The term Ecosystem was coined by Tansley in 1924.
  • (D) The sequential succession in 'sere' begins with 'Climatic Climax'.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A) and (B) only.
  • (3) (A) and (D) only.
  • (4) (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution



Haeckel coined the term "Ecology" in 1869, describing it as the study of interactions between organisms and their environment. Tansley introduced "Ecosystem" in 1935, not 1924. The sequence of ecological succession starts with pioneer species, not 'Climatic Climax.' Quick Tip: Understanding the origins of ecological concepts clarifies foundational principles in environmental science.


Question 26:

______ is constructed to protect coastal land from sea wave and current erosion.

1. Break Waters

2. Masonary Sea Wall

3. Groins

4. Dredging

Correct Answer: 2. Masonary Sea Wall.
View Solution



Masonry sea walls are vertical or sloped structures built parallel to the shore to protect coastal areas from wave action and erosion caused by sea currents. These walls are made of durable materials such as stone, concrete, or brick to withstand harsh marine conditions. Unlike breakwaters, which are offshore structures to reduce wave energy, sea walls directly protect the coastline. They are extensively used in areas with high tidal forces or significant risk of erosion due to storms. Quick Tip: Masonry sea walls are essential for protecting coastal infrastructure but may require maintenance to prevent structural weakening over time.


Question 27:

Which of the following is NOT a biotic component of an ecosystem?

1. Plants

2. Animals

3. Chemotrophs

4. Air

Correct Answer: 4. Air.
View Solution



Biotic components are the living entities in an ecosystem, such as plants, animals, and microorganisms (e.g., chemotrophs that derive energy from inorganic compounds). These components interact with each other and contribute to the ecosystem's food web and energy flow. In contrast, abiotic components like air, water, and minerals are non-living environmental factors that influence the habitat but are not directly involved in biological processes like reproduction or energy production. Quick Tip: Differentiating between biotic and abiotic factors helps in understanding ecological interactions and environmental dependencies.


Question 28:

______ steel plant was set up with German collaboration.

1. Bhilai

2. Rourkela

3. Bokaro

4. Durgapur

Correct Answer: 2. Rourkela.
View Solution



Rourkela Steel Plant, established in 1955, was the first public sector steel plant in India to be set up with foreign collaboration, specifically from Germany. It marked a significant milestone in India’s industrialization efforts under the Five-Year Plans. The plant adopted advanced technologies for steel production and played a critical role in meeting domestic demand for steel in construction and manufacturing sectors. Quick Tip: The collaboration with Germany brought cutting-edge technology to India, which boosted the nation’s self-sufficiency in steel production.


Question 29:

The North-South and the East-West corridors intersect at

1. Katni

2. Gwalior

3. Agra

4. Thansi

Correct Answer: 4. Thansi.
View Solution



The North-South and East-West corridors, part of the Golden Quadrilateral network in India, intersect at Thansi in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh. These corridors aim to enhance connectivity across the country by linking major cities. The intersection at Thansi is strategically located, facilitating the movement of goods and passengers across both axes, thus supporting trade, reducing travel time, and promoting regional development. Quick Tip: Corridor intersections play a pivotal role in creating transport hubs, reducing logistics costs, and spurring economic growth.


Question 30:

In 2021-22, the leading state in marine fish production was

1. Gujarat

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. West Bengal

4. Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: 1. Gujarat.
View Solution



Gujarat ranked as the top state in marine fish production due to its long coastline of approximately 1,600 kilometers along the Arabian Sea. Its strategic location provides access to rich fishing grounds, complemented by government initiatives and the use of modern fishing technologies. Gujarat's fishing industry contributes significantly to the national economy, supporting livelihoods and promoting exports. Quick Tip: The fishing industry in Gujarat benefits from an extensive coastline, abundant fish stocks, and a strong export market.


Question 31:

Among the following states, ___ recorded the lowest literacy in 2011.

