CUET PG Psychology 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the philosopher who believed in mind-body dualism, the idea that the soul (or mind) is a non-physical substance that can exist separately from the physical body.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Plato: A classical Greek philosopher, Plato was a strong proponent of dualism. He argued that the soul is immortal and can exist independently of the body, both before birth and after death. His dialogue, the *Phaedo*, specifically presents arguments for the soul's immortality and its separateness from the body.



(B) De Anima: This is not a person but the title of a major work by Aristotle ("On the Soul"). Aristotle, Plato's student, had a different view. He believed the soul was the "form" of the body and could not exist without it, which is a view contrary to dualism.



(C) Rene Descartes: A 17th-century philosopher, Descartes is also a famous dualist. He famously argued, "I think, therefore I am," to establish the existence of the mind as a thinking thing, distinct from the extended, physical body. While Descartes is a correct example of a dualist, Plato's ideas on this topic predate his by centuries, and Plato is a foundational figure for this concept. Given the options, Plato is the most historically primary answer.



(D) Gustav Fechner: A 19th-century German psychologist, Fechner is known as a founder of psychophysics, the study of the relationship between physical stimuli and sensory experience. His work is not primarily focused on the metaphysical concept of the soul's separability from the body.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the foundational and explicit arguments for the soul's separate existence, Plato is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: For questions about the history of philosophy and psychology, remember key figures and their core ideas. Plato and Descartes are both associated with mind-body dualism, but Plato is the classical originator of the concept.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that describes the brain's capacity to change, reorganize, and form new connections, particularly in response to learning, experience, or injury.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Lateralization: This refers to the specialization of functions in either the left or right hemisphere of the brain. For example, language is typically lateralized to the left hemisphere. This does not describe the brain's ability to adapt.



(B) Localization: This is the theory that specific functions (like speech or vision) are located in specific areas of the brain. It is the opposite of the idea that the brain is a holistic, adaptable organ.



(C) Neuroplasticity: Also known as brain plasticity, this term refers to the brain's ability to reorganize its structure, functions, and connections throughout life. This adaptability allows the brain to recover from damage, such as a stroke, by having healthy areas take over the functions of the injured parts.



(D) Neural degeneration: This is the progressive loss of structure or function of neurons, often associated with diseases like Alzheimer's or Parkinson's. It is the opposite of adaptation and recovery.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ability of the brain to adapt and reorganize, especially after damage, is correctly termed neuroplasticity.
Quick Tip: Remember the root word "plastic," which means "moldable" or "changeable." Neuroplasticity means the nervous system is changeable, allowing it to adapt to new experiences or recover from injury.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the primary function of a specific region in the brain's frontal lobe known as Broca's area.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Understanding language: Language comprehension is primarily associated with Wernicke's area, which is located in the temporal lobe.



(B) Speech production: Broca's area, located in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left), plays a vital role in the generation of articulate speech. It is responsible for coordinating the complex muscle movements of the mouth, tongue, and larynx necessary for speaking. Damage to this area results in Broca's aphasia, where a person can understand language but has difficulty producing fluent speech.



(C) Motor control: While speech is a motor activity, "motor control" as a general term is primarily governed by the motor cortex. Broca's area is specifically for the motor planning of speech.



(D) Somatosensory control: This function, which involves processing sensations like touch, temperature, and pain, is managed by the somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The primary function of Broca's area is speech production.
Quick Tip: A helpful mnemonic is: \(\textbf{B}\)roca's area helps you \(\textbf{b}\)roduce speech (\(\textbf{b}\)roken speech if damaged), while \(\textbf{W}\)ernicke's area deals with \(\textbf{w}\)ord comprehension (\(\textbf{w}\)acky, meaningless sentences if damaged).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the name of the part of a neuron that serves as its metabolic center and is essential for its survival.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Dendrites: These are branch-like extensions that receive signals from other neurons and transmit them toward the cell body.



(B) Axon: This is a long, slender projection that conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body to transmit signals to other neurons.



(C) Soma: The soma is the cell body of the neuron. It contains the nucleus (which houses the genetic material) and other essential organelles, like mitochondria. The soma is responsible for protein synthesis and all the metabolic processes that maintain the neuron's life and function.



(D) Glial cells: These are non-neuronal cells in the nervous system that provide support and protection for neurons. They are separate cells and not a part of the neuron itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The cell body responsible for maintaining the life of the neuron is the soma.
Quick Tip: Think of the soma as the "headquarters" or "life-support system" of the neuron, containing the nucleus and machinery to keep the cell alive. Dendrites are the "receivers," and the axon is the "transmitter."

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the major division of the nervous system to which the spinal cord belongs.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The nervous system is broadly divided into two main parts:

1. The Central Nervous System (CNS): This is the main control center and consists of the brain and the spinal cord.


2. The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS): This consists of all the nerves that branch out from the CNS (brain and spinal cord) and extend to other parts of the body, such as muscles and organs.


The Autonomic and Somatic nervous systems are further subdivisions of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS).


Autonomic Nervous System: Controls involuntary functions like heartbeat and digestion.
Somatic Nervous System: Controls voluntary muscle movements.


Since the spinal cord, along with the brain, makes up the primary processing center of the nervous system, it is part of the Central Nervous System.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The spinal cord is a part of the Central nervous system.
Quick Tip: Remember that the nervous system has two "central" components that form the main axis: the brain and the spinal cord. Everything else that branches off is "peripheral."

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term for a substance that mimics or increases the action of a natural neurotransmitter at its receptor site.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Agonists: An agonist is a chemical that binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a biological response. By doing so, it mimics or enhances the effect of a natural neurotransmitter. For example, dopamine agonists are drugs that mimic the action of dopamine in the brain.



(B) Antagonists: An antagonist is a chemical that binds to a receptor but does not activate it. Instead, it blocks the receptor, preventing the natural neurotransmitter or an agonist from having an effect. For example, dopamine antagonists block dopamine receptors.



(C) Antalogist: This is not a standard term in pharmacology or neuroscience.



(D) Agnologist: This is not a standard term in this context.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Chemicals that mimic or enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter are called agonists.
Quick Tip: Think of the prefix "ago-" in \(\textbf{agonist}\) as being "for" or "promoting" an action, like a protagonist in a story drives the plot forward. Conversely, an \(\textbf{antagonist}\) is "against" the action.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the neurotransmitter primarily responsible for producing a calming effect in the brain and reducing anxiety.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric acid): GABA is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Its primary function is to reduce neuronal excitability by blocking or inhibiting certain brain signals. This action produces a calming effect and plays a major role in controlling anxiety, stress, and fear. Low levels of GABA are associated with anxiety disorders.



(B) Acetylcholine: This neurotransmitter is involved in muscle action, learning, and memory.



(C) Glutamic acid (Glutamate): Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter. It increases neuronal excitability, which is the opposite of a calming effect.



(D) Dopamine: This neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the brain's reward system, motivation, pleasure, and motor control.


Step 3: Final Answer:

GABA is the neurotransmitter that helps to calm anxiety by inhibiting brain activity.
Quick Tip: Think of GABA as the "brakes" of the brain, slowing things down to reduce anxiety. In contrast, Glutamate is the "gas pedal," speeding things up and increasing excitement.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a function of the hippocampus from the given options. The hippocampus is a structure in the brain's temporal lobe.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The hippocampus is most famous for its crucial role in learning and memory, specifically in the consolidation of short-term memories into long-term memories and in spatial navigation. However, memory is not an option here. We must choose the best fit from the given choices.



(A) Emotion: The hippocampus is a key part of the limbic system, which is the brain's primary network for regulating emotional responses. The hippocampus works closely with other limbic structures like the amygdala to process the context of emotions and form memories of emotional events. The anterior part of the hippocampus, in particular, is involved in regulating emotion and stress. Therefore, it plays a significant role in emotion.



(B) Balance Control: This function is primarily managed by the cerebellum.



(C) Fear: While the hippocampus is involved in forming memories of fearful events, the primary center for processing the emotion of fear itself is the amygdala.



(D) Sexual drive: This is primarily regulated by the hypothalamus.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Among the given options, "Emotion" is the most accurate and broadest function listed that involves the hippocampus, as it is a central component of the limbic system, the brain's emotional circuit.
Quick Tip: While the hippocampus is the brain's primary "memory center," it is also a key part of the limbic system. If memory isn't an option in a question about the hippocampus, look for a broader limbic system function like emotion.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which therapeutic technique is primarily based on the principles of operant conditioning (learning through reinforcement and punishment).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Systematic desensitization: This is a behavioral technique based on classical conditioning. It works by pairing relaxation techniques with feared stimuli in a hierarchical manner to extinguish the fear response.



(B) Aversive conditioning: This is also based on classical conditioning. It involves pairing an undesirable behavior (like smoking) with an unpleasant stimulus (like an electric shock or a nausea-inducing drug).



(C) Behaviour Modification: This is a broad term for a set of therapies based on the principles of operant conditioning. It uses reinforcement (positive and negative) and punishment to change behavior. Techniques like token economies, shaping, and contingency management fall under this umbrella.



(D) Flooding: This is an exposure therapy technique based on classical conditioning, specifically the principle of extinction. It involves exposing the individual to the feared stimulus for an extended period until the fear response subsides.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Behaviour Modification is the technique fundamentally rooted in the principles of operant conditioning.
Quick Tip: To distinguish between classical and operant conditioning applications, ask: Is the behavior voluntary or involuntary? Operant conditioning deals with changing \(\textbf{voluntary}\) behaviors through consequences (reinforcement/punishment), which is the core of behaviour modification. Classical conditioning deals with \(\textbf{involuntary}\) reflexive responses (like fear or salivation).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires identifying the core principles of B.F. Skinner's theory of operant conditioning.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A. The goal is to increase the rate of an already occurring response. This is a key goal of reinforcement in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is any event that strengthens or increases the frequency of a preceding response. This statement is correct.


B. Responses are voluntary. This is a fundamental distinction between operant and classical conditioning. Operant conditioning involves learning to associate a voluntary action with a consequence. This statement is correct.


C. Responses are involuntary and reflexive. This describes classical conditioning, where an organism learns to associate a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits a reflexive response. This statement is incorrect.


