CUET PG Textile Engineering 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Textile Engineering exam 2025 is scheduled for 29th March 2025 (Shift 3). After the examination, candidates will be able to download the CUETPGTextileEngineeringquestionpaper2025, answer key, and solution PDF. The exam evaluates knowledge in textile manufacturing, yarn and fabric technology, textile testing, fiber science, textile machinery, and quality control.

Candidates are required to answer 75 questions within 60 minutes, totaling 300 marks. Each correct answer earns 4 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect answer.

CUET PG Textile Engineering 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET PG Textile Engineering Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

In ________, the package is driven in frictional contact with the drum.

  • (A) Drum driven winding
  • (B) Spindle driven winding
  • (C) Pirn winding
  • (D) Weft winding

Question 2:

In ________, the yarn passes through two plates in which one plate is the baseplate and the other is a weighing plate.

  • (A) Electronic tensioner
  • (B) Additive type tensioner
  • (C) Multiplicative type tensioner
  • (D) Roller tensioner

Question 3:

In case of plain weave fabric, the respective warp and weft counts are 30 tex and 20 tex, with 40 ends per cm and 30 picks per cm. The warp has 10% crimp and weft also 10% crimp. Calculate the weight of fabric in grams/square meter.

  • (A) 178
  • (B) 188
  • (C) 198
  • (D) 208

Question 4:

In ________ system, a warping beam with a complex pattern of colored stripes is obtained.

  • (A) Direct beam warping
  • (B) Ball warping
  • (C) Sectional warping
  • (D) Warp sizing machine

Question 5:

In the slasher sizing machine, the principle involved in drying the wet warp sheet by physical contact with a hot drum surface is ________.

  • (A) Conduction
  • (B) Convection
  • (C) Radiation
  • (D) Combined convection and radiation

Question 6:

To prevent the growth of microorganisms, ________ is added to the size paste.

  • (A) Adhesive material
  • (B) Softener
  • (C) Antistatic agent
  • (D) Antiseptic agent

Question 7:

The material flow of the warp sheet through different zones in a sizing machine is ________.

A. Drying zone
B. Size box zone
C. Beaming zone
D. Creel zone

  • (A) A, C, B, D
  • (B) D, B, A, C
  • (C) C, A, D, B
  • (D) B, D, C, A

Question 8:

The ________ machine is used to produce a suitable package of weft yarn for a shuttle loom.

  • (A) Pirn winding
  • (B) Cone winding
  • (C) Sectional warping
  • (D) Two for one twister

Question 9:

Match Type of shed with Position of warps.

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 10:

In ________, an external device is required to close the hook of needle during loop formation.

  • (A) Latch Needle
  • (B) Compound Needle
  • (C) Bearded Needle
  • (D) Sewing Needle

Question 11:

In ________ weft knitting machine, the needles in the two beds are not face to face but needles in one bed are in between the needles of the other bed.

  • (A) Single jersey circular machine
  • (B) Rib knitting
  • (C) Interlock knitting
  • (D) Purl knitting

Question 12:

In the warp knitting machine, ________ of the guide bar takes place either from the front of the needles to the back or from the back of the needles to the front.

  • (A) Swinging motion
  • (B) Shogging motion
  • (C) Vertical motion
  • (D) Circular motion

Question 13:

In nonwoven fabric manufacturing, the melt spinning process produces ________.

  • (A) Spun bonded web
  • (B) Aerodynamically formed web
  • (C) mechanically formed web
  • (D) wetlaid web

Question 14:

Match Direction with Orientation of fibers on the web.

  • (A) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
  • (B) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Question 15:

In non-woven fabric manufacturing, the surgical face masks are produced by ________.

  • (A) Spunbond technology
  • (B) Meltblown technology
  • (C) Carded web
  • (D) Wet laid technology

Question 16:

Calculate the production per shift of 8 hrs of a loom running at 200 picks/min with 90% efficiency. The number of picks per inch inserted in the cloth is 56.

