CUET PG MPT 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Step 1: Understanding Kienbock disease.

Kienbock disease is a disorder of the wrist characterized by avascular necrosis of the lunate bone.

This means that the blood supply to the lunate is compromised, leading to death of the bone tissue.


Step 2: Why lunate is most affected.

The lunate bone has a vulnerable blood supply, primarily from small branches of the radial and ulnar arteries.

When these vessels are insufficient or get damaged, the lunate undergoes necrosis, while other carpal bones usually remain unaffected.


Step 3: Clinical presentation.

Patients present with chronic wrist pain, stiffness, and decreased grip strength.

On X-ray, sclerosis, collapse, and fragmentation of the lunate bone may be observed.


Step 4: Analysis of options.

- (A) Lunate: Correct, as this is the bone affected in Kienbock disease.

- (B) Scaphoid: Commonly fractured and may undergo avascular necrosis, but that is not called Kienbock disease.

- (C) Trapezoid: Rarely involved in avascular necrosis.

- (D) Trapezium: Associated with thumb carpometacarpal arthritis, not Kienbock disease.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Thus, the lunate bone is specifically affected in Kienbock disease.
Quick Tip: Remember: Avascular necrosis of the lunate = Kienbock disease. Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid = complication of scaphoid fracture.

Step 1: Normal resting potential.

The resting membrane potential of a neuron is about -70 mV, maintained by sodium-potassium pumps and ion channels.

This means the inside of the cell is more negative compared to the outside.


Step 2: What happens during depolarization.

When a stimulus reaches threshold, voltage-gated sodium channels open.

Sodium ions rush inside the cell, causing the membrane potential to rise.

The inside of the cell becomes less negative, eventually reaching zero and then turning positive.


Step 3: Analysis of options.

- (A) Hyperpolarizing phase: This occurs after repolarization, when the membrane becomes more negative than the resting potential. Not correct here.

- (B) Repolarizing phase: During this phase, potassium ions move out of the cell, restoring the negative potential. Not correct.

- (C) Depolarizing phase: Correct. This is when the negative membrane becomes less negative, reaches zero, and becomes positive.

- (D) Action potential: The overall process includes depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization. The specific phase asked is depolarization.


Step 4: Clinical correlation.

Depolarization is essential for nerve conduction and muscle contraction. Abnormal depolarization can cause arrhythmias, seizures, or muscle weakness.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the depolarizing phase is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Depolarization = Sodium influx. Repolarization = Potassium efflux. Hyperpolarization = Overshoot negativity.

Step 1: Role of osteoclasts.

Osteoclasts are large multinucleated cells derived from monocytes.

Their function is bone resorption — breaking down old bone tissue.

Hence, osteoclasts correspond to (II).


Step 2: Role of osteoblasts.

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.

They secrete osteoid (bone matrix) which later mineralizes to form hard bone.

Thus, osteoblasts correspond to (IV).


Step 3: Role of osteocytes.

Osteocytes are mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts that have become embedded in bone matrix.

They maintain bone tissue and communicate via canaliculi.

Thus, osteocytes correspond to (I).


Step 4: Role of osteoprogenitor cells.

These are undifferentiated stem cells derived from mesenchyme.

They differentiate into osteoblasts when needed.

Thus, osteoprogenitor cells correspond to (III).


Step 5: Conclusion.

So the correct matching is:

% Option
(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III).
Quick Tip: Osteoclasts = Bone resorption, Osteoblasts = Bone building, Osteocytes = Mature cells, Osteoprogenitors = Stem cells.

Step 1: Understanding autonomic dysreflexia.

Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency that occurs in patients with spinal cord injury.

It is characterized by sudden and severe hypertension, headache, sweating above the lesion, bradycardia, and flushing.

It is triggered by noxious stimuli below the level of injury such as bladder distension, bowel impaction, or skin irritation.


Step 2: Neurological basis.

The sympathetic outflow responsible for vascular tone arises from the thoracolumbar segments of the spinal cord.

Lesions at or above T6 impair descending inhibitory control of sympathetic neurons.

This leads to unchecked sympathetic discharge below the level of injury and results in autonomic dysreflexia.


Step 3: Analysis of options.

- (A) T4 and above: Too high, though lesions at this level also predispose, but T6 is the standard cutoff.

- (B) T6 and above: Correct. Injuries at T6 or above most commonly lead to autonomic dysreflexia.

- (C) T8 and above: Lesions below T6 are less likely to produce severe autonomic dysreflexia.

- (D) T10 and above: Too low, autonomic dysreflexia is very rare in these cases.


Step 4: Clinical importance.

Prompt recognition and treatment are essential, since severe hypertension can cause stroke, seizures, or cardiac arrest.

Treatment includes sitting the patient upright, removing the triggering stimulus, and administering antihypertensives if necessary.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, autonomic dysreflexia is usually seen in spinal cord injuries at T6 and above.
Quick Tip: Autonomic dysreflexia = Spinal injury at T6 or above + Hypertension + Bradycardia + Sweating above lesion.

Step 1: Structure of pancreatic islets.

The pancreas contains small groups of endocrine cells known as Islets of Langerhans.

These islets consist of four main types of cells: Alpha, Beta, Delta, and F cells.


Step 2: Functions of each cell.

- Alpha cells secrete glucagon, which raises blood glucose.

- Beta cells secrete insulin, which lowers blood glucose.

- Delta cells secrete somatostatin, which inhibits secretion of both insulin and glucagon.

- F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide, which regulates pancreatic exocrine function.


Step 3: Role of insulin.

Insulin is the key hormone for glucose uptake into cells, glycogen storage, and lipid synthesis.