D. Reinforcement must be immediate. For conditioning to be most effective, the reinforcement should follow the desired behavior as quickly as possible. This principle is known as immediate reinforcement. While learning can occur with delayed reinforcement, immediacy is a crucial principle for efficiency. This statement is considered correct in the context of foundational principles.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Statements A, B, and D are correct descriptions of operant conditioning principles, while C describes classical conditioning. Therefore, the correct combination is A, B, and D.
Quick Tip: Remember the acronym \(\textbf{VCR}\) for operant conditioning: \(\textbf{V}\)oluntary action followed by a \(\textbf{C}\)onsequence (Reinforcement/Punishment). This helps distinguish it from the involuntary, reflexive nature of classical conditioning.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify examples of punishment in the context of operant conditioning. Punishment is any consequence that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. It can be positive (adding an unpleasant stimulus) or negative (removing a pleasant stimulus).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A. Stopping at a red light to avoid getting in an accident. This is an example of negative reinforcement. The behavior (stopping at the light) is increased to avoid or remove an aversive outcome (an accident). It strengthens a behavior, it does not punish it.


B. Losing the privilege of driving because you got into too many accidents. This is an example of negative punishment. A desirable stimulus (the privilege of driving) is removed to decrease the behavior (unsafe driving).


C. Having to lose some of your money to pay the penalty for late tax filing. This is an example of negative punishment. A desirable stimulus (money) is removed to decrease the behavior (filing taxes late).


D. Being grounded (losing your freedom) because of disobedience. This is an example of negative punishment. A desirable stimulus (freedom) is removed to decrease the behavior (disobedience).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Examples B, C, and D all describe the removal of a pleasant stimulus to decrease a behavior, which is the definition of negative punishment. Example A describes negative reinforcement. Therefore, only B, C, and D are related to punishment.
Quick Tip: Remember: \(\textbf{Reinforcement increases}\) a behavior, while \(\textbf{punishment decreases}\) a behavior. \(\textbf{Positive}\) means adding a stimulus, and \(\textbf{negative}\) means removing one. Don't confuse "negative" with "bad." Negative reinforcement is the removal of something bad to increase a behavior.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a schedule of reinforcement based on two criteria: (1) it depends on the number of responses, and (2) this number is different or unpredictable.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's break down the terms:

Ratio vs. Interval: Ratio schedules are based on the number of responses. Interval schedules are based on the passage of time. The question specifies "number of responses," so it must be a ratio schedule.
Fixed vs. Variable: Fixed schedules have a set, unchanging requirement. Variable schedules have an unpredictable, changing requirement. The question specifies the number is "different for each trial," so it must be a variable schedule.

Combining these two parts gives us a Variable Ratio schedule.



(A) Variable interval schedule: Reinforcement after an unpredictable amount of time.

(B) Variable ratio schedule: Reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses. This matches the description.

(C) Fixed ratio schedule: Reinforcement after a specific, predictable number of responses.

(D) Fixed interval schedule: Reinforcement after a specific, predictable amount of time.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The schedule where reinforcement is given after an unpredictable number of responses is the variable ratio schedule.
Quick Tip: Think of a slot machine. You don't know how many times you have to pull the lever (number of responses) before you win (reinforcement). This is a classic example of a variable ratio schedule, which is known for producing high and steady rates of behavior.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a specific cognitive bias where, after learning the outcome of an event, a person believes they "knew it all along" and that the outcome was predictable.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Misinformation effect: This occurs when a person's recall of an event is altered by misleading information presented after the event. While related to memory revision, it doesn't specifically involve the feeling of predictability.



(B) Constructive processing: This is a broader theory of memory which states that memories are not static recordings but are reconstructed or rebuilt at the time of retrieval, potentially leading to errors and biases. Hindsight bias can be seen as an example of constructive processing.



(C) Hindsight bias: This is the precise term for the "I-knew-it-all-along" phenomenon. It is the tendency to see past events as having been more predictable than they actually were. This perfectly matches the question's description.



(D) Recency effect: This is the tendency to remember the most recently presented information best. It is a feature of serial position effect in memory and is unrelated to predicting past outcomes.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The tendency to falsely believe that one could have predicted an outcome after it has occurred is known as hindsight bias.
Quick Tip: To remember hindsight bias, think of watching a mystery movie for the second time. The clues seem so obvious, and you feel like you should have solved it easily the first time. That feeling of obviousness *in hindsight* is the bias.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct sequence of stages in the Atkinson-Shiffrin information-processing model of memory. This model conceptualizes memory as a flow of information through different storage systems.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The model proceeds as follows:

1. Sensory Memory (A): External stimuli are first briefly registered in sensory memory (e.g., iconic memory for vision, echoic memory for hearing). This is the entry point.

2. Selective Attention (C): For information to move from sensory memory to the next stage, we must pay attention to it. Information that is not attended to decays quickly. Attention acts as the filter.

3. Short-Term Memory (D): The attended-to information enters short-term memory (or working memory), where it can be held and manipulated for a brief period.

4. Long-Term Memory (B): Through processes like encoding and rehearsal, information can be transferred from short-term memory to long-term memory for more permanent storage.


The correct sequence is therefore A \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) B.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, the sequence A, C, D, B corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: Think of the memory process like saving a file on a computer. First, the data is on the screen (\(\textbf{Sensory Memory}\)). You then decide which window to focus on (\(\textbf{Selective Attention}\)). You copy the text (\(\textbf{Short-Term Memory}\)), and finally, you click "Save" to store it on the hard drive (\(\textbf{Long-Term Memory}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the duration of short-term memory (STM) when maintenance rehearsal (the process of repeating information to keep it in STM) is prevented.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Classic studies on the duration of short-term memory, such as the one conducted by Lloyd and Margaret Peterson (1959), demonstrated that information in STM decays very rapidly if it is not actively rehearsed. In their experiment, participants were asked to remember three-consonant trigrams and then count backward by threes to prevent rehearsal. They found that recall ability dropped sharply over time.


The generally accepted duration of short-term memory based on this and subsequent research is typically cited as being between 15 and 30 seconds. The option "12 to 30 seconds" is the most accurate and inclusive range provided.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most widely cited duration for unrehearsed short-term memory is approximately 12 to 30 seconds.
Quick Tip: Remember two key numbers for short-term memory: capacity is the "Magic Number 7" (plus or minus 2) chunks of information, and duration is about 15-30 seconds without rehearsal. These are classic figures in psychology.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the principle that describes why events occurring close in time are perceived as linked. The options provided are Gestalt principles of perception. While this concept is more famously known as the "law of contiguity" in learning theory, one of the Gestalt principles can be extended to cover it.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Continuity: The Gestalt principle of continuity suggests that we are more likely to perceive continuous, smooth flowing lines rather than broken or jagged ones.

(B) Symmetry: This principle states that the mind perceives objects as being symmetrical and forming around a center point.

(C) Closure: This is the tendency to complete incomplete figures, perceiving them as a whole object.

(D) Proximity: The principle of proximity states that objects or shapes that are close to one another appear to form groups. While this is most often applied spatially (close in space), the principle also applies temporally. Events that occur close together in time (temporal proximity) are perceived as being grouped or related. For instance, a quick succession of two drum beats is perceived as a single rhythm. This is the best fit for the question.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The principle of proximity, which includes temporal proximity, explains the tendency to relate events that happen close together in time.
Quick Tip: When answering questions on Gestalt principles, remember they are about how our minds automatically organize sensory information. Proximity (closeness) and Similarity are two of the most fundamental grouping principles, and they can apply to space, time, or other features.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Depth perception is the ability to perceive the world in three dimensions and to judge the distance of objects. This ability relies on various visual cues.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each item:

A. Monocular cues: These are cues for depth perception that can be perceived with only one eye. They are a major category of depth cues. This is correct.

B. Binocular cues: These are cues for depth perception that rely on the use of both eyes, such as retinal disparity and convergence. This is also a major category of depth cues. This is correct.

C. Proximity: This is a Gestalt principle of grouping, stating that we perceive objects that are close together as belonging to a group. It is not a cue for judging depth or distance. This is incorrect.

D. Linear perspective: (Typo for Linear perspective) This is the tendency for parallel lines to appear to converge on each other as they recede into the distance. It is a powerful monocular cue for depth. Therefore, it is associated with depth perception. This is correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Items A, B, and D are all directly associated with depth perception. Item C is not. Therefore, the correct option includes A, B, and D only.
Quick Tip: Remember the two main categories of depth cues: Monocular (one eye) and Binocular (two eyes). Specific cues like linear perspective, relative size, and interposition are examples of monocular cues.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the types of cone cells proposed by the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory of color vision. This theory suggests that our ability to perceive color is based on the combined activity of three different types of photoreceptor cells (cones).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

According to the trichromatic theory, the human eye has three types of cones, each sensitive to a different range of light wavelengths:


Short-wavelength cones (S-cones): Respond most to light that we perceive as blue. (B is correct).
Medium-wavelength cones (M-cones): Respond most to light that we perceive as green. (D is correct).
Long-wavelength cones (L-cones): Respond most to light that we perceive as red. (C is correct).

The perception of all other colors is created by the relative levels of stimulation of these three cone types. The theory does not include a specific cone for yellow (A is incorrect). The sensation of yellow is produced when both red and green cones are stimulated.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The trichromatic theory includes blue, red, and green cones. Therefore, the correct option includes B, C, and D only.
Quick Tip: Remember the primary colors of light: Red, Green, and Blue (RGB). The trichromatic theory is based on these three primary colors, corresponding to the three types of cones.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a specific anatomical structure within the ear based on its description: snail-shaped, fluid-filled, and located in the inner ear.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Auditory nerve: This is a bundle of nerve fibers that transmits auditory information from the inner ear to the brain. It is not a snail-shaped structure.

(B) Pinna: This is the visible, external part of the ear that helps to collect sound waves. It is located in the outer ear.

(C) Eardrum (Tympanic membrane): This is a thin membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It vibrates when sound waves strike it.

(D) Cochlea: Located in the inner ear, the cochlea is a spiral-shaped, bony chamber that resembles a snail's shell. It is filled with fluid and contains the basilar membrane and the Organ of Corti, where sound vibrations are transduced into nerve impulses. This perfectly matches the description.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The snail-shaped, fluid-filled structure of the inner ear is the cochlea.
Quick Tip: Associate the word "cochlea" with its Greek root "kokhlias," which means snail or *****. This will help you remember its distinctive snail-like shape.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the scientific term for the sense that allows us to know where our body parts are and how they are moving, even without looking at them.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Kinesthetic sense (or Kinesthesia): This is the sense that detects bodily position, weight, and the movement of the muscles, tendons, and joints. It allows you to touch your nose with your finger even with your eyes closed. This directly matches the description.

(B) Skin senses: These are the senses of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain, processed through receptors in the skin.

(C) Vestibular senses: This sense, located in the inner ear, is primarily responsible for balance, orientation, and sensing the movement of the head in space. While related to body position, it is more about equilibrium than the position of individual limbs.