  • (A) 10.4 yards
  • (B) 20.0 yards
  • (C) 30.0 yards
  • (D) 42.86 yards

Question 17:

In ________ mechanism, the shuttle passes through the shed from one shuttle box to the opposite shuttle box.

  • (A) Shedding
  • (B) Picking
  • (C) Beat up
  • (D) Let off

Question 18:

In ________ rapier, the gripper heads are propelled by flexible tape.

  • (A) Telescopic
  • (B) Double bonded rigid
  • (C) Flexible
  • (D) Single head rigid

Question 19:

In case of weft knitted fabric ________ structure, each wale consists of alternate face and back loops.

  • (A) Rib
  • (B) Plain single jersey
  • (C) Interlock
  • (D) Purl

Question 20:

A cotton fabric is treated with a finishing chemical of 6.0 % concentration. If the wet pick up is 80 %, the add-on of chemical on fabric is ________.

  • (A) 1.48 %
  • (B) 4.8 %
  • (C) 3.48 %
  • (D) 0.48 %

Question 21:

The process of removal of protruding fibers from the surface of fabric is called as ________.

  • (A) Singeing
  • (B) Bleaching
  • (C) Shearing
  • (D) Cropping

Question 22:

Match Machine with Principle.

  • (A) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 23:

Objectives of scouring of cotton.

A. To remove natural fatty matter from textiles.
B. To remove added fatty matter from textiles.
C. To remove pectins from textiles.
D. To remove coloring matter from textiles.

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) C and D only

Question 24:

Process sequence for polyester/wool blended knitted goods (Crisp handle).

A. Light brushing.
B. Open steam (allowing full relaxation).
C. Decatising.
D. Close cropping on face side of fabric.

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 25:

The reactive dyes are applied to Cellulosic fiber in an alkaline dyeing bath, by chemically reacting to form ________ with the hydroxyl group of the fiber.

  • (A) Salt linkage
  • (B) Hydrogen bond
  • (C) Ionic bond
  • (D) Covalent bond

Question 26:

Desizing of a grey cotton fabric having a starch-based size can not be done using ________.

  • (A) Amylase enzyme
  • (B) Dilute hydrochloric acid
  • (C) DMDHEU
  • (D) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 27:

Which among the following is not a characteristic of a binder?

A. Capable of application by dry cure to form a film, trapping the pigment on the surface of the substrate
B. Provide adhesion of the pigment to the substrate surface
C. Able to crosslink in order to form a protective film
D. Non-elastic properties to allow for bending and stretching of the substrate after printing

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 28:

The Pad - Dry - Cure process is followed in ________.

  • (A) Reactive Dyeing
  • (B) Pigment dyeing
  • (C) Vat dyeing
  • (D) Direct dyeing

Question 29:

The after treatment of certain direct dyes with 0.25-2% copper sulphate and 1% acetic acid for 20-30 mins at 60°C to improve ________.

  • (A) Washing fastness
  • (B) Light fastness
  • (C) Light and washing fastness both
  • (D) Perspiration fastness

Question 30:

Vatting process does not accelerate due to ________.

  • (A) Temperature
  • (B) Concentration of alkali
  • (C) Concentration of reducing agent
  • (D) Time

Question 31:

The light fastness of azoic dyed material decreases mainly due to ________.

  • (A) Depth of color
  • (B) Type of fabric
  • (C) Humidity
  • (D) Type of substrate

Question 32:

In the pad-steam process of vat dye, intermediate drying is carried out for ________.

  • (A) Better fixation
  • (B) Prevention of pigment migration
  • (C) Increase in color depth
  • (D) Avoiding color change

Question 33:

Which dye is responsible for tendering of cotton?

  • (A) Reactive dye
  • (B) Basic dye
  • (C) Sulphur dye
  • (D) Azoic dye

Question 34:

The maximum damage to cotton in sodium hypochlorite is found at ________ pH.

