CUET PG Soil Science 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Soil Science exam in 2025 will be held on 30th March during Shift 3. After the exam, candidates will be able to access the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF. The exam tests knowledge in areas such as soil chemistry, soil fertility, soil physics, soil classification, and land management practices.

Students are required to attempt 75 questions in 60 minutes, totaling 300 marks. Each correct answer gives 4 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect answer.

CUET PG Soil Science 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET PG Soil Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

The intensity of drizzling precipitation is generally:

  • (A) More than 2.0 mm/h
  • (B) 1.5 mm/h to 2.0 mm/h
  • (C) 1.0 mm/h to 1.5 mm/h
  • (D) Less than 1.0 mm/h

Question 2:

The type of rainfall is called heavy, when its intensity is:

  • (A) 1.5 mm/h to 2.5 mm/h
  • (B) 2.5 mm/h to 5 mm/h
  • (C) 5.0 mm/h to 7.5 mm/h
  • (D) More than 7.5 mm/h

Question 3:

The intensity of rainfall for a 2-hour unit hydrograph is:

  • (A) 2.0 cm/h
  • (B) 1.0 cm/h
  • (C) 0.25 cm/h
  • (D) 0.5 cm/h

Question 4:

An instantaneous unit hydrograph is assumed to have the duration of rainfall occurrence as:

  • (A) 1 hour
  • (B) 0.5 hour
  • (C) 0.1 hour
  • (D) Zero hour

Question 5:

Contour bunds are recommended on the land slopes:

  • (A) Up to 2%
  • (B) Up to 6%
  • (C) Up to 10%
  • (D) Up to 12%

Question 6:

Which of the following is a permanent gully control structure?

  • (A) Loose rock dam
  • (B) Brush wood dam
  • (C) Drop spillway
  • (D) Woven wire dam

Question 7:

For a straight inlet drop spillway with 1 m crest length and 1 m head above the crest, the discharge capacity will be:

  • (A) 1.0 m\(^3\)/sec
  • (B) 1.5 m\(^3\)/sec
  • (C) 1.77 m\(^3\)/sec
  • (D) 2.0 m\(^3\)/sec

Question 8:

The minimum wind velocity at 0.30 m from ground surface required to initiate the movement of the most erodible soil particle is about:

  • (A) 22 km/h
  • (B) 18 km/h
  • (C) 12 km/h
  • (D) 10 km/h

Question 9:

The size of the soil particles prone to saltation due to wind ranges from:

  • (A) 0.01 to 0.05 mm
  • (B) 0.05 to 0.50 mm
  • (C) 0.50 to 0.80 mm
  • (D) 0.80 to 1.0 mm

Question 10:

If a water pump delivers 10 liters of water in one second against the head of 38 meters, the water horse power required will be:

  • (A) 5.0
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 19
  • (D) 22

Question 11:

The water held tightly to the surface of soil particles by adsorptive forces is called:

  • (A) Capillary water
  • (B) Hygroscopic water
  • (C) Gravitational water
  • (D) Free water

Question 12:

In a soil sample, the void ratio 'l' and porosity 'n' are related as:

  • (A) \( l = n(1-l) \)
  • (B) \( l = n(l-1) \)
  • (C) \( n = l(1-n) \)
  • (D) \( n = l(l+n) \)

Question 13:

The instrument which is used to measure evapotranspiration in the field condition is:

  • (A) Evaporimeter
  • (B) Current meter
  • (C) Lysimeter
  • (D) Pyrometer

Question 14:

For determination of moisture content in a soil sample, the moist sample is put in the oven for a period of:

  • (A) 10 hours
  • (B) 14 hours
  • (C) 20 hours
  • (D) 24 hours

Question 15:

One horse power is equal to:

  • (A) 100 meter-kilogram per second
  • (B) 76 meter-kilogram per hour
  • (C) 76 meter-kilogram per second
  • (D) 100 kilowatt per second

Question 16:

In order to determine moisture content by oven drying method, the sample is kept in the oven fixed at a temperature of:

  • (A) 105 \(^{\circ}\)F
  • (B) 120 \(^{\circ}\)F
  • (C) 105 \(^{\circ}\)C
  • (D) 140 \(^{\circ}\)C

Question 17:

One-atmosphere pressure is equivalent to:

  • (A) 100 cm of water
  • (B) 76.4 cm of water
  • (C) 1036 cm of water
  • (D) 1036 cm of mercury

Question 18:

The soil having the maximum water holding capacity is:

  • (A) Clayey
  • (B) Sandy
  • (C) Loamy
  • (D) Gravelly

Question 19:

The duty of canal water (hectare per cm per second) 'D', base period of crop 'b' in days and delta 'd' in meter are related as:

  • (A) D = b x d
  • (B) D = b / d
  • (C) D = 8.64 \(\frac{b}{d}\)
  • (D) D = 8.64 \(\frac{d}{b}\)

Question 20:

If the moist and oven dried weights of a soil sample are 100 gram and 80 gram, respectively, the moisture content of the sample on dry weight basis will be:

  • (A) 10%
  • (B) 15%
  • (C) 25%
  • (D) 30%

Question 21:

The water pressure developed by 25 meters of water head is about:

  • (A) 1.5 kg/cm\(^2\)
  • (B) 2 kg/cm\(^2\)
  • (C) 2.5 kg/cm\(^2\)
  • (D) 4 kg/cm\(^2\)

Question 22:

Drip emitters can discharge water ranging from:

  • (A) 1 to 4 liters per hour
  • (B) 2 to 10 liters per hour
  • (C) 10 to 12 liters per hour
  • (D) 12 to 15 liters per hour

Question 23:

A 100-hectare watershed with uniform land use has a time of concentration of 2 hours. What will be the peak runoff rate at its outlet due to a storm with uniform rainfall intensity of 6 cm/h for a fixed return period? The runoff coefficient is 0.60.

  • (A) 5 m\(^3\)/sec
  • (B) 8 m\(^3\)/sec
  • (C) 10 m\(^3\)/sec
  • (D) 12 m\(^3\)/sec

Question 24:

Bench terracing is to be done on a 25% sloped land with riser slope of 1:1 and width of level terrace as 6 m. The vertical interval for terraces will be:

  • (A) 1 m
  • (B) 2 m
  • (C) 3.3 m
  • (D) 4 m

Question 25:

If the diameter of the well is doubled, the water yield will increase by about:

  • (A) 5%
  • (B) 8%
  • (C) 10%
  • (D) 15%

Question 26:

Indian remote sensing satellite - 1C (IRS-1C) operates in how many spectral bands?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 27:

The portion of electromagnetic spectrum sensitive to human eyes ranges from:

  • (A) 0.1 \(\times\) 10\(^{-6}\)m to 0.3 \(\times\) 10\(^{-6}\)m
  • (B) 0.4 \(\times\) 10\(^{-6}\)m to 0.7 \(\times\) 10\(^{-6}\)m
  • (C) 0.4 \(\times\) 10\(^{-7}\)m to 0.7 \(\times\) 10\(^{-7}\)m
  • (D) 0.4 \(\times\) 10\(^{-8}\)m to 0.7 \(\times\) 10\(^{-8}\)m

Question 28:

The minimum grade for the drains of 10 cm diameter should be:

  • (A) 1.00%
  • (B) 0.50%
  • (C) 0.20%
  • (D) 0.10%

Question 29:

The mole drainage system is the most feasible in the fields with:

  • (A) Sandy soil
  • (B) Clayey soil
  • (C) Sandy loam soil
  • (D) Sandy clay loam soil

Question 30:

If 0.36 hectare area is draining excess water at the rate of 0.01 m\(^3\)/sec, the drainage coefficient will be:

  • (A) 1.10 cm
  • (B) 2.20 cm
  • (C) 3.24 cm
  • (D) 4.36 cm (The answer calculated is 2.4 cm, option B is closest)

Question 31:

Drainage coefficient is depth of water drained from an area during the period of:

  • (A) 8 hours
  • (B) 12 hours
  • (C) 20 hours
  • (D) 24 hours

Question 32:

If the spacing between the sprinklers on a lateral is doubled, the application rate will be:

  • (A) The same
  • (B) Increase two times
  • (C) Reduced to half
  • (D) Reduced by 10%

Question 33:

Match LIST I with LIST II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 34:

The capacity of receiving bottle of non-recording raingauge is:

  • (A) 5 cm
  • (B) 10 cm
  • (C) 10 mm
  • (D) 15 cm

Question 35:

The general rules applicable for locating the raingauges:

A. The opening of the raingauge should be at least 50 cm above the ground level.

B. The raingauge should be located in an open space free from obstructions.

C. The distance of the raingauge from the obstruction should be at least twice the height of the obstruction.

D. Uneven topography should be avoided.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 36:

The characteristics of the raindrops, which are important from soil erosion point of view are:

A. Raindrop size

B. Terminal velocity

C. Kinetic energy

D. Drop size distribution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) A, B and C only
  • (D) A, B, C and D

Question 37:

The chief advantages of strip cropping are:

A. Physical protection against blowing, provided by the vegetation.

B. Soil erosion is limited to a distance equal to the length of the strip.

C. Greater conservation of moisture.

D. The possibility of the earliest harvest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, C and D only

Question 38:

Transformation of rainfall at a place in a watershed into the channel flow has the following sequence:

A. Infiltration into soil

B. Depression storage

C. Occurrence of rainfall

D. Interflow

E. Surface runoff

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, E, C, D
  • (B) C, A, B, D, E
  • (C) C, A, B, D, E
  • (D) C, A, B, D, E

Question 39:

Starting from the water source, the sequence of parts of a drip irrigation system are as follows:

A. Main line

B. Laterals

C. Sub-main

D. Emitter
E. Pump and prime mover unit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C, B, D, E
  • (B) A, D, B, E, C
  • (C) E, B, C, D, A
  • (D) E, A, C, B, D

Question 40:

With reference to the electromagnetic spectrum, the sequences of various parts of spectrum with increasing order of wave length should be as follows:

A. X-rays

B. Microwaves

C. Infrared

D. Gamma rays

E. Radio waves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, E, B, C, D
  • (B) E, D, A, C, B
  • (C) D, A, C, B, E
  • (D) E, A, B, D, C

Question 41:

The design of a terrace involves:

A. Proper spacing of terraces

B. Location of terrace

C. Design of channel with adequate capacity

D. Development of farmable cross section

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 42:

Which of the followings is not determined through flood routing?

  • (A) Inflow rate
  • (B) Stage height
  • (C) Storage volume
  • (D) Outflow rate

Question 43:

Which of the followings are true for spillways?

A. The capacity of a chute is decreased by sedimentation at the outlet.

B. The hydraulic capacity of the pipe spillway is related to the cube root of the head.

C. The longitudinal spills serve to straighten the flow.

D. Drop spillways are usually limited to drops of 3 m.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) C and D only

Question 44:

The hydrologic cycle is governed by which of the following equation?

  • (A) Bernoulli
  • (B) Dalton
  • (C) Continuity
  • (D) Darcy

Question 45:

Write the sequence in increasing order of average discharge of the following water lifting devices.

A. Persian wheel

B. Water wheel

C. Don

D. Rope and bucket lift


Question 46:

Write the order of the following regions according to their increasing order of annual rainfall amount received.

A. Karnataka Plateau

B. West Coast

C. Kutch in Gujarat

D. Eastern Coastal Plain


Question 47:

The probability of the occurrence of a rainfall event is calculated by

  • (A) Arithmetic mean
  • (B) Isohyetal method
  • (C) Thiessen method
  • (D) Weibull method

Question 48:

Write the sequence of the following type of Pan according to the value of pan coefficient in increasing order.

A. Class A Land Pan

B. ISI Pan

C. Colorado Sunken Pan

D. USGS Floating Pan


Question 49:

Write the sequence of flow of water through the Water turbine pump.