(D) Olfactory sense: This is the sense of smell.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The kinesthetic sense is the sense of movement and the position of our body parts.
Quick Tip: To differentiate between kinesthetic and vestibular senses, remember: \(\textbf{Kinesthetic}\) is about the position of your \(\textbf{limbs}\) (Can you feel your arm moving?). \(\textbf{Vestibular}\) is about your \(\textbf{head's position}\) in space and balance (Do you feel dizzy?).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes an illusion of apparent motion, where a sequence of stationary stimuli gives the impression of movement.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Autokinetic effect: This is the illusion that a single, stationary point of light in a dark room is moving. This is not caused by a sequence of lights.

(B) Phi-phenomenon: This is the illusion of movement created when two or more adjacent lights blink on and off in quick succession. The perception is of a single light moving between the two locations. This is the basis for motion pictures and many animated signs. It perfectly matches the description.

(C) Muller-Lyer illusion: This is a famous optical illusion concerning the perception of length, where lines with arrowheads pointing inwards or outwards appear to be of different lengths.

(D) Perceptual set: This is a predisposition to perceive things in a certain way, based on expectations and prior experiences. It is a top-down processing influence, not a specific visual illusion of motion.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The phenomenon of perceiving motion from a sequence of flashing lights is called the Phi-phenomenon.
Quick Tip: Think of old movie theater marquee signs with chasing lights. Those lights aren't actually moving; they are just blinking in sequence. That's a perfect real-world example of the Phi-phenomenon.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires ordering the levels of Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs from the most basic (foundational) to the higher levels.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Maslow's hierarchy is typically depicted as a pyramid, where needs at the bottom must be met before individuals can attend to needs higher up. The correct sequence is:

1. Physiological needs (A): These are the most basic needs for survival, such as air, food, water, and sleep.

2. Safety needs (B): Once physiological needs are met, the need for security and safety becomes salient. This includes personal security, employment, resources, and health.

3. Belongingness and love needs (D): After safety, humans have a need for social interaction, friendship, intimacy, and family.

4. Esteem needs (C): This level involves the need for self-esteem, accomplishment, confidence, and respect from others.

5. Self-actualization: The highest level, achieving one's full potential (not listed in the options A-D).


Therefore, the correct order of the given items is A \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) C.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The sequence A, B, D, C matches option (C).
Quick Tip: Remember the hierarchy by thinking about what you would need in a crisis. First, you need to \(\textbf{survive}\) (Physiological). Then you need to be \(\textbf{safe}\) (Safety). After that, you seek \(\textbf{friends/family}\) (Belongingness). Finally, you want to feel \(\textbf{good about yourself}\) (Esteem).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the theory of emotion that places a central role on cognitive processes (thinking and interpretation).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Schachter and Singer's theory (Two-Factor Theory): This theory posits that emotion results from two factors: (1) physiological arousal and (2) a cognitive label that we use to interpret that arousal. For example, if your heart is pounding, you look to your environment to decide if you are excited or afraid. This theory explicitly emphasizes the role of cognition.

(B) James-Lange theory: This theory suggests that emotions are the result of physiological reactions to events. We feel afraid because we perceive our body trembling and heart racing. It prioritizes physiology over cognition.

(C) Common Sense theory: This is the intuitive but non-scientific idea that a stimulus leads to an emotion, which then causes a physiological response (e.g., seeing a snake makes you feel fear, which makes your heart race).

(D) Cannon-Bard theory: This theory argues that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers both a physiological response and the subjective experience of emotion. The cognitive component is not central to the determination of the emotion itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Schachter-Singer theory is the one that highlights the importance of cognition in determining emotion.
Quick Tip: Remember Schachter-Singer's theory as the "Two-Factor" theory: \(\textbf{Factor 1 is Arousal}\), and \(\textbf{Factor 2 is a Cognitive Label}\). The formula is: Arousal + Label = Emotion. This makes it the key cognitive theory of emotion.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the fundamental components or elements of emotion. Most psychological theories agree on three main components. Note that options A and D are identical ("Physical reaction"), which is likely a typo in the original question. We will treat them as a single element.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The three widely accepted components of emotion are:

(A) Physiological Arousal (Physical Reaction): This includes the bodily changes that accompany an emotion, such as a racing heart, sweating, or changes in breathing. Both items A and D refer to this component. This is a correct element.
(B) Subjective Experience: This is the personal, internal feeling or affective state of the emotion (e.g., feeling happy, sad, or angry). Item B refers to this component. This is a correct element.
(C) Behavioral or Expressive Component: This involves the outward expression of the emotion, such as facial expressions, posture, and actions (e.g., smiling when happy, crying when sad). This component is not explicitly listed.

Let's evaluate the listed items:

A. Physical reaction: Correct.

B. Subjective experience: Correct.

C. Attention: Attention is a cognitive process that can be influenced by emotion (e.g., fear can focus our attention on a threat), but it is not considered a core element *of* an emotion itself in most models. Therefore, it is the incorrect item in this list.

D. Physical reaction: Correct (and redundant).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct elements listed are A, B, and D. Item C, Attention, is not a core component. Therefore, the best option is "A, B and D only".
Quick Tip: To remember the components of emotion, think of a scary situation: You see a bear. 1) Your heart pounds (\(\textbf{Physical Reaction}\)). 2) You feel scared (\(\textbf{Subjective Experience}\)). 3) You scream and run away (\(\textbf{Behavioral Expression}\)). Most models include these three parts.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question relates to theories of motivation, specifically David McClelland's theory of needs, which identifies three primary motivators in individuals.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

McClelland's theory proposes three main needs:

(A) Need for Achievement (nAch): This is the drive to excel, to achieve in relation to a set of standards, and to strive for success. People high in nAch seek to accomplish challenging goals and desire feedback on their progress. This perfectly matches the question's description.
(B) Need for Power (nPow): This is the desire to have impact, to be influential, and to control others. The focus is on influence rather than personal goal attainment.
(C) Need for Affiliation (nAff): This is the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships. People high in nAff seek social interaction and belonging.

The option "Attention" is not one of McClelland's primary needs. The description "a strong desire to succeed in attaining goals" is the definition of the need for Achievement.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A strong desire to succeed in attaining goals is characteristic of a high need for Achievement.
Quick Tip: Remember McClelland's three needs as the "3 A's": \(\textbf{A}\)chievement, \(\textbf{A}\)ffiliation, and another one (Power). This can help you recall the core concepts during an exam. The need for Achievement is all about mastering tasks and reaching goals.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question refers to the Self-Determination Theory (SDT) developed by Edward Deci and Richard Ryan. It asks to identify the three innate and universal psychological needs proposed by this theory.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Self-Determination Theory posits that all humans have three fundamental psychological needs that are essential for psychological health, well-being, and intrinsic motivation. These needs are:

A. Autonomy: The need to feel in control of one's own behaviors and goals. It is the sense of being the causal agent of one's own life. This is a core need in SDT.

B. Competence: The need to feel effective in dealing with the environment. It involves seeking to control outcomes and experience mastery. This is a core need in SDT.

C. Relatedness: The need to have a sense of belonging and connectedness with others. It involves the desire to be cared for and to care for others. This is a core need in SDT.

D. Acceptance: While feeling accepted by others is an important part of well-being and is closely related to "relatedness," it is not one of the three foundational needs as formally defined in SDT. "Relatedness" is the broader and correct term used in the theory.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The three universal needs according to Self-Determination Theory are Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness (A, B, and C).
Quick Tip: Remember the three needs of SDT with the acronym \(\textbf{CAR}\): \(\textbf{C}\)ompetence, \(\textbf{A}\)utonomy, \(\textbf{R}\)elatedness. This makes it easy to recall the core components of the theory.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the key variable that the Yerkes-Dodson law links to performance.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Yerkes-Dodson law is a well-established principle in psychology that describes the relationship between arousal and performance. The law states that performance on a task increases as physiological or mental arousal increases, but only up to an optimal point. If arousal levels become too high, performance decreases. This relationship is often depicted as an inverted U-shaped curve.


Affiliation is a social motive.
Attention is a cognitive process that can be affected by arousal, but it is not the independent variable in the law itself.
Affect refers to mood or emotion, of which arousal is a component, but Arousal is the specific term used in the Yerkes-Dodson law.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Yerkes-Dodson law specifically describes the relationship between arousal and performance.
Quick Tip: Think of the Yerkes-Dodson law like drinking coffee before an exam. A little coffee (\(\textbf{low arousal}\)) might not wake you up. The right amount (\(\textbf{optimal arousal}\)) makes you alert and focused, improving performance. Too much coffee (\(\textbf{high arousal}\)) can make you jittery and anxious, hurting performance.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to classify the "need for social approval" within the framework of drive theories of motivation. Drives are typically categorized into two types.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Primary Drives: These are unlearned, biological drives that are essential for survival. They are based on physiological needs like hunger, thirst, and the need for warmth. The terms "instinctive" and "innate" are often used synonymously with primary in this context.
Acquired (or Secondary) Drives: These are drives that are learned through experience and socialization. They are not biologically innate. Examples include the need for money, power, achievement, and social approval. We learn to value these things because they are associated with the satisfaction of primary drives or because of cultural conditioning.

The need for social approval is not necessary for biological survival and is learned through our interactions within society. Therefore, it is an acquired drive.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The need for social approval is a learned or acquired drive.
Quick Tip: To distinguish between drive types, ask yourself: "Is a newborn baby motivated by this?" A baby is motivated by hunger (primary), but not by money or social approval (acquired). This simple test helps separate innate needs from learned ones.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a type of intelligence based on accumulated knowledge and experience. This relates to the theory of fluid and crystallized intelligence proposed by Raymond Cattell.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Fluid intelligence (Gf): This is the ability to reason, think flexibly, and solve novel problems without relying on prior knowledge. It is often associated with processing speed and working memory.

(B) Crystallized intelligence (Gc): This refers to the accumulation of knowledge, facts, and skills that are acquired throughout life. It includes vocabulary, general knowledge, and the ability to apply learned procedures. The description in the question, "accumulated knowledge-information we store over a lifetime of experience," is the definition of crystallized intelligence.

(C) Practical intelligence: A concept from Sternberg's triarchic theory, it refers to "street smarts" or the ability to solve everyday problems.