Deficiency or resistance to insulin leads to diabetes mellitus.


Step 4: Analysis of options.

- (A) Alpha cells: Incorrect, they produce glucagon.

- (B) Beta cells: Correct, they secrete insulin.

- (C) Delta cells: Incorrect, they produce somatostatin.

- (D) F cells: Incorrect, they produce pancreatic polypeptide.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, insulin is secreted by the Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
Quick Tip: Remember: Alpha = Glucagon, Beta = Insulin, Delta = Somatostatin, F = Pancreatic polypeptide.

Step 1: Recall the normal ranges of WBC types.

- Neutrophils: 55–70% of total WBCs.

- Lymphocytes: 20–40%.

- Monocytes: 2–8%.

- Eosinophils: 1–4%.

- Basophils: 0.5–1%.


Step 2: Arrange from highest to lowest.

Clearly, neutrophils are the most abundant, followed by lymphocytes, then monocytes, then eosinophils, and finally basophils as the least abundant.


Step 3: Match with the given options.

This corresponds to (C), (B), (A), (E), (D).


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the correct sequence is Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Eosinophils → Basophils.
Quick Tip: To remember WBC order: "Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas" = Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils.

Step 1: Initiation of extrinsic pathway.

The extrinsic pathway begins when tissue factor (TF), also called thromboplastin, leaks into the blood from damaged tissues.

So the first step is (C).


Step 2: Activation of clotting factor X.

In the presence of calcium ions (Ca\(^{2+}\)) and tissue factor, clotting factor X is activated.

So the second step is (D).


Step 3: Formation of active complex.

Activated factor X then combines with factor V in the presence of Ca\(^{2+}\), forming Prothrombinase complex.

So the third step is (E).


Step 4: Formation of Prothrombinase.

This complex leads to the actual formation of Prothrombinase enzyme.

So the fourth step is (A).


Step 5: Activation of Prothrombinase.

Finally, Prothrombinase is activated and it converts Prothrombin into Thrombin.

So the fifth step is (B).


Step 6: Conclusion.

The correct order is (C) → (D) → (E) → (A) → (B).
Quick Tip: Extrinsic pathway starts with Tissue Factor (TF). Always remember the sequence: TF + Ca\(^{2+}\) → Factor X activation → Factor V joining → Prothrombinase formation → Activation of Prothrombinase.

Step 1: Starting point - Spermatogonia.

Spermatogenesis begins with spermatogonia, which are diploid stem cells located in the seminiferous tubules.


Step 2: Formation of primary spermatocytes.

Spermatogonia undergo mitosis to form primary spermatocytes, which are still diploid.


Step 3: Formation of secondary spermatocytes.

Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to form secondary spermatocytes, which are haploid.


Step 4: Formation of spermatids.

Secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II to produce spermatids, which are also haploid.


Step 5: Formation of spermatozoa.

Spermatids undergo a maturation process called spermiogenesis, where they transform into motile spermatozoa.


Step 6: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct sequence is (C) Spermatogonium → (A) Primary spermatocyte → (D) Secondary spermatocyte → (E) Spermatids → (B) Spermatozoa.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic: "Good Students Are Smart" = Gonium → Spermatocyte (Primary) → Spermatocyte (Secondary) → Spermatid → Spermatozoa.

Step 1: Understanding hand to knee gait.

Hand to knee gait is a compensatory gait seen in patients with weakness of the quadriceps muscle.

The quadriceps are responsible for stabilizing the knee joint during walking, especially in the stance phase.


Step 2: Why the hand is used.

When quadriceps are weak, the knee tends to buckle during weight bearing.

To prevent falling, the patient uses their hand to push the knee back into extension during walking, hence the name "hand to knee gait."


Step 3: Analysis of options.

- (A) Weakness of Hamstrings: This causes difficulty in flexion of the knee, but does not produce hand to knee gait.

- (B) Weakness of Quadriceps: Correct, because quadriceps are essential for knee extension and stability.

- (C) Weakness of Plantar flexors: This results in tip-toe weakness, not hand to knee gait.

- (D) Lack of balance: This results in ataxic gait, not hand to knee gait.


Step 4: Clinical importance.

Quadriceps weakness is commonly seen in femoral nerve palsy, post-polio syndrome, or myopathies.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Thus, hand to knee gait is due to quadriceps weakness.
Quick Tip: If patient supports knee with hand during walking → think quadriceps weakness.

Step 1: Starting point - Trachea.

Air enters the conducting system through the trachea, which is the largest airway tube supported by cartilaginous rings.

Hence, the first structure is (D) Trachea.


Step 2: Division into bronchi.

The trachea divides into the right and left primary bronchi, which then branch into secondary and tertiary bronchi.

Therefore, the second structure is (B) Bronchi.


Step 3: Passage into bronchioles.

Bronchi further subdivide into smaller bronchioles. These lack cartilage and are smaller airways that continue the conducting pathway.

Thus, the third structure is (C) Bronchioles.


Step 4: Transition to respiratory zone - alveolar ducts.

The bronchioles eventually branch into alveolar ducts, which directly lead to gas-exchanging areas.

Thus, the fourth structure is (E) Alveolar ducts.


Step 5: Final structures - alveolar sacs.

The alveolar ducts open into alveolar sacs, which consist of clusters of alveoli. These are the primary sites of gas exchange.

Thus, the fifth and final structure is (A) Alveolar sacs.


Step 6: Conclusion.

The correct sequence of branching is: (D) Trachea → (B) Bronchi → (C) Bronchioles → (E) Alveolar ducts → (A) Alveolar sacs.
Quick Tip: Always remember the branching order of respiratory system: Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveolar ducts → Alveolar sacs.