1. Maharashtra

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Punjab

4. Uttarakhand

Correct Answer: 3. Punjab.
View Solution



Punjab, among the options listed, recorded the lowest literacy rate in the 2011 Census. Despite its economic and agricultural development, literacy levels in Punjab lagged behind states like Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, known for their extensive educational outreach and infrastructure. Quick Tip: Literacy is a critical indicator of social development, influencing employment opportunities and quality of life.


Question 32:

In 2011, the average annual exponential population growth rate of India was ____ percent.

1. 2.6

2. 1.97

3. 1.64

4. 1.76

Correct Answer: 3. 1.64.
View Solution



India’s average annual population growth rate during the decade leading up to the 2011 Census was 1.64%. This rate reflects a gradual decline in population growth due to increasing literacy, better healthcare, and awareness of family planning programs. Quick Tip: Monitoring population growth rates is essential for effective planning of resources, infrastructure, and services.


Question 33:

In 2011, the most urbanized state among the following was:

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Maharashtra

4. Mizoram

Correct Answer: 4. Mizoram.
View Solution



Mizoram, with its high urban population proportion, emerged as the most urbanized state in 2011 among the given options. This was largely due to the settlement patterns and rapid urban growth in cities like Aizawl, driven by better infrastructure and services compared to rural areas. Quick Tip: Urbanization is a key factor in economic development, but it also demands sustainable urban planning to manage resources efficiently.


Question 34:

Kudremukh iron ore area is located in

1. Jharkhand

2. Karnataka

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer: 2. Karnataka.
View Solution



The Kudremukh iron ore region, located in Karnataka, is known for its high-grade iron ore deposits. It played a significant role in India's mining sector until operations ceased due to environmental concerns. Kudremukh is also notable for its biodiversity, as it lies within the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage site. Quick Tip: Kudremukh demonstrates the balance required between resource extraction and environmental conservation.


Question 35:

Arrange the following states in descending order in sugarcane production in 2021-22.

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Gujarat
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Maharashtra
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (C), (D), (A), (B)
    2. (D), (C), (A), (B)
    3. (C), (D), (B), (A)
    4. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: 1. (C), (D), (A), (B).
View Solution



Uttar Pradesh ranks first in sugarcane production in India, followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat. Uttar Pradesh benefits from its fertile Gangetic plains and favorable climate, while Maharashtra's sugarcane industry is bolstered by irrigation facilities and sugar mills. Karnataka and Gujarat also contribute significantly but on a smaller scale. Quick Tip: Sugarcane is a critical cash crop in India, and its production is vital for both sugar and ethanol industries.


Question 36:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).
View Solution



The Machkund hydroelectric project is located on the border of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh and is managed primarily by Odisha. Obra is a thermal and hydroelectric project situated in Uttar Pradesh. Mettur Dam is a significant hydroelectric facility in Tamil Nadu, while the Jaldhaka hydroelectric project is in West Bengal, near the Indo-Bhutan border. Quick Tip: Knowing the locations of major hydroelectric projects helps in understanding regional energy distribution in India.


Question 37:

Identify the correct statements.

  • (A) Deccan trap is dominantly made up of sedimentary rocks.
  • (B) Dharwar rocks of India are rich in coal reserves.
  • (C) Himalayas belong to alpine orogeny.
  • (D) Main Boundary Thrust lies between the Lower Himalaya and the Outer Himalaya.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
    2. (C) and (D) only.
    3. (A) and (D) only.
    4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 2. (C) and (D) only.
View Solution



The Himalayas are an example of alpine orogeny, characterized by the folding and uplift of rocks due to tectonic plate collisions. The Main Boundary Thrust separates the Lower Himalaya from the Outer Himalaya (Shiwaliks). Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect because the Deccan Traps are composed of basaltic igneous rocks, not sedimentary rocks, and Dharwar rocks are rich in metallic minerals but not coal. Quick Tip: Understanding geological formations like the Himalayas and Deccan Traps helps in the study of Earth's tectonic history.


Question 38:

According to explaining the economic landscape, the prime objective of economic geography is:

1. Wetgens

2. Brown

3. Thoman

4. Huntington

Correct Answer: 1. Wetgens.
View Solution



Wetgens emphasized the role of economic geography in understanding and explaining the spatial distribution of economic activities and the factors influencing the economic landscape. This includes the study of resources, trade, and industrial development patterns. Quick Tip: Economic geography bridges the gap between physical geography and economics, aiding in regional planning and development.