  • (A) 3 to 4
  • (B) 5 to 6
  • (C) 7 to 8
  • (D) 9 to 10

Question 35:

________ has the highest Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).

  • (A) Corn starch
  • (B) British gum
  • (C) C. M. C.
  • (D) Polyvinyl alcohol

Question 36:

In wet spinning process, the solvent removal and fiber solidification takes place during ________ stage.

  • (A) Drawing
  • (B) Wet coagulation
  • (C) Span finish
  • (D) Heat setting

Question 37:

The Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM) is used for the study of ________ structure of fibrous material.

  • (A) Surface
  • (B) Internal
  • (C) Localised
  • (D) External

Question 38:

The term wash and wear is used in the case of polyester fiber due to its ________.

  • (A) High amorphousity and high water absorption
  • (B) Low crystalline and low water absorption
  • (C) Poor water absorption and high crease recovery
  • (D) High water absorption and low crease recovery

Question 39:

The glass fiber is ________ fiber.

  • (A) Protein
  • (B) Inorganic
  • (C) Cellulosic
  • (D) Elastomeric

Question 40:

The wool fiber exhibits high elastic recovery among the natural fibers due to its ________.

  • (A) Strong inter-molecular linkages
  • (B) Weak lateral forces
  • (C) Poor molecular arrangement
  • (D) High crystalline region

Question 41:

The outstanding features of polyamide fiber are ________.

A. Good dimensional stability.
B. High wet modulus.
C. High resistance to alkali.
D. Low strength and high elongation.

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 42:

Arrange the following transition temperatures given by Differential Scanning Calorimetry (DSC) in ascending order.

A. Melting temperature
B. Crystallization temperature
C. Degradation temperature
D. Glass transition temperature

  • (A) D, B, A, C
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 43:

Match Fibre with Application.

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 44:

The monomer used in the manufacture of Nylon 6 fiber is ________.

  • (A) Hexamethylene diamine
  • (B) Adipic acid
  • (C) Caprolactam
  • (D) Terephthalic acid

Question 45:

On mercerization, moisture regain of cotton fiber ________.

  • (A) Decreases
  • (B) Remain unchanged
  • (C) Increases
  • (D) Indeterminate

Question 46:

The essential requirements of fiber forming polymers are ________.

A. Linear polymer
B. Three dimensional polymer
C. High molecular weight
D. Strong lateral forces

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) A, C and D only

Question 47:

The acrylic fiber is called artificial wool due to ________ formed on removal of solvent during manufacturing.

  • (A) Twist
  • (B) Serrations
  • (C) Voids
  • (D) Faults

Question 48:

The objective of the filament drawing process is to improve the ________ of a fibre.

  • (A) Crystallinity
  • (B) Molecular orientation
  • (C) Density
  • (D) Thickness

Question 49:

The melting temperature of Nylon 6 fiber is ________.

  • (A) 180° C
  • (B) 120° C
  • (C) 218° C
  • (D) 265° C

Question 50:

The primary functions of Spin finish are ________.

A. Lubrication of fiber surface
B. Drawing of filaments
C. Antistatic action
D. Cohesion of filaments

  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 51:

The strength of yarn decreases with the increase in specimen length due to more chances of the occurrence of ________ places in longer specimen.

  • (A) Faults
  • (B) Strong
  • (C) Weak
  • (D) Very strong

Question 52:

The KES-FB module of Kawabata hand evaluation instruments gives ________.

A. Linearity of the load elongation curve.
B. Compression resilience.
C. Tensile energy.
D. Bending rigidity.

  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, B and D only

Question 53:

The control and reduction of short fiber content have a direct impact on ________ in a yarn.

  • (A) Thin places
  • (B) Thick places
  • (C) Long thin places
  • (D) Neps

Question 54:

The periodic mass variations in yarn are mainly caused by ________.

  • (A) Machine faults
  • (B) Machine setting
  • (C) Random fiber arrangement
  • (D) Personal error

Question 55:

Match the LIST I with LIST II.

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, - D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, - D - IV
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - IV, - D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, - D - II

Question 56:

The cotton fiber exhibits poor crease recovery due to ________.