Step 1: Understanding GFR.

The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is the volume of filtrate produced by the kidneys per minute.

It is an important marker of kidney function, indicating how well the kidneys are filtering blood.


Step 2: Measurement of GFR.

GFR is influenced by factors such as blood pressure, the surface area of the glomeruli, and the permeability of the glomerular membrane.

Normal GFR values range from 90 to 120 mL/min.


Step 3: Analyzing other options.

- (A) Osmotic Pressure: Osmotic pressure refers to the pressure exerted by solutes in the blood, not the amount of filtrate.

- (C) Net Filtration Pressure: NFP is the pressure that drives filtration across the glomerular membrane, but it’s not the amount of filtrate produced.

- (D) Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure: CHP refers to the pressure exerted by the filtrate within the Bowman's capsule, affecting filtration rate but not the volume.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR).
Quick Tip: Remember: GFR reflects kidney function and is a critical parameter in assessing renal health.

Step 1: Understanding BUN and plasma creatinine.

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and plasma creatinine are both waste products filtered by the kidneys, and their levels indicate kidney function.

An increase in either or both suggests impaired kidney function.


Step 2: Why plasma creatinine is the other test.

Plasma creatinine is produced by muscle metabolism and filtered by the kidneys.

A rise in plasma creatinine levels occurs when the kidneys are not able to filter it efficiently.


Step 3: Analyzing other options.

- (A) Plasma Albumin: Albumin levels indicate protein levels in the blood, not kidney function.

- (B) Plasma Bilirubin: Bilirubin is a byproduct of red blood cell breakdown, not directly related to kidney function.

- (C) Plasma Biliverdin: Biliverdin is a precursor to bilirubin, not related to kidney function.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, plasma creatinine is the other test that helps assess kidney function.
Quick Tip: For kidney function, look at BUN and plasma creatinine together for an overall picture.

Step 1: Understanding Cerebral Palsy.

Cerebral palsy is a group of disorders that affect movement, posture, and muscle tone.

It results from a brain injury or abnormality during early brain development.


Step 2: Spastic Cerebral Palsy.

Spastic cerebral palsy is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 70-80% of cases.

This type results in stiff muscles and difficulty with movement.


Step 3: Mental retardation in Cerebral Palsy.

Mental retardation or intellectual disability may or may not be present in cerebral palsy patients.

It is not a universal feature and varies with the severity and type of brain injury.


Step 4: Abnormalities of movement and posture.

All forms of cerebral palsy present with abnormalities of movement and posture due to damage to the brain's motor control centers.


Step 5: Brain damage in cerebral palsy.

Brain damage in cerebral palsy is not progressive. Once the brain injury occurs, the damage is permanent, but it does not worsen over time.


Step 6: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) (A), (C), and (D) only.
Quick Tip: Remember: Cerebral palsy does not progress over time, but movement abnormalities persist throughout life.

Step 1: Resting membrane potential.

The resting membrane potential is primarily determined by the unequal distribution of ions across the cell membrane.

This is mainly due to the action of the Na\(^{+}\)-K\(^{+}\) ATPase pump, which actively transports sodium out and potassium into the cell.


Step 2: Anions and their movement.

Most anions, such as proteins, cannot easily leave the cell. This contributes to the negative charge inside the cell, which helps maintain the resting potential.


Step 3: Electrogenic nature of the Na\(^{+}\)-K\(^{+}\) ATPase.

The Na\(^{+}\)-K\(^{+}\) ATPase pump is electrogenic, meaning it contributes to the membrane potential by moving three Na\(^{+}\) ions out for every two K\(^{+}\) ions moved in, creating a net negative charge inside the cell.


Step 4: Analyzing the options.

- (A) Unequal distribution of ions: This does determine the resting membrane potential.

- (B) Inability of most anions to leave: This contributes to the resting potential.

- (C) Electrogenic nature of Na\(^{+}\)-K\(^{+}\) ATPase: This also contributes to the resting membrane potential.

- (D) Less K\(^{+}\) leak channels: This does not significantly affect the resting membrane potential as the leak channels for K\(^{+}\) are sufficient for this purpose.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D), as the number of K\(^{+}\) leak channels does not directly determine the resting membrane potential.
Quick Tip: Resting membrane potential is mainly determined by the Na\(^{+}\)-K\(^{+}\) ATPase pump and the differential permeability of the membrane to K\(^{+}\) ions.

Step 1: Understanding VAD.

A Ventricular Assist Device (VAD) is a mechanical pump used to support a failing heart.

It helps the left ventricle pump blood to the rest of the body, decreasing the heart's workload and providing support until a heart transplant is available or the heart recovers.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (A) Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP): An IABP is used to improve coronary blood flow, but it does not assist with blood circulation throughout the body.

- (B) Skeletal muscle assist device: These are experimental devices designed to assist skeletal muscles, not the heart.

- (C) Defibrillator: A defibrillator is used to reset the heart's rhythm, not to assist with pumping blood.

- (D) Ventricular assist device (VAD): Correct. It directly assists with the pumping function of a weakened heart.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Ventricular assist device (VAD).
Quick Tip: VADs are used in heart failure when the heart is too weak to pump sufficient blood to the body.

Step 1: Breakdown of glucose.

The breakdown of six-carbon glucose to two molecules of pyruvate occurs during glycolysis.

During the payoff phase, ATP is produced, and key intermediates are formed.


Step 2: Correct sequence of intermediates.