Question 39:

Ruhr-Westphalia coalfield is located in

1. Germany

2. USA

3. Spain

4. Brazil

Correct Answer: 1. Germany.
View Solution



The Ruhr-Westphalia coalfield is located in Germany and is one of the largest coal-producing regions in Europe. It has historically played a critical role in powering Germany's industrial growth during the 19th and 20th centuries. The coalfield is also significant for its contributions to steel production. Quick Tip: Regions like Ruhr-Westphalia highlight the link between natural resources and industrial development.


Question 40:

Pilbara and Mt. Tom Price are major iron ore fields of

1. China

2. Brazil

3. South Africa

4. Australia

Correct Answer: 4. Australia.
View Solution



Pilbara and Mt. Tom Price are located in Western Australia, home to some of the richest iron ore deposits globally. Australia is a leading exporter of iron ore, with Pilbara being a significant mining hub, supplying high-quality ore to steel industries worldwide. Quick Tip: Iron ore from Australia, particularly the Pilbara region, is crucial for global steel production.


Question 41:

Shifting cultivation is known as Chena in

1. Malaysia

2. Sri Lanka

3. Indonesia

4. Nigeria

Correct Answer: 2. Sri Lanka.
View Solution



Shifting cultivation, locally referred to as "Chena" in Sri Lanka, involves clearing a forest or shrubland area for agricultural purposes. The land is used for a few years and then abandoned to allow natural vegetation to regenerate. It is a traditional practice primarily in rural areas and is often criticized for its environmental impact, such as deforestation and soil erosion. Quick Tip: Shifting cultivation, while a cultural practice, requires careful management to mitigate ecological damage.


Question 42:

The Orient Express runs in

1. Japan

2. China

3. Europe

4. South America

Correct Answer: 3. Europe.
View Solution



The Orient Express is a luxury long-distance passenger train service originally connecting Paris to Istanbul, passing through several European countries. It is historically significant for its role in luxury travel during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Although its original route is no longer operational, it remains an iconic symbol of European rail travel. Quick Tip: The Orient Express is famous for its luxurious accommodations and cultural significance in European history.


Question 43:

Kanagawa Science Park is located in

1. South Korea

2. North Korea

3. Japan

4. Vietnam

Correct Answer: 3. Japan.
View Solution



Kanagawa Science Park, located in Japan, is a major hub for research and innovation, hosting numerous technology companies and academic institutions. It facilitates collaboration between industries and academia, contributing significantly to advancements in science and technology. Quick Tip: Science parks like Kanagawa promote innovation and serve as incubators for cutting-edge research and technology.


Question 44:

In 2021-22, the leading exports of India were of

1. Agriculture and allied products

2. Ores and Minerals

3. Crude and Petroleum Products (including coal)

4. Manufactured goods

Correct Answer: 4. Manufactured goods.
View Solution



Manufactured goods, including textiles, machinery, and pharmaceuticals, accounted for the largest share of India's exports in 2021-22. This reflects India's diverse industrial base and global competitiveness in various manufacturing sectors. Agricultural products and crude petroleum also contributed significantly, but they were not the leading export category. Quick Tip: Manufactured goods drive India's export economy, highlighting the importance of industrial growth and trade policies.


Question 45:

Arrange the following industrial centres of USA in east to west direction.

  • (A) Chicago
  • (B) Pittsburgh
  • (C) Baltimore
  • (D) Seattle
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (B), (C), (A), (D)
    2. (C), (B), (A), (D)
    3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
    4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: 2. (C), (B), (A), (D).
View Solution



The correct order of the industrial centers of the USA from east to west is Baltimore (Maryland), Pittsburgh (Pennsylvania), Chicago (Illinois), and Seattle (Washington). This sequence reflects the geographic distribution of these cities, each known for its unique industrial contributions, such as steel in Pittsburgh and technology in Seattle. Quick Tip: Understanding the geographic placement of industrial centers helps in analyzing economic and trade patterns in the USA.