(D) Contextual intelligence: Also from Sternberg's theory, it is the ability to adapt to, shape, and select environments, and is closely related to practical intelligence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The type of intelligence that refers to accumulated knowledge and skills is crystallized intelligence.
Quick Tip: Think of \(\textbf{fluid}\) intelligence like water: it's flexible and can take any shape to solve a new problem. Think of \(\textbf{crystallized}\) intelligence like a crystal: it has grown over time through the accumulation of knowledge, making it solid and extensive.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The task is to correctly match each theorist or group of theorists with their corresponding theory of intelligence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each theorist from LIST-I to their theory in LIST-II:


A. Robert Sternberg is the proponent of the Triarchic theory of intelligence, which comprises analytical, creative, and practical components. So, A matches with III.
B. Cattell (Raymond Cattell) is known for his theory distinguishing between Fluid intelligence (Gf) and Crystallized intelligence (Gc). So, B matches with IV.
C. Das, Naglieri and Kirby developed the PASS theory of intelligence, which is based on the cognitive functions of Planning, Attention-Arousal, Simultaneous, and Successive processing. So, C matches with I.
D. Howard Gardner proposed the theory of Multiple Intelligences, which suggests that intelligence is not a single entity but comprises several distinct modalities (e.g., linguistic, musical, spatial). So, D matches with II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches is A-III, B-IV, C-I, and D-II. This corresponds to option (D).
Quick Tip: Create mnemonics for these theories. For example: \(\textbf{Sternberg's TRI}\)angle (Triarchic), \(\textbf{Gardner's GARDEN}\) of intelligences (Multiple), and the \(\textbf{PASS}\) theory (Das, Naglieri, Kirby). Associating the name with a key word from the theory is an effective memory aid.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching psychological tests and syndromes with their correct descriptions. This involves knowledge of intelligence testing (specifically Wechsler scales) and characteristics of certain genetic syndromes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's perform the correct logical matching first:


A. Picture completion is a subtest from the Wechsler scales where a person identifies a missing part in a picture. It is a non-verbal task and is classified as a I. Performance test. So, A matches I.
B. Similarities is another Wechsler subtest that assesses abstract verbal reasoning by asking how two things are alike. It is classified as a III. Verbal test. So, B matches III.
C. Down Syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by a range of intellectual disability, where the IQ is often in the mild to moderate range, and can be II. Usually IQ below 50. So, C matches II.
D. William Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder where individuals often have a IV. Low IQ with musical talent and strong social skills. So, D matches IV.

The logically correct matching is A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV. This sequence is not available in the options, indicating a likely error in the question's options.


Step 3: Evaluating the Given Options:

In situations with flawed questions, the strategy is to select the option that is "most correct." Let's analyze Option (A): A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.

A-I is correct.
B-II (Similarities - Usually IQ below 50) is incorrect.
C-III (Down Syndrome - Verbal test) is incorrect.
D-IV is correct.

This option contains two correct pairings (A-I and D-IV). The pairings for B and C appear to have been swapped. Given the choices, this is the best available option as it correctly identifies the start and end pairs.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Despite the clear errors in the pairings for B and C, option (A) is the intended answer as it contains the most correct individual matches.
Quick Tip: When encountering a matching question where no option seems perfectly correct, first establish the definite correct pairs. Then, look for the option that contains the highest number of those correct pairs. This is a common strategy for dealing with flawed exam questions.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the listed tests are subtests of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS). The WAIS has evolved through several editions, but many core subtests remain well-known.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's review each of the options:


A. Arithmetic: This is a classic WAIS subtest, typically part of the Verbal Scale (and later, the Working Memory Index). It measures concentration and numerical reasoning.
B. Digit Symbol-Coding: This is a core WAIS subtest, part of the Performance Scale (and later, the Processing Speed Index). It requires the test-taker to match symbols to numbers according to a key.
C. Similarities: This is a core subtest of the Verbal Scale (and later, the Verbal Comprehension Index). It assesses abstract verbal reasoning.
D. Object Assembly: This was a subtest on the Performance Scale of earlier versions of the WAIS (e.g., WAIS-R, WAIS-III), requiring the assembly of puzzles. While it was removed from the most recent WAIS-IV, it is historically a well-known WAIS subtest.

Since all four have been part of the WAIS battery at some point, they are all valid answers.


Step 3: Final Answer:

All four options—Arithmetic, Digit symbol, Similarities, and Object assembly—are recognized as subtests of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. Therefore, the correct choice includes A, B, C, and D.
Quick Tip: The WAIS is famously divided into Verbal and Performance scales (in older versions). Remember examples for each: \(\textbf{Verbal}\) includes Similarities, Vocabulary, Arithmetic. \(\textbf{Performance}\) includes Picture Completion, Block Design, Object Assembly. Knowing this division helps quickly identify subtests.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires distinguishing between intelligence tests that are administered to a group of people simultaneously versus those administered to one individual at a time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Army Alpha: This test, along with the Army Beta (for non-English speakers), was developed during World War I in the United States to assess a large number of military recruits efficiently. It was designed specifically for group administration. This is a classic example of a group intelligence test.

(B) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS): This is one of the most common intelligence tests, and it is administered individually by a trained examiner to a single test-taker.

(C) Stanford-Binet Scale: This is another foundational intelligence test that is always administered on a one-on-one basis.

(D) Bhatia Battery: This is a performance-based battery of intelligence tests developed in India. It is administered individually.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Army Alpha is the only group test of intelligence listed among the options.
Quick Tip: Remember that the Army Alpha/Beta tests were created out of necessity for mass screening during wartime. The name "Army" itself suggests a need for testing large groups, which can help you identify it as a group test.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the original formula used to calculate the Intelligence Quotient (IQ), often referred to as the ratio IQ.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The concept of IQ was proposed by the German psychologist William Stern and adopted by Lewis Terman for the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. The formula is designed to represent a person's intelligence level as a ratio of their mental development to their actual age. The formula is:
\[ IQ = \frac{Mental Age (MA)}{Chronological Age (CA)} \times 100 \]
The multiplication by 100 is to eliminate the decimal and present the IQ as a whole number, with 100 being average.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

(A) (Mental Age/Chronological Age) × 100: This correctly represents the formula. If a 10-year-old child (CA=10) has the mental abilities of an average 12-year-old (MA=12), their IQ would be (12/10) * 100 = 120.

(B) (Chronological Age/Mental Age) × 100: This inverts the correct ratio.

(C) and (D) are incorrect as they introduce an arbitrary factor of 2.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct formula for IQ is (Mental Age/Chronological Age) × 100.
Quick Tip: To remember the formula, think logically: if you are "smarter" than your age, your Mental Age should be higher than your Chronological Age, resulting in an IQ above 100. This only works if Mental Age is in the numerator (on top).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the third component of Robert Sternberg's Triarchic Theory of Intelligence, given the first two components (analytical and creative).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Robert Sternberg's Triarchic Theory proposes that intelligence is not a single, general ability but is composed of three distinct types:


(A) Analytical Intelligence: Often called "book smarts," this is the ability to analyze, evaluate, judge, and compare. It is the type of intelligence typically measured by traditional IQ tests.
(B) Creative Intelligence: This involves the ability to invent, imagine, and generate novel solutions to problems.
(C) Practical Intelligence: Often called "street smarts," this is the ability to apply knowledge to real-world situations, adapt to one's environment, and solve everyday problems.

The missing component in the question is Practical intelligence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The three aspects of the Triarchic theory are analytical, creative, and practical intelligence.
Quick Tip: Remember Sternberg's three types of intelligence with the acronym \(\textbf{CAP}\): \(\textbf{C}\)reative, \(\textbf{A}\)nalytical, \(\textbf{P}\)ractical.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the researchers who originally coined the term "emotional intelligence" (EI) and developed its first formal model.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Goleman (Daniel Goleman): He is the author who popularized the concept of emotional intelligence with his 1995 best-selling book, "Emotional Intelligence." While he is the most famous name associated with EI, he did not originate the term.

(B) Salovey and Mayer (Peter Salovey and John D. Mayer): These two psychologists were the first to formally define and introduce the concept of emotional intelligence in a 1990 academic article. They defined it as "the subset of social intelligence that involves the ability to monitor one's own and others' feelings and emotions, to discriminate among them and to use this information to guide one's thinking and actions."

(C) Sternberg (Robert Sternberg): He is known for the Triarchic Theory of Intelligence (analytical, creative, practical).

(D) Spearman (Charles Spearman): He is known for his theory of a general intelligence factor, or "g".


Step 3: Final Answer:

The concept of emotional intelligence was first introduced by Salovey and Mayer.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference: \(\textbf{Salovey and Mayer}\) were the \(\textbf{S}\)cholars who \(\textbf{M}\)ade the model. \(\textbf{Goleman}\) was the author who made it \(\textbf{G}\)o global.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the given items into a logical sequence that represents the theoretical model of person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. This sequence should describe the development of psychological distress and the process of healing.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Rogerian model posits a causal chain for psychological issues and their resolution:

(A) A. Unrealistic conditions of worth: The process begins when an individual internalizes external standards of value. They feel they are worthy only if they meet certain conditions set by others. This is the root of the problem.
(B) C. Distorted self concept: Because of these conditions of worth, a gap (incongruence) develops between the person's real self (their actual experiences) and their self-concept (how they see themselves). They distort their experiences to maintain their self-concept, leading to distress.
(C) B. Therapy: The individual enters person-centered therapy, where the therapist provides a supportive environment with unconditional positive regard, empathy, and genuineness. This is the intervention.
(D) D. Enhanced adjustment, progress toward self-fulfillment: Within this therapeutic environment, the client can safely explore their true feelings, reduce the incongruence, and move toward becoming a more fully-functioning person (self-actualization). This is the outcome.

This creates the logical sequence: A \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) D.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence representing the problem, its consequence, the intervention, and the outcome is A, C, B, D.
Quick Tip: Think of the sequence as a story: 1. A problem starts (\(\textbf{Conditions of Worth}\)). 2. The problem causes internal conflict (\(\textbf{Distorted Self}\)). 3. Help is sought (\(\textbf{Therapy}\)). 4. The problem is resolved (\(\textbf{Enhanced Adjustment}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a specific type of therapy whose primary goal is to identify, challenge, and change irrational beliefs.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT): This is a broad category of therapies that focus on the interplay between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. While it does address irrational thinking, one of the other options is more specific and foundational to this idea.

(B) Behavior Therapy: This focuses on changing maladaptive behaviors using principles of learning (classical and operant conditioning), without a primary focus on internal thoughts or beliefs.

(C) Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET), now Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT): Developed by Albert Ellis, this is a pioneering form of cognitive therapy. Its central thesis is that emotional and behavioral problems are the result of irrational beliefs. The therapist's role is to be highly directive, actively disputing these irrational "shoulds," "musts," and "oughts" to help the client adopt a more rational and logical philosophy of life. This is a perfect match for the question's description.