- (A) 3-Phosphoglycerate: This is formed after ATP is used to convert 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate into 3-phosphoglycerate.

- (C) Phosphoenolpyruvate: This is formed from 2-phosphoglycerate by the action of enolase, and later it is converted to pyruvate.

- (B) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate: This is a product of the splitting of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate and is involved in further ATP production.

- (D) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate: This is formed after glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate undergoes oxidation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct sequence of intermediates is (A), (C), (B), (D).
Quick Tip: In the payoff phase of glycolysis, high-energy intermediates are produced which contribute to ATP formation.

Step 1: Surya Namaskar.

Surya Namaskar, or Sun Salutation, is a set of 12 physical postures that are typically performed in a flowing sequence.

It is a sequence of movements that includes stretching, bending, and strengthening exercises.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) 18: This is incorrect; the standard Surya Namaskar involves 12 steps.

- (2) 12: Correct, Surya Namaskar is done in 12 steps.

- (3) 10: Incorrect.

- (4) 9: Incorrect.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct number of steps in Surya Namaskar is 12.
Quick Tip: Surya Namaskar has 12 steps, which are designed to improve flexibility, strength, and mental focus.

Step 1: Understanding Scheuermann’s disease.

Scheuermann’s disease is a condition that affects the spine, specifically the thoracic and lumbar regions.

It leads to abnormal vertebral growth and results in a rounded back or kyphosis.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Hip joint: Incorrect. This is not associated with Scheuermann’s disease.

- (2) Spine: Correct. Scheuermann’s disease affects the spine.

- (3) Ankle joint: Incorrect. Not related to Scheuermann’s disease.

- (4) Elbow joint: Incorrect. This disease does not affect the elbow joint.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, Scheuermann’s disease primarily affects the spine.
Quick Tip: Scheuermann’s disease leads to spinal deformities, specifically kyphosis, and affects vertebral development.

Step 1: Understanding Lactose.

Lactose is a disaccharide composed of two monosaccharides, galactose and glucose.

It is formed through a glycosidic bond between C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Galactose, Glucose: Correct. Lactose is made of galactose and glucose.

- (2) Fructose, Glucose: Incorrect. Lactose does not contain fructose.

- (3) Glucose, Fructose: Incorrect. Lactose is not composed of glucose and fructose.

- (4) Glucose, Galactose: Incorrect. The linkage is C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose, so the order here is incorrect.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, lactose is formed between C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose.
Quick Tip: Lactose = Galactose + Glucose, joined by a β-1,4 glycosidic bond.

Step 1: Understanding lactose.

Lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose. It is the primary sugar found in milk.

It provides energy and is also important for the absorption of calcium.


Step 2: Analyzing other options.

- (1) Glucose: Incorrect. Glucose is found in many foods but is not the main sugar in milk.

- (2) Fructose: Incorrect. Fructose is found in fruits, not in milk.

- (4) Galactose: Incorrect. Galactose is part of lactose, but on its own, it is not found in milk.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Lactose, as it is the main sugar in milk.
Quick Tip: Lactose = Galactose + Glucose. It's the primary sugar in milk.

Step 1: Matching pharmacological terms with their definitions.

- (A) Pharmacokinetics: It deals with the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs, so it matches with (II).

- (B) Pharmacogenetics: It studies how genetic factors influence drug response, so it matches with (III).

- (C) Pharmacodynamics: This deals with the effects of drugs on the body, so it matches with (IV).

- (D) Biopharmaceutics: This relates to the drug formulation and delivery, so it matches with (I).


Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct matching is (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).
Quick Tip: Pharmacokinetics = Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; Pharmacodynamics = Drug effect on the body.

Step 1: What is a prodrug?

A prodrug is an inactive compound that is metabolized in the body to produce an active drug.

This allows for improved absorption, bioavailability, or targeted delivery.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Active drug: Incorrect. Active drugs do not require metabolism to become active.

- (2) Biotransformed drug: This refers to a drug that has already undergone metabolic transformation, but is not necessarily inactive.

- (3) Prodrug: Correct. A prodrug is inactive until metabolized in the body.

- (4) Metabolite drug: Incorrect. This term refers to the products of drug metabolism, not the original drug.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Prodrug.
Quick Tip: Prodrugs are inactive compounds that need to be metabolized into their active form in the body.

Step 1: Matching drugs with their routes of administration.

In this case, the drugs listed are commonly administered via specific routes based on their properties and therapeutic purposes.


- (A) Dopamine: Dopamine is generally administered intravenously (IV) for critical care to raise blood pressure or improve heart function, so it matches with (II).

- (B) Nitroglycerine: Nitroglycerine is used for relieving chest pain (angina) and is often given sublingually (under the tongue) for rapid absorption, so it matches with (IV).

- (C) BCG vaccine: The BCG vaccine is administered via subcutaneous (SC) injection to protect against tuberculosis, so it matches with (III).

- (D) Insulin: Insulin is primarily given subcutaneously for managing blood sugar levels in diabetes, so it matches with (I).


Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct matching is (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I). This matches each drug to its appropriate route of administration.
Quick Tip: Different drugs require different routes of administration based on factors like absorption rate and the area of action.

Step 1: Chronic heart failure treatment.

Chronic heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup and insufficient oxygenation of tissues. The management of this condition involves medications to reduce fluid retention, manage blood pressure, and improve heart function.


Step 2: Diuretics, Vasodilators, and β-Blockers.

- Diuretics are commonly used to reduce fluid buildup in the body, which is a major symptom of heart failure.

- Vasodilators help relax blood vessels, lowering blood pressure and reducing the heart's workload.