Question 46:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).
View Solution



New Zealand is categorized as a "Very High HDI" country due to its strong social indicators, including education and health. Brazil falls into the "High HDI" category, representing significant development but not at par with countries like New Zealand. India is in the "Medium HDI" group, indicating considerable progress but with room for improvement in literacy and health. Yemen ranks under "Low HDI" due to severe challenges in development and socio-economic factors. Quick Tip: The HDI provides a composite measure of a country's achievements in health, education, and income. It’s a critical indicator for assessing global disparities.


Question 47:

Identify the correct statements with reference to Weber's Industrial Location Theory.

  • (A) The theory was proposed by American scholar Weber in 1909.
  • (B) It is based on the principle of least-cost location.
  • (C) Weber used the critical isodapane concept to show the effect of cheaper labor.
  • (D) It is based on multiple modes of transportation.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
    2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
    3. (B) and (C) only.
    4. (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 3. (B) and (C) only.
View Solution



Weber's Industrial Location Theory emphasizes the least-cost principle for the optimal placement of industries. It focuses on minimizing transportation costs, labor costs, and agglomeration costs. The "critical isodapane" concept demonstrates the influence of labor costs on the location of industries. Statement (A) is incorrect because Alfred Weber was a German economist, and statement (D) is incorrect as the theory does not address multiple transportation modes explicitly. Quick Tip: Weber’s model is fundamental in economic geography, helping understand industrial placement dynamics.


Question 48:

The maximum damage to property in earthquakes is caused by

1. P Waves

2. S Waves

3. L Waves

4. Gamma Waves

Correct Answer: 3. L Waves.
View Solution



L Waves, or surface waves, travel along the Earth's crust and have the most destructive effect during an earthquake. These waves cause horizontal and vertical ground movement, leading to structural collapses. P and S waves primarily travel through the Earth's interior, causing less surface damage, while gamma waves are unrelated to seismic activity. Quick Tip: L Waves are slower but have higher amplitudes, making them the most damaging in terms of property destruction during earthquakes.


Question 49:

Tsunami is not caused by

1. Undersea Earthquake

2. Undersea Massive Landslide

3. Undersea Explosive Volcano

4. Collision of Continental Plates

Correct Answer: 4. Collision of Continental Plates.
View Solution



Tsunamis are triggered by sudden undersea events such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides. The collision of continental plates does not directly generate a tsunami unless it leads to an underwater earthquake or a similar event. Quick Tip: Understanding the causes of tsunamis is essential for early warning systems and disaster preparedness in coastal areas.


Question 50:

The flood caused by high tidal waves is called

1. Coastal Flood

2. Urban Flood

3. Flash Flood

4. River Flood

Correct Answer: 1. Coastal Flood.
View Solution



Coastal floods occur when high tidal waves, often combined with storm surges or tsunamis, inundate coastal areas. These events can be exacerbated by cyclones, hurricanes, or rising sea levels. Unlike urban floods or flash floods, coastal floods are primarily influenced by tidal and meteorological factors. Quick Tip: Coastal flooding highlights the importance of sustainable coastal management and effective warning systems.


Question 51:

The catastrophic cyclones in the Saffir-Simpson scale are categorized as

1. Scale-I

2. Scale-V

3. Scale-IV

4. Scale-III

Correct Answer: 2. Scale-V.
View Solution



The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale classifies cyclones into five categories based on their sustained wind speeds. Scale-V represents the most catastrophic cyclones with wind speeds exceeding 157 mph (252 km/h). Such cyclones cause widespread devastation, including structural failures, power outages, and severe flooding. Quick Tip: Cyclone preparedness is critical for Scale-V hurricanes due to their immense destructive potential.


Question 52:

____ drought represents deficiency of surface and groundwater storages.

1. Meteorological

2. Agricultural

3. Hydrological

4. Ecological

Correct Answer: 3. Hydrological.
View Solution



A hydrological drought occurs when there is a significant decrease in surface and groundwater storage levels. This type of drought impacts water availability for domestic, agricultural, and industrial use. It often follows meteorological droughts, where precipitation is significantly below average. Quick Tip: Monitoring water resource levels can help predict and mitigate the effects of hydrological droughts.