(D) Psychodynamic Therapy: This therapy focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts and early life experiences to gain insight into a person's current problems.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Rational-Emotive Therapy is the specific approach that focuses on persuading individuals to change their underlying irrational assumptions.
Quick Tip: Remember the "R" in \(\textbf{R}\)ational-Emotive Therapy stands for challenging i\(\textbf{rr}\)ational beliefs. The founder, Albert Ellis, famously used the ABC model: an \(\textbf{A}\)ctivating event does not cause an emotional \(\textbf{C}\)onsequence; rather, it is the person's irrational \(\textbf{B}\)elief about the event that is the true cause.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the causal sequence of developing a psychological disorder, like depression, according to Aaron Beck's cognitive model. Beck's model posits that our thoughts and underlying beliefs are central to our emotional state.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The standard cognitive model of depression follows this sequence:


(A) Illogical ideas (B): The process begins with underlying dysfunctional schemas or core beliefs. These are deeply held, rigid, and illogical assumptions about oneself, the world, or the future (e.g., "I must be loved by everyone to be happy").
(B) Negative thoughts, memories, ideas (D): These underlying beliefs are activated by a life event, leading to specific, automatic negative thoughts. This is often referred to as the "cognitive triad": negative thoughts about the self, the world, and the future.
(C) Negative affect (A): These negative thoughts directly lead to negative emotions or feelings, such as sadness, anxiety, guilt, or hopelessness.
(D) Depression (C): The persistent and overwhelming cycle of negative thoughts and feelings, along with behavioral symptoms (like withdrawal or inactivity), constitutes the clinical syndrome of depression.

The most accurate sequence is B \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) C. However, this exact sequence is not available in the options, suggesting a potential error in the question.


Step 3: Evaluating the Given Options:

We must choose the best-fitting option.

Options 1 and 2 start with Negative Affect (A), which is incorrect as affect is a consequence of thoughts in this model.
Option 4 starts with Depression (C), which is the final outcome.
Option 3, B, A, D, C, correctly identifies Illogical Ideas (B) as the starting point and Depression (C) as the endpoint. While it incorrectly places Negative Affect (A) before Negative Thoughts (D), it is the only option that correctly frames the beginning and end of the process as per Beck's theory. Therefore, it is the most plausible intended answer despite the flawed internal sequence.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Given the choices, option (C) is the best answer as it correctly identifies the initial cause and the final outcome according to Beck's cognitive model.
Quick Tip: Remember the core principle of CBT: Thoughts cause Feelings. An event triggers a thought, which in turn triggers an emotion. The starting point in Beck's model is often a deep-seated dysfunctional belief or "illogical idea."

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the classification of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) in the 5th edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A major change from the previous edition (DSM-IV-TR) to the DSM-5 was the reclassification of OCD. In the DSM-IV-TR, OCD was categorized under "Anxiety Disorders." However, due to significant evidence suggesting that OCD has unique neurobiological underpinnings and symptom patterns distinct from other anxiety disorders, the DSM-5 created a new, separate chapter for it. This new chapter is titled "Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders." This chapter also includes disorders like Body Dysmorphic Disorder, Hoarding Disorder, and Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder).


Step 3: Final Answer:

In DSM-5, OCD is classified in its own category called Obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.
Quick Tip: One of the key changes to remember for the DSM-5 is the creation of new chapters for disorders that were previously grouped elsewhere. The creation of the "Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders" and "Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders" chapters, separating them from Anxiety Disorders, is a major example.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the listed conditions are classified under the "Anxiety Disorders" chapter in the DSM-5.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each option based on DSM-5 classification:


A. Depression: Major Depressive Disorder is the primary diagnosis in the "Depressive Disorders" chapter. It is not an anxiety disorder.
B. Social Phobia: In the DSM-5, this is officially renamed "Social Anxiety Disorder." It is a core diagnosis within the "Anxiety Disorders" chapter.
C. Panic disorder: This is a key diagnosis within the "Anxiety Disorders" chapter, characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks.
D. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD): This is another primary diagnosis within the "Anxiety Disorders" chapter, characterized by excessive and persistent worry.

Therefore, Social Phobia, Panic disorder, and Generalized anxiety disorder are all part of the anxiety disorders category.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination is B, C, and D only.
Quick Tip: To remember the core anxiety disorders, think of different types of fear and worry: fear of specific situations (Phobias), fear of panic itself (Panic Disorder), and constant, free-floating worry (Generalized Anxiety Disorder). Depression is a disorder of mood (sadness, anhedonia), not primarily anxiety.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the classification of Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) in the DSM-5. BDD is a disorder characterized by a preoccupation with a perceived flaw in one's appearance that is not observable or appears slight to others.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In the previous DSM-IV, Body Dysmorphic Disorder was classified under "Somatoform Disorders" because it involved a preoccupation with the body. However, research increasingly highlighted the strong obsessive-compulsive features of BDD, such as the obsessive thoughts about the perceived defect and compulsive behaviors like mirror checking, skin picking, or excessive grooming. Recognizing this strong overlap, the creators of the DSM-5 moved BDD into the new chapter titled "OCD and related disorders," alongside Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Hoarding Disorder, etc.


Step 3: Final Answer:

In DSM-5, Body Dysmorphic Disorder is placed in the chapter for OCD and related disorders.
Quick Tip: Remember that the new "OCD and related disorders" chapter in DSM-5 groups disorders based on their shared features of obsessions and/or compulsions. BDD fits here because of the obsessive focus on a perceived flaw and the compulsive behaviors performed in response.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching specific personality disorders with their defining characteristics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Paranoid Personality Disorder: The core feature is a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, such that their motives are interpreted as malevolent. This directly matches I. Suspiciousness and mistrusts of others.
B. Histrionic Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking. Individuals are often theatrical and expressive, which is well-described by III. Self-dramatization.
C. Borderline Personality Disorder: This is defined by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as marked II. Impulsiveness in areas such as spending, sex, or substance use.
D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder: This disorder involves cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior. This includes ideas of reference, odd beliefs or magical thinking, and unusual perceptual experiences, which are collectively described as IV. Peculiar thought patterns.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct pairings are A-I, B-III, C-II, and D-IV. This corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: Use keywords to link disorders to their features: \(\textbf{Paranoid}\) \(\rightarrow\) Suspicion; \(\textbf{Histrionic}\) \(\rightarrow\) Drama/History (as in a play); \(\textbf{Borderline}\) \(\rightarrow\) Instability/Impulsivity; \(\textbf{Schizotypal}\) \(\rightarrow\) A "type" of schizophrenia-like odd thinking.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that defines a false sensory perception. It is crucial to distinguish this from other types of distorted reality testing.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Delusion: This is a disorder of thought content. It is a false, fixed belief that is held despite evidence to the contrary (e.g., believing one is a historical figure). It is not a sensory experience.

(B) Illusion: This is a disorder of perception, but it is a misinterpretation of a real external stimulus. For example, seeing a rope in a dimly lit room and perceiving it as a snake. There is a stimulus present.

(C) Hallucination: This is a disorder of perception that occurs in the absence of any external stimulus. The sensory experience (e.g., hearing voices, seeing things) is generated internally by the brain. This perfectly matches the definition in the question.

(D) Depression: This is a mood disorder characterized by sadness, loss of interest, and other emotional, cognitive, and physical symptoms.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A sensory experience without an external stimulus is a hallucination.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: \(\textbf{Illusion}\) = Misinterpreting something that IS there. \(\textbf{Hallucination}\) = Perceiving something that is NOT there. \(\textbf{Delusion}\) = Believing something that is not true.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the statistical measure of dispersion that is calculated as the square root of the variance.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

In statistics, variance and standard deviation are the two most common measures of variability or spread in a dataset.

Variance (\(\sigma^2\)): This is the average of the squared differences from the mean. It is measured in squared units of the original data.
Standard Deviation (\(\sigma\)): This is calculated to bring the measure of spread back into the original units of the data. Its definition is the positive square root of the variance.
\[ Standard Deviation = \sqrt{Variance} \]

Step 3: Final Answer:

The standard deviation is defined as the square root of the variance.
Quick Tip: The name itself gives a clue. The \(\textbf{standard deviation}\) represents the "standard" or typical amount that scores deviate from the mean. Taking the square root of the variance returns the measure to the original, non-squared units, making it more intuitive to interpret.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the standard formula to calculate a Z-score. A Z-score (or standard score) indicates how many standard deviations an individual raw score is from the mean of the distribution.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The logic of the Z-score is to find the difference between the raw score and the mean, and then scale that difference by the standard deviation.

(A) Find the deviation of the score from the mean: \((X - M)\)
(B) Express this deviation in terms of standard deviation units by dividing by the standard deviation: \(\frac{(X - M)}{SD}\)

So, the formula is: \[ Z = \frac{X - M}{SD} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the given options:

(A) Z= (X-M)/SD: This correctly represents the raw score minus the mean, divided by the standard deviation. This is the correct formula.
(B) Z= (X+M)/SD: This incorrectly adds the mean.
(C) Z= (X-SD)/M: This incorrectly subtracts the standard deviation and divides by the mean.
(D) Z= (M-SD)/X: This formula is incorrect in its structure.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct formula for changing a raw score to a Z-score is Z = (X-M)/SD.
Quick Tip: Think of a Z-score as answering the question: "How far is my score from the average, and how significant is that distance?" Subtracting the mean \((X-M)\) gives you the distance. Dividing by the standard deviation \((/SD)\) tells you how many "standard" steps that distance is.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the listed statistical tests are parametric. Parametric tests are those that make certain assumptions about the population from which the sample is drawn, most commonly the assumption that the data are normally distributed. Nonparametric tests do not require such assumptions and are often used with ordinal data or when the normality assumption is violated.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Spearman rank order correlation: This is a nonparametric test that measures the strength and direction of association between two ranked variables. It is the nonparametric equivalent of the Pearson correlation.
B. Pearson product moment correlation: This is a parametric test that measures the linear relationship between two continuous variables. It assumes that the data are normally distributed.
C. t-test: This is a parametric test used to compare the means of two groups. It assumes that the data in both groups are normally distributed and have equal variances.
D. Mann-Whitney U test: This is a nonparametric test used to compare the medians of two independent groups. It is the nonparametric equivalent of the independent samples t-test.

Based on this analysis, only the Pearson correlation and the t-test are parametric statistics.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of parametric statistics is B and C only.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the difference is to associate "parametric" with "parameters" of a population, like the mean and standard deviation, which are central to tests like the t-test and Pearson correlation. Nonparametric tests, like Spearman's and Mann-Whitney U, often work with ranks or medians instead of means.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the statistical term for the probability of making a Type I error. In hypothesis testing, there are two types of potential errors.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Type I Error: This occurs when we reject a true null hypothesis. We conclude there is an effect when, in reality, there is not. The probability of making a Type I error is denoted by the Greek letter \(\alpha\) (alpha). The significance level of a test is the threshold we set for this probability (e.g., \(\alpha\) = 0.05).
Type II Error: This occurs when we fail to reject a false null hypothesis. We conclude there is no effect when, in reality, there is one. The probability of making a Type II error is denoted by the Greek letter \(\beta\) (beta).