- β-Blockers reduce heart rate and improve heart function over time by reducing the heart's oxygen demand. These are essential for chronic heart failure treatment.


Step 3: Phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors, like milrinone, are typically used for acute heart failure to increase heart contractility and improve symptoms. They are not used long-term due to their side effects, such as arrhythmias.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, phosphodiesterase inhibitors are not used for chronic heart failure management.
Quick Tip: For chronic heart failure, focus on diuretics, vasodilators, and β-blockers as essential treatments.

Step 1: Understanding rheobase.

Rheobase is defined as the minimum current strength required to produce a response in excitable tissue when the stimulus is applied for an infinite duration. This value is crucial in understanding the excitability of nerve and muscle tissues.


Step 2: Chronaxie.

Chronaxie is related but distinct from rheobase. It refers to the minimum duration required for a stimulus of twice the rheobase strength to produce a response.


Step 3: Analyzing the other options.

- (3) Van Hoff Point: This term is not related to electrical stimulation; it's about the temperature dependence of chemical reactions.

- (4) Lewis Stimulation Point: This point does not refer to the threshold of electrical stimulation but is associated with a different phenomenon.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (2) Rheobase, as it refers to the minimum stimulus current required for response at infinite duration.
Quick Tip: Rheobase represents the threshold current needed for electrical stimulation of excitable tissues.

Step 1: Understanding microwave diathermy.

Microwave diathermy is a therapeutic technique that uses microwave radiation to generate heat in deep tissues to relieve pain and improve blood circulation. However, this technique is contraindicated in certain conditions.


Step 2: Contraindications.

- (A) Pregnancy: Microwave diathermy should not be used in pregnant women because it can harm the developing fetus.

- (B) Tumour: The use of microwave diathermy in areas with cancerous growth can promote tumour growth.

- (C) Sprain: Microwaves may worsen inflammation in acute injuries such as sprains.

- (D) Infections: Infected tissues may become more susceptible to further injury or complication.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (1), as pregnancy, tumour, and sprain are the major contraindications.
Quick Tip: Microwave diathermy should not be used on individuals with conditions like pregnancy, tumours, or active infections.

Step 1: Understanding H2 antagonists.

Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, and nizatidine are all H2 receptor antagonists, which work by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach lining, thus reducing stomach acid production.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Antacids: Incorrect. Antacids neutralize stomach acid but are not the same as H2 antagonists.

- (2) Proton pump blockers/inhibitors: Incorrect. Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole work by inhibiting the proton pumps in the stomach.

- (3) H2 antagonists/receptor blockers: Correct. These drugs inhibit the histamine receptors in the stomach, reducing gastric acid secretion.

- (4) Prostaglandin (PG) analogues: Incorrect. PG analogues protect the stomach lining but do not directly reduce acid production.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (3), as these drugs are classified as H2 receptor blockers.
Quick Tip: H2 receptor antagonists reduce stomach acid production and are commonly used in peptic ulcer treatment.

Step 1: Understanding biomechanics.

Biomechanics is the study of the mechanical laws relating to the movement or structure of living organisms. It examines how internal forces (muscle contractions, joint forces) and external forces (gravity, friction) interact with the human body.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Kinesiology: While kinesiology is related to the study of human movement, it is broader and not specifically focused on forces.

- (2) Biomechanics: Correct. Biomechanics is the correct term that encompasses the study of both internal and external forces acting on the body.

- (3) Kinetics: This refers specifically to the study of forces in motion, but biomechanics encompasses more aspects, including structure and force application.

- (4) Kinematics: Incorrect. Kinematics is concerned with motion without considering forces.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (2) Biomechanics, which deals with the forces acting on the human body and their effects.
Quick Tip: Biomechanics is key to understanding how forces influence human movement and prevent injury.

Step 1: Determinants of gait.

Gait is influenced by various mechanical factors that allow for efficient and controlled movement. The primary determinants include pelvic tilt, knee extension, and pelvic rotation. These factors help to maintain balance and minimize energy expenditure during walking.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Pelvic tilt: This is a determinant of gait as it facilitates proper leg swing and helps with balance.

- (2) Knee extension in stance phase: Knee extension in the stance phase provides stability and control during walking.

- (3) Pelvic rotation: The rotation of the pelvis is important for smooth gait and efficient stride length.

- (4) Foot and knee mechanisms: While foot and knee mechanics are important in gait, they are not considered determinants. Determinants are specifically factors that influence energy efficiency and stride length.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (4), as foot and knee mechanisms are not considered primary determinants of gait.
Quick Tip: Key determinants of gait include pelvic tilt, knee extension, and pelvic rotation, which allow for smooth and efficient movement.

Step 1: Understanding Center of Gravity.

The Center of Gravity (CoG) is the point at which the total mass of a body is considered to be concentrated. When a person holds an object in one hand, their CoG shifts towards the side of the body carrying the object, and it also moves downwards due to the additional weight.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Towards Left side and downwards: Incorrect, since the object is in the right hand, so the CoG shifts to the right.

- (2) Towards Left and upwards: Incorrect, as the CoG would not shift left or upwards in this case.

- (3) Towards Right and upwards: Incorrect, as the CoG moves downwards due to the additional weight.

- (4) Towards Right and downwards: Correct, since the person is carrying the suitcase with their right hand, the CoG shifts to the right and downward due to the added weight.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (4), as the CoG shifts towards the right and downwards.
Quick Tip: Carrying an object shifts the CoG towards the side of the object and downwards due to the added weight.

Step 1: Understanding the principles of biomechanics.

Each biomechanical principle relates to how we apply force, motion, and interaction in physical activities.