Question 53:

As per the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Act, 2005, ___ acts as the chairperson of NDMA.

1. Prime Minister of India

2. President of India

3. Union Home Minister

4. Union Defence Minister

Correct Answer: 1. Prime Minister of India.
View Solution



The NDMA Act, 2005, established the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Prime Minister of India as its chairperson. The NDMA's primary responsibility is to develop policies and guidelines for disaster risk reduction, preparedness, and response. Quick Tip: The NDMA ensures a coordinated approach to disaster management across various levels of government in India.


Question 54:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: 1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution



Geological hazards like earthquakes often result in landslides. Climate hazards cause floods and droughts, biological hazards lead to epidemics, and accidental hazards such as industrial accidents result in structural collapses. Quick Tip: Identifying hazard types and their impacts helps in formulating targeted disaster management strategies.


Question 55:

Arrange the following major earthquakes of India in descending order of their magnitude.

  • (A) Bhuj, Gujarat (2001)
  • (B) Darbhanga, Bihar (1988)
  • (C) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh (1997)
  • (D) Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand (1991)
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
    2. (A), (B), (D), (C)
    3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
    4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: 2. (A), (B), (D), (C).
View Solution



The earthquakes, ordered by descending magnitude, are: Bhuj, Gujarat (2001), Darbhanga, Bihar (1988), Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand (1991), and Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh (1997). The Bhuj earthquake was the most devastating with a magnitude of 7.7, causing massive damage and loss of life. Quick Tip: Magnitude ranking helps in assessing the potential impact and developing preparedness plans for future seismic events.


Question 56:

Arrange the following cyclones in descending order of their occurrence year.

  • (A) Tith
  • (B) Amphan
  • (C) Tauktae
  • (D) Fani
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (D), (B), (A), (C)
    2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
    3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
    4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: 4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution



The cyclones arranged in descending order of their occurrence year are: Tauktae (2021), Amphan (2020), Fani (2019), and Tith (2018). These cyclones caused significant impacts on the Indian subcontinent, with Tauktae and Amphan being particularly devastating. Quick Tip: Cyclones are named regionally, and their naming follows chronological order based on occurrence.


Question 57:

Identify the Do's during a Cyclone disaster.

  • (A) Switch on the light for better visibility.
  • (B) Try to stay in the affected area as long as you can.
  • (C) Move your valuable items to upper floors to avoid flood damage.
  • (D) Trust only messages broadcasted by government officials.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (B) and (D) only.
    2. (C) and (D) only.
    3. (A) and (D) only.
    4. (B) and (C) only.
Correct Answer: 2. (C) and (D) only.
View Solution



During a cyclone, it is essential to move valuable items to higher floors to minimize flood damage. Additionally, trusting official communication from government agencies ensures accurate and timely information for safety. Staying in affected areas or relying on unofficial sources can increase risk. Quick Tip: Effective disaster management involves heeding official advice and preparing for potential flooding or high winds.


Question 58:

MICE is an acronym for

1. Meeting in Controlled Environment

2. Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, Exhibitions

3. Make Indigenous Conversation Environment

4. Made in China Exclusively

Correct Answer: 2. Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, Exhibitions.
View Solution



MICE stands for Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, and Exhibitions. It is a specialized tourism sector focusing on business and professional events. This industry is a significant contributor to the global economy, fostering networking and knowledge sharing. Quick Tip: MICE tourism combines professional events with travel, supporting both industry growth and tourism sectors.


Question 59:

___ holds the highest percent share in Foreign Tourist Arrivals in India during 2021.

1. USA

2. Bangladesh

3. England

4. Australia

Correct Answer: 1. USA.
View Solution



The USA recorded the highest percentage share of foreign tourist arrivals in India during 2021. Factors include strong cultural and business ties, a large Indian diaspora, and India's appeal as a travel destination for both leisure and professional engagements. Quick Tip: India's tourism attracts visitors globally, with the USA being a significant contributor due to bilateral ties and diverse attractions.