Therefore, the significance level and the chance of a Type I error are both called alpha.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The significance level, representing the probability of a Type I error, is called Alpha.
Quick Tip: Remember: \(\textbf{Alpha (\(\alpha\))}\) is the probability of a f\(\textbf{A}\)lse alarm (rejecting a true null). \(\textbf{Beta (\(\beta\))}\) is the probability of a \(\textbf{B}\)lind miss (failing to reject a false null).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for a fundamental property of the standard normal distribution, specifically the percentage of data that falls within one standard deviation (SD) of the mean on either side. This is often referred to as the empirical rule or the 68-95-99.7 rule.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The normal distribution is symmetrical around its mean. The area under the curve represents the probability or percentage of scores.

The area between the mean and +1 SD is approximately 34.13%.
Due to symmetry, the area between the mean and -1 SD is also approximately 34.13%.

Therefore, the total percentage of scores lying between -1 SD and +1 SD is the sum of these two areas: \[ 34.13\% + 34.13\% = 68.26\% \]
The other values in the options correspond to different ranges:

Approximately 95.44% of scores lie between -2 SD and +2 SD. (47.72% is the area between the mean and +2 SD).
Approximately 99.74% of scores lie between -3 SD and +3 SD.


Step 3: Final Answer:

In a normal distribution, approximately 68.26% of scores lie within one standard deviation of the mean.
Quick Tip: Memorize the 68-95-99.7 rule. It states that for a normal distribution, approximately \(\textbf{68%}\) of the data falls within 1 SD of the mean, \(\textbf{95%}\) within 2 SD, and \(\textbf{99.7%}\) within 3 SD. This is one of the most important rules in introductory statistics.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the school of thought in psychology to which John B. Watson belongs.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

John B. Watson is widely regarded as the founder of behaviorism. In his influential 1913 paper, "Psychology as the Behaviorist Views It," he argued that psychology should be a purely objective experimental branch of natural science. He rejected the study of consciousness and introspection (methods used by structuralists) and proposed that the focus of psychology should be solely on observable behavior.

Structuralism (Titchener) focused on the basic elements of consciousness.
Functionalism (William James) focused on the purpose of consciousness and behavior.
Psychoanalysis (Freud) focused on the unconscious mind.

Watson's work, including the famous "Little Albert" experiment, established behaviorism as a major force in psychology.


Step 3: Final Answer:

John B. Watson is a behaviorist.
Quick Tip: Associate key figures with their schools of thought: Wundt/Titchener \(\rightarrow\) Structuralism; William James \(\rightarrow\) Functionalism; Freud \(\rightarrow\) Psychoanalysis; \(\textbf{Watson}\)/Skinner \(\rightarrow\) Behaviorism.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the name of the school of psychology defined by its exclusive focus on observable behavior.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Behaviorism: This is the precise definition of behaviorism, as established by John B. Watson. Behaviorists believe that psychology can only be studied scientifically if it limits its scope to what can be seen and measured: overt behavior and the environmental stimuli that cause it.

(B) Psychoanalysis: This approach, founded by Sigmund Freud, focuses on the influence of the unconscious mind, hidden conflicts, and early childhood experiences on behavior, which are not directly observable.

(C) Gestalt Psychology: This school of thought emphasizes that the whole of experience is greater than the sum of its parts ("The whole is other than the sum of the parts"). It focuses on perception and consciousness, not just overt behavior.

(D) Functionalism: This early school focused on how mental processes help an organism to adapt to its environment. It studied consciousness but was less restrictive than behaviorism.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The science of behavior that focuses only on observable behavior is called Behaviorism.
Quick Tip: The name says it all: \(\textbf{Behavior}\)-ism is the study of \(\textbf{behavior}\). This school of thought intentionally ignores internal mental states like thoughts and feelings because they cannot be directly observed.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the definition of "mental processes" as the term is used in the modern definition of psychology (the scientific study of behavior and mental processes).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Psychology studies two main things:

(A) Behavior: This includes all of our outward or overt actions and reactions, such as talking, facial expressions, and movement.
(B) Mental Processes: This refers to all the internal, hidden (covert) activity of our minds, such as thinking, feeling, remembering, and problem-solving. These processes cannot be directly observed by others.

(A) Facial expression is an example of overt behavior.

(B) Outward or overt actions and reactions is the definition of behavior, not mental processes.

(C) Internal, covert process is the correct definition of a mental process.

(D) Only human behavior is an incorrect limitation, as psychology studies both human and animal behavior and mental processes.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Mental processes are the internal, covert processes of the mind.
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction: If you can \(\textbf{see}\) it, it's a \(\textbf{behavior}\). If you have to \(\textbf{infer}\) it (like thinking or feeling), it's a \(\textbf{mental process}\).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the four primary goals of the science of psychology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The study of psychology is guided by four fundamental goals, which are typically addressed in a specific order:

(A) Description (A): The first goal is to observe and describe behavior as accurately as possible. This answers the "what" question (e.g., what is happening?).
(B) Explanation (B): After describing a behavior, psychologists seek to explain it. This involves building theories and answering the "why" question (e.g., why is it happening?).
(C) Prediction (C): Based on explanations, psychologists aim to predict future behaviors under certain conditions. This answers the "when will it happen again?" question.
(D) Control (D): The final goal is to use the knowledge gained to control or modify behavior, often to bring about positive changes and improve lives. This answers the "how can it be changed?" question.

All four listed items—Description, Explanation, Prediction, and Control—are the recognized goals of psychology.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option includes all four goals: A, B, C, and D.
Quick Tip: Remember the four goals with a simple example: You see someone crying (\(\textbf{Description}\)). You theorize it's because they are sad (\(\textbf{Explanation}\)). You guess they will also cry when they hear sad news in the future (\(\textbf{Prediction}\)). You try to cheer them up to change their behavior (\(\textbf{Control}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the four goals of psychology corresponds to the act of observing and documenting a behavior in detail.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

As outlined in the previous question, the goals of psychology are a sequential process:

(A) Description: This is the initial step and involves carefully observing and recording what is happening. It's about gathering data and providing a detailed account of a behavior or phenomenon. The phrase "observing a behavior and noting everything about it" is the definition of the goal of Description.
(B) Prediction: This involves forecasting future outcomes based on current knowledge.
(C) Control: This involves influencing or modifying behavior.
(D) Analyzing: While analysis is part of the overall scientific process (especially in the explanation phase), "Description" is the specific goal that refers to the initial act of observation and documentation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The goal that involves observing a behavior and noting everything about it is Description.
Quick Tip: Think of a scientific report. The first section is often the "Method" or "Observations," where the researcher simply describes what was seen and measured. This is the foundation upon which all other goals (explanation, prediction, control) are built.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching different types of psychological tests with their correct definitions or primary characteristics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each type of test and its corresponding description:


A. Intelligence tests are designed to assess a person's general cognitive abilities across a wide range of functions. This matches III. Measures an individual's ability in relatively global areas.
B. Aptitude tests measure a person's potential or capacity to learn a specific skill or succeed in a particular type of task. This matches IV. Measures the capability for a relatively specific task or type of skill.
C. Personality tests are designed to measure enduring traits, characteristics, and behaviors that define an individual's unique way of interacting with the world. This matches I. Measures the traits, qualities, or behaviors that determine a person's individuality.
D. Achievement tests measure what a person has already learned or accomplished in a specific domain, such as mathematics or reading. This matches II. Measures a person's degree of learning, success or accomplishment in a subject or task.

Therefore, the correct pairings are A-III, B-IV, C-I, and D-II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, which corresponds to option (D).
Quick Tip: To differentiate these tests, remember their focus: \(\textbf{Achievement}\) looks at the \(\textbf{past}\) (what you've learned). \(\textbf{Aptitude}\) looks at the \(\textbf{future}\) (what you could learn). \(\textbf{Intelligence}\) looks at \(\textbf{global}\) ability. \(\textbf{Personality}\) looks at \(\textbf{enduring traits}\).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the category of tests that specifically assesses a broad range of functions related to brain activity, including cognitive processes and motor skills.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Aptitude test: Measures potential for a specific skill, but not the broad range of functions described.

(B) Interest inventories: Measure a person's preferences for different activities or occupations, not their performance capabilities.

(C) Personality test: Measures traits, moods, and emotional styles, not cognitive or motor performance.

(D) Neuropsychological test: This is the correct category. Neuropsychological assessment is specifically designed to measure functions that are known to be linked to particular brain structures or pathways. This includes assessing cognitive abilities (like memory, attention, language), sensory-perceptual skills, and motor performance to identify the behavioral consequences of brain dysfunction.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Tests measuring cognitive, sensory, perceptual, and motor performance are categorized as neuropsychological tests.
Quick Tip: The prefix "neuro-" refers to the nervous system and brain. When you see a question about tests that measure brain-related functions like cognition, perception, and motor control, the answer is likely to be a neuropsychological test.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires arranging the fundamental stages of creating a new psychological test into a logical and chronological order.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The construction of a psychological test follows a systematic process:


(A) C. Defining the test: The very first step is to clearly define the purpose of the test, what construct it is intended to measure, and for what population it is designed.
(B) B. Selecting a scaling method: Once the test is defined, the developer must decide on the format for the items and how the responses will be measured (e.g., using a Likert scale, true/false, multiple choice).
(C) D. Constructing the items: With a clear definition and scaling method, the developer can now write the actual test questions or tasks (the items). This involves creating an item pool.
(D) A. Testing the items: After the items are written, they must be pilot tested on a sample population. This is followed by item analysis to evaluate the quality of each item (e.g., its difficulty and discriminability) and to select the best items for the final version of the test.

This logical flow creates the sequence C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) A.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence for test construction is C, B, D, A.
Quick Tip: Think of test construction like a research project: First, you define your research question (\(\textbf{Define test}\)). Then, you choose your measurement tools (\(\textbf{Select scale}\)). Next, you collect the data/write the items (\(\textbf{Construct items}\)). Finally, you analyze the data (\(\textbf{Test items}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching the four levels of measurement scales (Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, Ratio) with their defining characteristics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Nominal scale: This is the most basic level of measurement. It involves assigning numbers to objects or events simply for identification or classification. Its only function is to III. Allows for categorizing.
B. Ordinal scale: This scale allows data to be ordered or ranked, but the differences between the ranks are not necessarily equal. Its key feature is that it IV. Allows for ranking.
C. Interval scale: This scale has the properties of nominal and ordinal scales, plus the characteristic that the intervals between the units are equal. However, it lacks a true zero point; its zero is arbitrary. A key characteristic is its I. Arbitrary zero (e.g., 0 degrees Celsius).
D. Ratio scale: This is the highest level of measurement. It has all the properties of an interval scale but includes a meaningful, non-arbitrary zero point, known as an II. Absolute zero. This allows for true ratio comparisons (e.g., 10 kg is twice as heavy as 5 kg).