Step 2: Analyzing the principles.

- (A) Principle of Inertia: This principle is about objects remaining in their state of rest or motion unless acted upon by a force. The example is (II), which is about stopping a moving object, demonstrating the application of force to change its state of motion.

- (B) Principle of Segmental Interaction: This principle states that movement of body segments contributes to overall movement. The example (IV) refers to how in sports like golf or tennis, players use the coordination of body parts to generate maximum power.

- (C) Principle of Range of Motion: This principle refers to the maximum movement of a joint. The example (III) is the use of a sweep shot in hockey, where greater motion and force create a more powerful shot.

- (D) Principle of Force-Time: This principle relates to the relationship between the force applied and the time over which it is applied. The example (I) involves throwing a dart or javelin, where time and force need to be carefully balanced for optimal performance.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct matching is (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I).
Quick Tip: In biomechanics, understanding principles like force-time, range of motion, and segmental interaction is key to improving performance in sports.

Step 1: Determinants of gait.

Gait determinants are factors that influence and determine the efficiency and smoothness of movement during walking. They include pelvic tilt, knee extension, and pelvic rotation. These factors help maintain proper posture and balance during movement.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Pelvic tilt: Correct. Pelvic tilt helps in maintaining balance and efficient leg swing.

- (2) Knee extension in stance phase: Correct. Knee extension helps provide stability during the stance phase of walking.

- (3) Pelvic rotation: Correct. Pelvic rotation helps lengthen the stride and allows for smooth movement.

- (4) Foot and knee mechanisms: Incorrect. These are involved in the actual movement of the leg but are not primary determinants of gait.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is (4), as foot and knee mechanisms are not considered primary determinants.
Quick Tip: Determinants of gait are factors like pelvic tilt, knee extension, and pelvic rotation, which help ensure efficient walking.

Step 1: Understanding planes of the body.

Planes are imaginary lines that divide the body into sections. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right parts.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Coronal: Incorrect. The coronal plane divides the body into front and back (anterior and posterior) parts.

- (2) Sagittal: Correct. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves.

- (3) Vertical: Incorrect. This plane divides the body into left and right parts, but it is not the correct anatomical term.

- (4) Transverse: Incorrect. The transverse plane divides the body into top and bottom (superior and inferior) parts.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (2) Sagittal, as it divides the body into left and right parts.
Quick Tip: The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, a common reference point in anatomical studies.

Step 1: Understanding axis terminology.

Axis terminology describes the relative position of structures or directions of movement in the body. These terms are essential for understanding body orientation and movement.


Step 2: Analyzing the terms.

- (A) Anterior/Ventral: This refers to the front of the body. The correct match is (II) Towards the front of the body.

- (B) Inferior/Caudal: This refers to the lower part of the body. The correct match is (IV) Towards the lower part of the body.

- (C) Lateral: This refers to the outer side of the body, away from the midline. The correct match is (I) Away from the midline of the body (outer side).

- (D) Posterior/Dorsal: This refers to the back of the body. The correct match is (III) Towards the back of the body.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct matching is (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).
Quick Tip: Understanding axis terminology is key to describing the relative positions of body parts in anatomical studies.

Step 1: Understanding therapeutic exercise interventions.

Therapeutic exercise interventions include activities that improve strength, flexibility, endurance, and joint mobility. These exercises address physical impairments and improve function.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Aerobic conditioning and reconditioning: Correct. These exercises are designed to improve cardiovascular endurance and overall physical conditioning.

- (2) Skin hypomobility: Incorrect. Skin hypomobility is not typically addressed by therapeutic exercise interventions, which target muscles, joints, and cardiovascular functions.

- (3) Stretching techniques: Correct. Stretching techniques, including muscle-lengthening and joint mobilization, are key components of therapeutic exercise.

- (4) Neuromuscular control, inhibition, and facilitation techniques: Correct. These techniques improve movement efficiency and posture, essential for rehabilitation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (2) Skin hypomobility, as it is not typically related to therapeutic exercise interventions.
Quick Tip: Therapeutic exercise interventions focus on strength, flexibility, mobility, and function restoration, rather than directly addressing skin conditions.

Step 1: Understanding the patient management process.

Effective patient management involves the correct order of actions, beginning with diagnosis and leading to prognosis. These steps guide clinical decision-making and ensure that interventions are performed at the right time.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (A) Diagnosis: The first step. A correct diagnosis is essential for determining appropriate interventions.

- (B) Examination: This follows diagnosis to gather detailed patient information.

- (C) Interventions: After understanding the diagnosis and examination, interventions are implemented to improve function.

- (D) Evaluation: After interventions, the effectiveness of the treatment is evaluated.

- (E) Prognosis: Finally, prognosis refers to predicting the likely outcomes based on the interventions and evaluations.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct order of components in patient management is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E). Thus, the correct answer is (1).
Quick Tip: The proper order of patient management involves diagnosis, examination, intervention, evaluation, and prognosis.

Step 1: Understanding accommodating resistance.

Accommodating resistance refers to exercises where resistance varies based on the force exerted by the muscle. It ensures that muscles are constantly challenged throughout the range of motion. Isokinetic exercises are an example where this principle is applied.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Isokinetic exercise: Correct. These exercises use equipment that adjusts resistance according to the force exerted by the muscle.

- (2) Constant velocity exercise: Correct. This form of exercise maintains a constant speed, often utilizing accommodating resistance.

- (3) Exercises with preset velocity of muscle shortening or lengthening: Correct. These exercises follow a predetermined velocity, which can be adapted for varying resistance.