A. Turbine intake

B. Turbine runner

C. Pump intake

D. Draft tube

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 50:

Write the sequence of following soil texture layers according to their increasing radius of influence in wells.

A. Fine to medium sand

B. Fine sand

C. Course gravel

D. Coarse sand

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 51:

In deriving the equations for confined and unconfined aquifers, which of the following assumptions are used?

A. Change in the drawdown with respect to time is negligible.

B. The well penetrates the entire aquifer.

C. The flow is vertical and uniform everywhere in the horizontal section.

D. The flow is laminar.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 52:

Write the steps involved in designing of a sprinkler system in a proper sequence.

A. Quantity of water to be applied

B. Application rate

C. Capacity of the system

D. Selection of sprinklers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 53:

The infiltration rates observed by cylinder infiltrometers are affected by:

A. Cylinder diameter

B. Thickness of cylinder

C. Metal with which a cylinder is made of

D. Cylinder installation depth

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 54:

Arrange the parts of a tensiometer from the bottom to the top of the instrument.

A. Transparent pipe

B. Connecting tube

C. Ceramic cup

D. Vacuum gauge

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 55:

Read the following statements about border irrigation carefully:

A. Width of borders usually varies from 10 to 25 m.

B. For a sandy and sandy loam soil on moderate slopes and small to moderate irrigation streams, border length ranges from 30 to 90 m.

C. For a medium loam soil on moderate slopes and small to moderate irrigation streams, border length ranges from 100 to 180 m.

D. For a clay loam and clay soil on moderate slopes and small to moderate irrigation streams, border length ranges from 120 to 350 m.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 56:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 57:

Arrange the following soil types such that the spacing of drains (m) fall in a descending order.

A. Clay loam

B. Loam

C. Sandy loam

D. Peat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) D, C, B, A
  • (D) C, B, A, D

Question 58:

Arrange the following irrigation efficiencies starting from source of water to water needed in the root zone:

A. Reservoir storage efficiency

B. Application efficiency

C. Storage efficiency

D. Conveyance efficiency

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, D, C, B
  • (C) A, D, B, C
  • (D) A, D, C, B

Question 59:

Line up the following methods for ET\(_{0}\) estimation according to year of development, earliest to latest.

A. Blaney and Criddle

B. Radiation

C. Penman-Monteith

D. Modified Penman

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C, B, D
  • (B) A, D, C, B
  • (C) A, D, B, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 60:

The scientist who has developed the flour pellet method for raindrop size determination is:

  • (A) Hudson
  • (B) Ramser
  • (C) Sayder
  • (D) Dicken

Question 61:

Class -A USWB pan has the following specifications:

A. It has metallic sheet of 22 gauge.

B. It has a diameter of 1.2 m.

C. It is painted as green.

D. It has a depth of 25 cm.

E. It is directly placed on the ground surface.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C, D and E only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A, B and D only
  • (D) B, C, D and E only

Question 62:

The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump has the following relationship:

A. Discharge versus Efficiency

B. Head versus BHP

C. BHP versus Discharge

D. Discharge versus Head

E. Efficiency versus Head

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) B, D and E only
  • (C) A, C and E only
  • (D) C, D and E only

Question 63:

Remote sensing data have the following type of resolutions:

A. Temporal resolution

B. Spectral resolution

C. Scattered resolution

D. Spatial resolution

E. Radiometric resolution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B, C, D and E only
  • (B) A, B, D and E only
  • (C) A, C, D and E only
  • (D) A, B, C and E only

Question 64:

If a centrifugal pump does not deliver the water, the possible causes are:

A. Priming is not done.

B. Lubrication is incorrect.

C. Pumping head is too high.

D. Suction pipe is clogged.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) A, B and D only
  • (D) A, C and D only

Question 65:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Question 66:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 67:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Question 68:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-IV, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 69:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Question 70:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 71:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Question 72:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 73:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 74:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 75:

Match LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

 

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