The correct pairings are A-III, B-IV, C-I, and D-II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, which corresponds to option (D).
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic \(\textbf{NOIR}\) to remember the order and properties of the scales: \(\textbf{N}\)ominal (categories), \(\textbf{O}\)rdinal (order), \(\textbf{I}\)nterval (equal intervals, no true zero), \(\textbf{R}\)atio (equal intervals, true zero).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching the four main index scores of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children—Fourth Edition (WISC-IV) with one of their corresponding core subtests.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI): This index measures verbal concept formation and reasoning. The I. Similarities subtest, which requires explaining how two words are alike, is a core component of the VCI.
B. Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI): This index measures non-verbal and fluid reasoning. The III. Picture Concepts subtest, which involves choosing pictures from different rows that share a common characteristic, is a core component of the PRI.
C. Working Memory Index (WMI): This index measures attention, concentration, and mental control. The II. Digit Span subtest, which requires repeating numbers forward and backward, is a core component of the WMI.
D. Processing Speed Index (PSI): This index measures the speed of mental and graphomotor processing. The IV. Coding subtest, which involves quickly copying symbols that are paired with numbers, is a core component of the PSI.

The correct pairings are A-I, B-III, C-II, and D-IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV, which corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: To remember the WISC-IV indexes, think about the skills they measure: \(\textbf{VCI}\) = Word knowledge. \(\textbf{PRI}\) = Visual puzzles. \(\textbf{WMI}\) = Mental juggling (like remembering a phone number). \(\textbf{PSI}\) = How fast you can do simple visual tasks.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching prominent psychologists with the personality theories or schools of thought they are most associated with.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Eysenck (Hans Eysenck): He proposed a hierarchical model of personality based on three superordinate dimensions or "types": Psychoticism, Extraversion, and Neuroticism (PEN). His theory is thus a prominent example of a III. Type theory.
B. Allport (Gordon Allport): He is considered one of the founders of personality psychology and is a central figure in IV. Trait theory, known for his concept of cardinal, central, and secondary traits.
C. Freud (Sigmund Freud): He is the originator of I. Psychoanalytic theory, which emphasizes the role of the unconscious mind, psychosexual stages, and defense mechanisms.
D. Horney (Karen Horney): A neo-Freudian psychoanalyst, she challenged some of Freud's ideas and emphasized the importance of social and cultural factors. Her focus on how individuals cope with basic anxiety through interpersonal styles makes II. Interpersonal theory the best fit.

The correct pairings are A-III, B-IV, C-I, and D-II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, which corresponds to option (D).
Quick Tip: Associate each theorist with a key concept: \(\textbf{Freud}\) = Unconscious; \(\textbf{Allport}\) = Traits; \(\textbf{Eysenck}\) = PEN Types; \(\textbf{Horney}\) = Basic Anxiety/Interpersonal needs.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange major schools of personality theory in the historical order of their emergence and influence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(A) C. Psychoanalytic Theory: This was the first major force in personality theory, developed by Sigmund Freud starting in the late 1890s and flourishing in the early 20th century.
(B) D. Interpersonal Theory: This represents the work of the neo-Freudians (like Karen Horney, Harry Stack Sullivan) who built upon but also diverged from Freud's work. Their influence grew from the 1930s to the 1950s.
(C) A. Social Learning Theory: With roots in behaviorism, social learning theories (e.g., Miller & Dollard in the 1940s, but more famously Albert Bandura in the 1960s) emerged as a significant force, emphasizing learning through observation.
(D) B. Humanistic Psychology: This school, championed by figures like Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow, emerged in the 1950s and 1960s as a "third force" in reaction to the perceived limitations of both psychoanalysis and behaviorism.

The general historical flow is Psychoanalysis \(\rightarrow\) Neo-Freudian/Interpersonal \(\rightarrow\) Social Learning and Humanistic theories developing in the mid-20th century. The sequence C \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) B is a plausible chronological representation, placing the early social learning theories before the peak of the humanistic movement.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most logical chronological order among the given choices is C, D, A, B.
Quick Tip: Remember the historical "forces" in psychology: 1st Force = Psychoanalysis, 2nd Force = Behaviorism (from which Social Learning Theory evolved), 3rd Force = Humanism. This provides a basic timeline. The Interpersonal/Neo-Freudian theories act as a bridge after original psychoanalysis.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the author of one of the most famous and influential definitions of personality in the history of psychology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The definition, "Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment," was put forth by Gordon Allport in his seminal 1937 book, *Personality: A Psychological Interpretation*.

Key aspects of this definition that are characteristic of Allport's work include:

Dynamic organization: Personality is not static but is constantly evolving and organized.
Psychophysical systems: Personality has both psychological and biological roots.
Determine: Personality is not just a mask but actively causes behavior.
Unique adjustments: It emphasizes the individuality and adaptive function of personality.

The other psychologists listed had different core ideas and are not associated with this specific definition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The provided definition of personality was given by Gordon Allport.
Quick Tip: Gordon Allport is often considered the "father" of the academic study of personality. His 1937 definition is a landmark in the field. Associating him with this comprehensive and classic definition is a key point for any psychology exam.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching four of Freud's defense mechanisms with their corresponding key elements or simple descriptions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Repression: This is the fundamental defense mechanism where anxiety-provoking thoughts, memories, or feelings are pushed out of conscious awareness into the unconscious. This matches III. Forgets by pushing down.
B. Reaction formation: This mechanism involves behaving in a way that is the exact opposite of one's true, unacceptable feelings. For example, a person with unconscious aggressive urges might become overly kind and pacifistic. The description IV. The best defense is a good offense is a metaphorical fit, representing the act of taking up an opposing stance very strongly.
C. Projection: This involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or motives to another person. Essentially, it is II. Blaming others for one's own impulses.
D. Rationalization: This is the process of creating logical-sounding but false explanations for behavior that was actually driven by unacceptable unconscious motives. It is essentially I. Making excuses.

The correct pairings are A-III, B-IV, C-II, and D-I.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I, which corresponds to option (D).
Quick Tip: Use simple keywords: \(\textbf{Repression}\) = Push down; \(\textbf{Rationalization}\) = Excuses; \(\textbf{Projection}\) = Blame others; \(\textbf{Reaction Formation}\) = Do the opposite.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the first four of Sigmund Freud's psychosexual stages of development in the correct chronological order from birth.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Freud proposed that personality develops through a series of stages, each focused on a different erogenous zone. The correct sequence is:


(A) Oral Stage (C): (Birth to 18 months) The infant's pleasure centers on the mouth – sucking, biting, chewing.
(B) ***** Stage (B): (18 to 36 months) Pleasure focuses on bowel and bladder elimination; coping with demands for control.
(C) Phallic Stage (A): (3 to 6 years) The pleasure zone is the genitals; coping with incestuous sexual feelings (Oedipus/Electra complex).
(D) Latency Period (D): (6 years to puberty) A phase of dormant sexual feelings.
(E) Genital Stage: (Puberty onwards) Maturation of sexual interests. (Not an option here).

Therefore, the correct order of the given stages is C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) D.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is C, B, A, D.
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic "\(\textbf{O}\)ld \(\textbf{A}\)ge \(\textbf{P}\)ensioners \(\textbf{L}\)ove \(\textbf{G}\)rapes" to remember the order of Freud's stages: \(\textbf{O}\)ral, \(\textbf{A}\)nal, \(\textbf{P}\)hallic, \(\textbf{L}\)atency, \(\textbf{G}\)enital.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the psychoanalytic theorist who proposed the core concepts of "basic anxiety" and "basic hostility."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Karen Horney: A prominent neo-Freudian theorist, Horney's theory is centered on the idea that a child's early social environment, particularly the parent-child relationship, is crucial for development. She argued that if parents are indifferent, inconsistent, or rejecting, the child develops basic hostility toward them. Because this hostility cannot be safely expressed, it is repressed and gives rise to basic anxiety, a feeling of being isolated and helpless in a potentially hostile world.

(B) Dollard and Miller: Known for integrating psychoanalytic concepts with learning theory, particularly the frustration-aggression hypothesis.

(C) B. F. Skinner: A radical behaviorist known for his work on operant conditioning.

(D) Albert Bandura: A social learning theorist known for his work on observational learning and self-efficacy.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The concepts of 'basic anxiety' and 'basic hostility' were introduced by Karen Horney.
Quick Tip: Associate Karen Horney with the idea of "social" psychoanalysis. Her focus was on social relationships and culture, and the anxiety and hostility that can arise from them, which sets her apart from Freud's biological focus.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question refers to Gordon Allport's trait theory of personality and asks for the term he used to describe a rare but all-pervasive trait.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Gordon Allport organized personality traits into a hierarchy of three levels:


(A) Cardinal trait (B): This is a single, dominant trait that defines a person's life. A person with such a trait is often known for it. Allport considered cardinal traits to be rare; not everyone has one. Examples might be the Machiavellianism of Machiavelli or the Christ-like compassion of Mother Teresa.
(B) Central trait (A): These are the major characteristics that form the basic building blocks of personality. Everyone has a handful of central traits (e.g., honesty, kindness, shyness) that could be used to describe them in a letter of recommendation.
(C) Secondary trait (D): These are traits that are more limited in scope and appear only in specific situations or under particular circumstances (e.g., getting anxious when speaking in public).

Source trait (C) is a term from Raymond Cattell's trait theory, not Allport's.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to Allport, a single, dominating trait is called a cardinal trait.
Quick Tip: Think of the hierarchy like this: \(\textbf{Cardinal}\) traits are like a king or queen—rare, but they rule everything. \(\textbf{Central}\) traits are like the main pillars of a building—the core foundation of personality. \(\textbf{Secondary}\) traits are like the furniture—they are there, but only show up in certain rooms (situations).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching the Big Five personality factors (also known as the Five-Factor Model) with the corresponding ranges of behavior or feeling they describe.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. Extraversion: This trait reflects the extent to which a person is sociable, assertive, and energetic. The range is from outgoing and III. Enthusiastic to solitary and reserved.
B. Agreeableness: This trait reflects a person's tendency to be compassionate and cooperative rather than suspicious and antagonistic towards others. The range is from being IV. Cooperative to being uncooperative.
C. Conscientiousness: This trait measures a person's tendency to be organized, dependable, and disciplined. The range is from being organized and having II. Self-discipline to being careless and disorganized.
D. Neuroticism: This trait describes the tendency to experience negative emotions such as anxiety, anger, or depression. It represents emotional stability, ranging from I. Calm and stable at the low end to nervous and emotionally reactive at the high end.