- (4) Isotonic exercise: Incorrect. Isotonic exercises involve constant resistance through the full range of motion and do not adjust according to muscle force.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (4) Isotonic exercise, as it does not feature accommodating resistance.
Quick Tip: Isotonic exercises have constant resistance, unlike isokinetic exercises where resistance adjusts to the muscle's force.

Step 1: Understanding Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS).

DOMS is typically the result of eccentric muscle contractions where the muscle lengthens under tension. The severity increases with factors like intensity and velocity.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Concentric exercise training at high velocity: Incorrect. Concentric exercises (muscle shortening) usually cause less soreness than eccentric exercises.

- (2) Eccentric exercise training at high velocity: Correct. High-velocity eccentric exercises generate the most microtears in muscle fibers, leading to maximal soreness.

- (3) Concentric exercise training at slow velocity: Incorrect. Concentric exercises cause less muscle damage, leading to milder soreness.

- (4) Eccentric exercise training at slow velocity: Incorrect. While eccentric training is generally linked to DOMS, high-velocity movements tend to cause more severe soreness.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (2), as high-velocity eccentric training results in the most severe DOMS.
Quick Tip: Eccentric exercises at high velocity cause the most muscle strain, resulting in delayed onset muscle soreness.

Step 1: Understanding Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF).

PNF is a technique used in rehabilitation that aims to improve muscle strength and flexibility by stimulating proprioceptive receptors. The principles include increasing muscle activation, improving coordination, and using specific patterns of movement.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (A) To stimulate the maximum number of motor units into activity: Incorrect. PNF focuses more on the intensity of the stimuli and the pattern of muscle activation, not just the quantity of motor units.

- (B) The functioning of these is dependent on the degree of excitation of the motor neurons: Correct. PNF enhances neural activation, and the degree of motor neuron excitation is key in facilitating movement.

- (C) The patterns of movement associated with this technique were evolved from the basic idea of overstretching muscles to stimulate the activity of the muscle spindles: Correct. This reflects the stretch reflex principle inherent in PNF techniques.

- (D) The strength of a muscle contraction is directly proportional to the number of activated motor units, which obey the 'all or none' law: Correct. PNF relies on recruitment of motor units to facilitate stronger contractions.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (1), as statements (B), (C), and (D) correctly describe the basis of PNF.
Quick Tip: PNF techniques emphasize increasing motor unit recruitment and improving coordination through specific movement patterns.

Step 1: Understanding the purpose of walking aids in gait training.

Walking aids like crutches or walkers are used in rehabilitation programs to assist patients in regaining walking abilities. These aids are used based on the patient's weight-bearing capacity, gait cycle, and overall mobility.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (A) A progression from parallel bars to the minimum necessary: Correct. This statement outlines the proper progressive reduction in support as patients gain strength and confidence.

- (B) Gait training is complete until the patient can walk forwards, backwards, sideways, and in a diagonal direction: Correct. A full range of walking functions must be regained to complete gait training.

- (C) A permanent aid for patients with no possibility of improvement: Incorrect. Walking aids are usually used temporarily, not permanently, unless there is a permanent disability.

- (D) A temporary measure for patients with lower limb injuries: Correct. These aids are often used temporarily during recovery.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1), as it correctly identifies the appropriate steps in gait training and walking aid usage.
Quick Tip: Walking aids in gait training are used as temporary support until the patient regains the ability to walk independently.

Step 1: Understanding Gram staining process.

In Gram staining, bacteria are subjected to a series of staining reagents that help classify them as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative.

- Crystal violet is used as the primary stain, which initially stains all bacteria.

- Iodine solution is used as a mordant to fix the crystal violet stain in the cell.

- Alcohol is then used to decolorize the smear, allowing differentiation between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

- Safranin is used as a counterstain to color Gram-negative bacteria pink, as they lose the initial crystal violet stain.


Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, the correct staining reagents used in the Gram staining process are (A) Crystal violet, (B) Methyl orange, (C) Iodine solution, and (D) Alcohol.
Quick Tip: Remember: The Gram stain procedure involves crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, and safranin to differentiate bacterial types.

Step 1: Understanding non-communicable diseases.

Non-communicable diseases (NCDs) are diseases that are not passed from person to person and are often chronic in nature.

The major contributors to morbidity in NCDs are cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes, and hypertension.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Tuberculosis: Although it is a major cause of morbidity, it is a communicable disease, not non-communicable.

- (B) Diabetes Mellitus: This is a leading cause of morbidity due to metabolic disturbances.

- (C) Hypertension: Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular diseases and leads to significant morbidity.

- (D) Cancer: Cancer is one of the top contributors to morbidity and mortality worldwide.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The leading causes of morbidity include (B) Diabetes Mellitus, (C) Hypertension, and (D) Cancer, but not (A) Tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct answer is (4).
Quick Tip: NCDs like cancer, diabetes, and hypertension contribute significantly to global morbidity and mortality.

Step 1: Understanding non-parametric tools.

Non-parametric tests are statistical tests that do not assume a specific distribution for the data.

They are often used when the data does not meet the assumptions required for parametric tests.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Independent t-test: This is a parametric test used for comparing means between two independent groups.

- (B) Mann Whitney u-test: This is a non-parametric test used for comparing differences between two independent groups based on ranks.

- (C) Friedman’s test: This is a non-parametric test used to detect differences in treatments across multiple test attempts.

- (D) Kruskal Wallis test: This is a non-parametric test used to compare more than two independent groups based on ranks.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct non-parametric tests are (B) Mann Whitney u-test, (C) Friedman’s test, and (D) Kruskal Wallis test.
Quick Tip: Non-parametric tests are useful when data does not meet normality assumptions, and they often use ranks rather than raw data.