Question 60:

___ state registered the highest percentage of Domestic Tourist Visits during 2021.

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: 4. Uttar Pradesh.
View Solution



Uttar Pradesh emerged as the state with the highest domestic tourist visits in 2021. Its rich cultural heritage, historical sites like the Taj Mahal, and religious destinations such as Varanasi and Ayodhya contribute significantly to its tourism appeal. Quick Tip: Uttar Pradesh leverages its cultural and religious tourism potential to attract millions of domestic travelers annually.


Question 61:

___ was ranked at the top in the Travel and Tourism Development Index, 2021.

1. USA

2. Japan

3. Spain

4. Switzerland

Correct Answer: 2. Japan.
View Solution



Japan ranked first in the Travel and Tourism Development Index 2021. The country's excellent infrastructure, rich cultural heritage, and efficient tourism policies contribute to its top position. Japan's ability to combine traditional and modern tourism experiences makes it a leading destination globally. Quick Tip: Indexes like the Travel and Tourism Development Index highlight a country's strengths in tourism and guide improvements.


Question 62:

The draft of the recent National Tourism Policy was finalized in the year

1. 2022

2. 2023

3. 2020

4. 2021

Correct Answer: 1. 2022.
View Solution



The National Tourism Policy draft was finalized in 2022 to revitalize the tourism sector post-pandemic. This policy emphasizes sustainable tourism practices, infrastructure development, and technology integration to boost India's tourism industry. Quick Tip: National tourism policies help streamline efforts across sectors to enhance a country's tourism potential.


Question 63:

Arrange the following Natural Tourism sites from North to South on the Map of India.

  • (A) Bandipur National Park
  • (B) Kaziranga National Park
  • (C) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
  • (D) Kanha National Park
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
    2. (C), (B), (D), (A)
    3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
    4. (C), (B), (A), (D)
Correct Answer: 2. (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution



From north to south, the correct order is: Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (Uttarakhand), Kaziranga National Park (Assam), Kanha National Park (Madhya Pradesh), and Bandipur National Park (Karnataka). These sites showcase India's rich biodiversity across diverse geographical zones. Quick Tip: Understanding the geographic locations of natural tourism sites aids in effective travel planning and ecological awareness.


Question 64:

Identify the correct statements about Medical Tourism in India.

  • (A) India has the world's best doctors.
  • (B) Indian systems of medicine are among the most ancient systems of treatment.
  • (C) Most doctors and nurses are fluent in English.
  • (D) The healthcare facilities in India are the best in the world.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
    1. (A) and (D) only.
    2. (B) and (C) only.
    3. (C) and (D) only.
    4. (B) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 2. (B) and (C) only.
View Solution



India is known for its ancient medical systems such as Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani, which are globally recognized for holistic healing. Additionally, English fluency among healthcare professionals makes India a preferred destination for international patients. While Indian healthcare facilities are advanced, the statement that they are the "best in the world" is subjective and depends on specific parameters. Quick Tip: Medical tourism in India is driven by quality healthcare services, affordability, and a blend of modern and traditional treatments.


Question 65:

Match List I with List II







Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

2. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

4. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).
View Solution



Ellora Caves are located in Maharashtra, the Sun Temple in Odisha, Kovalam Beach in Kerala, and Ooty in Tamil Nadu. These sites are among the most iconic tourist attractions in their respective states, showcasing India's cultural and natural diversity. Quick Tip: India’s rich tourism offerings span ancient monuments, spiritual sites, and scenic landscapes, each unique to its region.


Question 66:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution



The Valley of Flowers represents natural tourism due to its rich biodiversity. Kashi Vishwanath is a pilgrimage site in Varanasi. Vadnagar is known for its cultural heritage, and Medanta is a medical tourism facility providing world-class healthcare. Quick Tip: India's diverse tourism spectrum includes natural wonders, pilgrimage centers, cultural heritage sites, and advanced medical facilities.