The correct pairings are A-III, B-IV, C-II, and D-I.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I, which corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic \(\textbf{OCEAN}\) to remember the Big Five: \(\textbf{O}\)penness, \(\textbf{C}\)onscientiousness, \(\textbf{E}\)xtraversion, \(\textbf{A}\)greeableness, \(\textbf{N}\)euroticism. Then, associate a simple keyword with each: Openness=Curious, Conscientiousness=Organized, Extraversion=Outgoing, Agreeableness=Friendly, Neuroticism=Anxious.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct sequence of structures that light passes through as it enters the eye and travels to the photoreceptor cells where transduction occurs.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The path of light through the eye is as follows:

(A) B. Cornea: Light first enters the eye through the cornea, the transparent outer layer at the front of the eye. The cornea does most of the focusing of the light.
(B) A. Pupil: After passing through the cornea, light goes through the pupil, which is the opening in the center of the iris. The iris controls the size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light entering.
(C) D. Lens: The light then passes through the lens, which fine-tunes the focus by changing its shape (a process called accommodation) to project a clear image onto the back of the eye.
(D) C. Retina: Finally, the focused light strikes the retina, the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye. The retina contains photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) that convert the light energy into neural signals.

The correct sequence is B \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) C.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence for the passage of light is B, A, D, C.
Quick Tip: Think of the eye like a camera: Light passes through the outer protective layer (\(\textbf{Cornea}\)), through the aperture (\(\textbf{Pupil}\)), is focused by the camera's lens (\(\textbf{Lens}\)), and finally hits the film or sensor at the back (\(\textbf{Retina}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange several early motor milestones in the correct developmental sequence from birth up to about 4 months of age. This follows the principles of cephalocaudal (head-to-tail) and proximodistal (center-outward) development.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The typical sequence of these early motor skills is:

(A) C. Fetal posture: At birth (0 months), an infant's default posture when lying on their stomach is the fetal position, with knees tucked under them.
(B) B. Lift head: By about 1 month, an infant can lift their head briefly while in the prone position (on their stomach).
(C) A. Lift chest: By 2-3 months, they develop enough strength in their neck and upper trunk to lift their head and chest off the ground, supporting themselves on their forearms.
(D) D. Reach and miss: At around 3-4 months, infants begin to develop voluntary reaching. Their initial attempts are often uncoordinated, leading to "reaching and missing" as they learn to control their arm and hand movements.

The correct sequence is C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) D.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct order of developmental milestones is C, B, A, D.
Quick Tip: Remember the cephalocaudal principle: development proceeds from head to tail. So, a baby gains control over their \(\textbf{head}\) (lifting head) before their \(\textbf{chest}\) (lifting chest), and control of their trunk before their limbs (reaching).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange Jean Piaget's four stages of cognitive development in the correct chronological order from birth through adolescence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Piaget's theory proposes a sequence of four universal stages of cognitive development:

(A) D. Sensorimotor Stage: (Birth to ~2 years) Infants learn about the world through their senses and motor actions. Key developments include object permanence.
(B) C. Preoperational Stage: (~2 to ~7 years) Children begin to use language and symbols, but their thinking is egocentric and lacks logical reasoning.
(C) B. Concrete Operations Stage: (~7 to ~11 years) Children develop the ability to think logically about concrete events. They grasp concepts like conservation.
(D) A. Formal Operations Stage: (~12 years through adulthood) Adolescents develop the capacity for abstract, hypothetical, and systematic thought.

The correct order is D \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) A.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence of Piaget's stages is D, C, B, A.
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic "\(\textbf{S}\)mart \(\textbf{P}\)eople \(\textbf{C}\)ook \(\textbf{F}\)ish" to remember the order of Piaget's stages: \(\textbf{S}\)ensorimotor, \(\textbf{P}\)reoperational, \(\textbf{C}\)oncrete operational, \(\textbf{F}\)ormal operational.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching the age ranges corresponding to Piaget's stages of cognitive development with the major cognitive milestone or accomplishment of each stage. Note: The descriptions in List-II are slightly ambiguous, so we must find the best fit.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


A. 0-2 Years (Sensorimotor Stage): The most significant achievement of this stage is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, heard, or touched. This is known as II. Object permanence.
B. 2-6 or 7 Years (Preoperational Stage): During this stage, children develop language and the ability to think about things symbolically. A key accomplishment is the ability to III. Represent the objects or events symbolically (e.g., a stick can become a horse).
C. 7-11 or 12 Years (Concrete Operational Stage): In this stage, children begin to think logically about concrete events. They master conservation and develop the ability to use I. Various forms of logical thoughts (like reversibility and classification) as long as they are applied to physical objects.
D. 12-Adult (Formal Operational Stage): This final stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly and hypothetically. This includes the ability to reason about abstract concepts and understand general rules and IV. Understanding the principles that may not have a concrete basis.

The most logical pairings are A-II, B-III, C-I, and D-IV. However, C-I and D-IV could be argued. Let's re-examine based on the provided options. Option 2 provides A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

A-II and B-III are definitely correct.
C-IV: Concrete Operational (7-11 years) -> Understanding the principles (e.g., conservation). This is a strong match.
D-I: Formal Operational (12-Adult) -> Various forms of logical thoughts (e.g., abstract, hypothetical-deductive). This is also a strong match.

This combination seems the most plausible intended answer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I, which corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: Associate each of Piaget's stages with one key concept: \(\textbf{Sensorimotor}\) \(\rightarrow\) Object Permanence; \(\textbf{Preoperational}\) \(\rightarrow\) Symbolic Thought (but egocentric); \(\textbf{Concrete Operational}\) \(\rightarrow\) Conservation/Logic with objects; \(\textbf{Formal Operational}\) \(\rightarrow\) Abstract Thought.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the developmental theorist whose theory of cognitive development is primarily focused on the influence of social interaction, culture, and language.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Lev Vygotsky: His theory is known as the Sociocultural Theory of Cognitive Development. The central tenets of his theory are that social interaction and language are fundamental to cognitive development. Key concepts include the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD), which highlights learning through collaboration with more knowledgeable others, and the idea that language shapes thought. This is a perfect match.

(B) Newcombe and Huttenlocher: These are contemporary researchers known for their work on spatial development.

(C) Piaget (Jean Piaget): While Piaget acknowledged social factors, his theory is primarily constructivist, focusing on the child as an individual "scientist" who learns through direct interaction with the physical world. He did not give a central role to language or social instruction.

(D) Kohlberg (Lawrence Kohlberg): He developed a theory of moral development, which is an extension of Piaget's cognitive development theory into the moral domain.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Lev Vygotsky is the theorist who emphasized the role of social factors and language in cognitive development.
Quick Tip: Remember the main difference: \(\textbf{Piaget}\) = The child as a lone scientist. \(\textbf{Vygotsky}\) = The child as a social apprentice. If the question mentions social interaction, culture, or language as the primary driver of development, the answer is Vygotsky.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the specific stage in Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development where moral reasoning is based on self-interest and reciprocal exchange.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's review the first few stages of Kohlberg's theory, which are part of the Preconventional Level of morality:


Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation. At this stage, the individual's moral reasoning is focused on avoiding punishment from authority figures. An action is seen as morally wrong if the person who commits it gets punished.
Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange. In this stage, the individual recognizes that there is not just one right view. Moral reasoning is based on self-interest and satisfying one's own needs. The guiding principle is "what's in it for me?" An element of fairness and reciprocity appears, but it is pragmatic ("you scratch my back, and I'll scratch yours"), not based on loyalty or justice. This directly matches the question's description.
Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships. This is the first stage of the Conventional Level. Morality is based on living up to the expectations of family and community and being a "good person."
Stage 4: Maintaining the Social Order. At this stage, the individual becomes more aware of wider rules of society, and judgments are based on upholding laws to maintain order and avoid guilt.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Stage 2 is the stage where morality is judged in terms of satisfying one's own needs.
Quick Tip: Think of the Preconventional Level (Stages 1 and 2) as being focused on the self. \(\textbf{Stage 1}\) is about avoiding personal pain (punishment). \(\textbf{Stage 2}\) is about achieving personal pleasure/gain (satisfying needs).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that describes the capacity to both understand and share another person's emotional state.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Temperament: This refers to an individual's innate, biologically based behavioral and emotional style. It's about one's own characteristic way of reacting, not about understanding others' feelings.



(B) Sympathy: This is the feeling of care and concern for someone, often accompanied by a wish to see them better off. It is feeling *for* someone, which is different from feeling *with* them. For example, you feel sorry for a friend who lost their pet.



(C) Empathy: This is the ability to understand and vicariously experience what another person is feeling from their perspective. It has two components: cognitive empathy (the ability to understand another's feelings) and affective empathy (the ability to share the feelings of another). The question's description covers both aspects, making this the correct answer.



(D) Attachment: This refers to the deep and enduring emotional bond that connects one person to another across time and space, most notably between a child and a caregiver.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ability to recognize, understand, and share the feelings of others is the definition of empathy.
Quick Tip: A simple way to distinguish empathy and sympathy: \(\textbf{Empathy}\) is "feeling with" someone (putting yourself in their shoes). \(\textbf{Sympathy}\) is "feeling for" someone (acknowledging their feelings from the outside).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the age group associated with the first stage of Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which is characterized by the crisis of "trust versus mistrust."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Erik Erikson proposed eight stages of psychosocial development, each with a unique developmental task or crisis. The first stage is:


Stage 1: Trust vs. Mistrust. This stage occurs from birth to approximately 18 months. During this period, the infant is completely dependent on caregivers. The successful resolution of this stage, based on consistent and reliable care, results in the virtue of hope and a fundamental sense of trust in the world. Failure results in a sense of mistrust.

Let's look at the tasks for the other age groups listed:


Toddlers (18 months - 3 years): The task is Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt.
Preschoolers (3 - 5 years): The task is Initiative vs. Guilt.
Adolescents (12 - 18 years): The task is Identity vs. Role Confusion.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The "trust versus mistrust" phase is the primary developmental task of an infant.
Quick Tip: Erikson's stages are sequential and build on each other. The very first challenge a person faces after birth is to determine if the world is a safe, reliable place. This foundational decision is the essence of the Trust vs. Mistrust stage in infancy.