  • (A) Strong lateral linkages
  • (B) Flexible polymer chain
  • (C) Weak lateral linkages
  • (D) Breakage of polymer chains

Question 57:

With all other parameters constant, the fabric with a low cover factor effectively transmits water vapor by a diffusion mechanism in comparison with that of fabric with a high cover factor due to ________.

  • (A) More air space
  • (B) Less thickness
  • (C) High thickness
  • (D) Less air space

Question 58:

The strength of fiber is usually measured in bundle form because there is better correlation between fiber bundle strength and ________.

  • (A) Yarn hairiness
  • (B) Yarn unevenness
  • (C) Yarn strength
  • (D) Yarn twist

Question 59:

The thermal insulation of clothing mainly depends on fabric ________.

  • (A) Thickness
  • (B) Stiffness
  • (C) Crease recovery
  • (D) Weight

Question 60:

A 100-meter skein of polyester filament yarn weighs 2.5 grams, calculate its tex number.

  • (A) 12 tex
  • (B) 25 tex
  • (C) 17 tex
  • (D) 21 tex

Question 61:

The electrical conductivity of fiber ________ on increase in moisture absorption.

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) unchanged
  • (D) affected

Question 62:

In the fineness measurement by Sheffield micronaire instrument, the flow of air through a plug of fibers is related to ________ of fiber.

  • (A) Area of cross section
  • (B) Perimeter
  • (C) Weight per unit length
  • (D) Specific surface

Question 63:

Which of the following methods are indirect methods for determining the maturity of cotton fibers?

A. Polarised light method
B. Causticare method
C. Differential dyeing method
D. Caustic Soda swelling method

  • (A) Only A, B and D
  • (B) Only A, B and C
  • (C) Only C and D
  • (D) All A, B, C and D

Question 64:

In the twisting zone, if the rear end of the fiber is not in the nip of the delivery rollers of the ringframe, the fiber will be under no control, which causes ________.

  • (A) Hairiness
  • (B) Nep
  • (C) Thick place
  • (D) Nap

Question 65:

The heart loop test of measurement of fabric stiffness is especially used for ________ fabrics.

  • (A) Heavy
  • (B) Stiff
  • (C) Limpy
  • (D) Knitted

Question 66:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Arrange the machines of a ring spinning line in the sequence.

A. Ring Frame
B. Carding
C. Speed frame
D. Draw frame

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 67:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) C and D only

Question 68:

Choose the correct tasks of the rotor spinning machine.

A. Fibre separation
B. Ordering the fibres in the strand
C. Imparting strength by twisting
D. Removal of neps

  • (A) Airjet spinning
  • (B) Ring spinning
  • (C) Open end spinning
  • (D) Friction spinning

Question 69:

In ________ modern spinning system, the rotation of yarn arises from the rotary movement of the two drums and is generated by frictional contact at the drum surface.

  • (A) Middle and front rollers
  • (B) Front roller and spindle
  • (C) Back and middle rollers
  • (D) Cool and back roller

Question 70:

In the drafting system of a ring frame, the break draft is applied between ________.

  • (A) Middle and front rollers
  • (B) Front roller and spindle
  • (C) Back and middle rollers
  • (D) Cool and back roller

Question 71:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

Question 72:

On a ________ machine, two or more single yarns are plied and twisted together.

  • (A) Ring frame
  • (B) Two for one twister
  • (C) Yarn winding
  • (D) Speed frame

Question 73:

In the spinning process, a precisely predetermined quantity of short fibers are eliminated in ________.

  • (A) Comber
  • (B) Draw frame
  • (C) Speed frame
  • (D) Carding

Question 74:

The main objective of the ginning process is ________.

  • (A) Separation of seeds from cotton fibers
  • (B) Opening and cleaning
  • (C) Trash removal
  • (D) Parallelization of fibers

Question 75:

In a ring bobbin, the actual yarn weight is 75 grams with count 30 tex, calculate the length of the yarn in meters.

  • (A) 7500 meters
  • (B) 250 meters
  • (C) 25 meters
  • (D) 2500 meters

 

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