Question 67:

___ headed the World Commission on Environment and Development.

1. Zubcevic

2. Fieldhouse

3. Brundtland

4. Reagan

Correct Answer: 3. Brundtland.
View Solution



Gro Harlem Brundtland, a former Prime Minister of Norway, chaired the World Commission on Environment and Development, which introduced the concept of sustainable development in the landmark report "Our Common Future" (1987). Quick Tip: The Brundtland Report is foundational to understanding the need for integrating environmental sustainability with economic development.


Question 68:

The deadline for achieving the Millennium Development Goals was the year

1. 2015

2. 2030

3. 2012

4. 2010

Correct Answer: 1. 2015.
View Solution



The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were adopted in 2000 with a target deadline of 2015. They addressed key global challenges like poverty, education, gender equality, and environmental sustainability. Quick Tip: The MDGs provided a framework for coordinated global action to improve quality of life worldwide by 2015.


Question 69:

National Environment Policy, 2006 defines CDM as

1. Clean Development Mechanism

2. Combined Development Mechanism

3. Community Development and Management

4. Community Development Mechanism

Correct Answer: 1. Clean Development Mechanism.
View Solution



The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is part of the Kyoto Protocol, allowing industrialized countries to invest in emission-reduction projects in developing countries to meet their greenhouse gas reduction targets. Quick Tip: CDM projects promote sustainable development while addressing global climate change challenges.


Question 70:

UN Climate Change Conference (COP27) was held in

1. United Kingdom

2. Egypt

3. UAE

4. Brazil

Correct Answer: 2. Egypt.
View Solution



The 27th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP27) was held in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt, in 2022. The conference focused on advancing climate adaptation, loss and damage financing, and reinforcing commitments to the Paris Agreement. Quick Tip: COP27 highlighted the urgent need for global collaboration to tackle climate change and its impacts.


Question 71:

Countries with high levels of human development invest more in

  • (1) agriculture sector
  • (2) industrial sector
  • (3) research
  • (4) social sector
Correct Answer: (4) social sector.
View Solution



Countries with high levels of human development prioritize investment in the social sector, which includes education, healthcare, and welfare programs. These investments are aimed at improving the overall quality of life, fostering equality, and ensuring a well-functioning society. Quick Tip: Investments in social services like healthcare and education are directly linked to higher human development outcomes.


Question 72:

Arrange the following themes of Sustainable Development Goals in ascending order of their Goal number.

  • (A) Decent Work and Economic Growth
  • (B) Reduced Inequalities
  • (C) No Poverty
  • (D) Life on Land
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (A), (B), (D).
View Solution



The correct order based on the SDG numbers is: No Poverty (Goal 1), Decent Work and Economic Growth (Goal 8), Reduced Inequalities (Goal 10), and Life on Land (Goal 15). These goals are part of the global effort to create a sustainable and equitable future. Quick Tip: The SDGs provide a comprehensive framework to address social, economic, and environmental challenges worldwide.


Question 73:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution



The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) align as follows: Goal-1 focuses on eradicating extreme poverty, Goal-5 on improving maternal health, Goal-8 on global partnerships, and Goal-7 on ensuring environmental sustainability. Quick Tip: The MDGs set the stage for addressing global development challenges, laying a foundation for the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).


Question 74:

Match List I with List II






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV).
View Solution



The Millennium Summit occurred in 2000, Rio+20 in 2012, Agenda 2030 in 2015, and the World Summit on Sustainable Development in 2002. These events were milestones in global efforts to address development and sustainability. Quick Tip: Global summits provide a platform for international cooperation on pressing developmental and environmental issues.


Question 75:

Identify the correct statements about the Rio+20 summit.

  • (A) It was held at Rio de Janeiro in 2015.
  • (B) It initiated the process to develop a set of Sustainable Development Goals.
  • (C) It ignored the UNEP on several fronts.
  • (D) It adopted ground-breaking guidelines on Green Economy Policy.
    \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}
  • (1) (A) and (D) only.
  • (2) (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (B) and (D) only.
  • (4) (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (D) only.
View Solution



The Rio+20 summit, held in 2012, marked the beginning of the process for developing the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and adopted guidelines for promoting green economy practices. Quick Tip: The Rio+20 summit emphasized the need for integrating environmental sustainability with economic development.