Step 1: Hydrotherapy benefits.

Hydrotherapy is the use of water for therapeutic purposes.

It helps in pain relief, improving circulation, and restoring functional activities.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (A) Pain relief: Hydrotherapy is known for its soothing effects and pain relief, especially for musculoskeletal conditions.

- (B) Increase in swelling: This is not a therapeutic effect; in fact, hydrotherapy often helps reduce swelling.

- (C) Improvement in circulation: Warm water can help in enhancing blood flow and circulation.

- (D) Restoration of functional activities: Hydrotherapy can help individuals regain strength and mobility.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct therapeutic effects of hydrotherapy are pain relief, improvement in circulation, and restoration of functional activities. Therefore, the correct answer is (4).
Quick Tip: Hydrotherapy is often used for rehabilitation as it combines pain relief and improving mobility through water's properties.

Step 1: Understanding Apley’s grind test.

Apley’s grind test is a clinical examination technique used to detect tears in the meniscus of the knee.

The test involves the patient lying on their stomach while the examiner applies axial load and rotation to the knee.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Meniscus tear: Correct, the test is designed to assess for meniscus injuries.

- (2) Medial collateral ligament tear: This would not be identified through Apley’s grind test.

- (3) Posterior collateral ligament tear: PCL tears require different tests such as the posterior drawer test.

- (4) Anterior collateral ligament tear: ACL tears are assessed through tests like the Lachman test, not Apley’s grind.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Therefore, Apley’s grind test is used specifically to diagnose a meniscus tear. The correct answer is (1).
Quick Tip: Apley’s grind test is specifically useful for diagnosing meniscus tears in the knee.

Step 1: Understanding blood group antigens.

Blood group antigens are specific molecules present on the surface of red blood cells, determining blood types.

These antigens are species-specific, meaning that they are found within a particular species, such as humans.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (1) Species specific: Correct. Blood group antigens are specific to a species. In humans, these include ABO and Rh antigens.

- (2) Isospecific: This refers to antigens shared by members of the same species, but not specific to blood groups.

- (3) Autospecific: This term is not commonly used in relation to blood group antigens.

- (4) Organ specific: Antigens are not generally specific to individual organs but rather the species.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Blood group antigens are species-specific, and the correct answer is (1).
Quick Tip: Blood group antigens are critical for blood transfusions and organ transplants, as matching them between donor and recipient is vital.

Step 1: Understanding the Rule of 9's.

The Rule of 9’s is a method used to estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns. The body is divided into regions, each contributing 9% or a multiple of 9% of TBSA.


Step 2: Analysis of body regions.

- The head accounts for 9%.

- The hand accounts for 1%.

- The lower back also accounts for 9%.

- The genitals account for only 1% in the Rule of 9's.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The least percentage of body surface area in the Rule of 9's is allocated to the genitals. Therefore, the correct answer is (2).
Quick Tip: In the Rule of 9's for burns, the genitals account for only 1% of the total body surface area.

Step 1: Overview of antibodies.

Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are proteins produced by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects like bacteria and viruses.


Step 2: IgG is the most abundant antibody.

- IgG is the most abundant antibody in human serum, accounting for about 75-80% of all immunoglobulins.

- IgA is found in mucosal areas, such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.

- IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response but is less abundant than IgG.

- IgE is associated with allergic responses and is present in much smaller quantities.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The most abundant antibody found in serum is IgG. Therefore, the correct answer is (2).
Quick Tip: IgG is the most prevalent antibody in the serum and plays a key role in immune defense.

Step 1: Understanding types of immunity.

Immunity can be classified into several types, including passive and active immunity.

- Artificial active immunity is acquired through inoculation with a vaccine containing live organisms or their components with attenuated (weakened) virulence. This stimulates the immune system to produce an immune response without causing disease.

- Passive immunity is the transfer of antibodies from an external source, either naturally (from mother to child) or artificially (through antibody injections).

- Natural active immunity occurs when the body is exposed to a pathogen and develops immunity after infection.

- Local immunity refers to immune responses at specific body sites (e.g., mucosal immunity).


Step 2: Conclusion.

The immunity acquired through inoculation with an attenuated organism is classified as artificial active immunity. Therefore, the correct answer is (1).
Quick Tip: Vaccination is a key example of artificial active immunity, where the immune system is exposed to a weakened pathogen to build immunity.

Step 1: Understanding the vaccines.

Vaccines are biological preparations that provide acquired immunity to specific diseases. They typically consist of killed or weakened (attenuated) forms of pathogens.


Step 2: Analyze each vaccine and its contents.

- (A) Typhoid vaccine: The Typhoid vaccine contains killed bacteria, which helps in the development of immunity against *Salmonella typhi*.

- (B) Typhus vaccine: This vaccine contains killed rickettsia, as typhus is caused by *Rickettsia* bacteria.

- (C) Measles vaccine: This vaccine contains attenuated (weakened) viruses, which induce immunity without causing disease.

- (D) Smallpox vaccine: The smallpox vaccine contains killed viruses, as it helps the body fight against the *Variola* virus.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
Quick Tip: Vaccines can either contain killed organisms (bacteria or viruses) or attenuated (weakened) organisms that still stimulate the immune response.

Step 1: Understanding the pathogenesis.

Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid retention and oedema (swelling).


Step 2: Breakdown of the steps.

- (A) It leads to renal retention of sodium and water: As the heart fails, reduced blood flow triggers the kidneys to retain sodium and water, leading to fluid buildup.

- (B) It leads to hypovolemia: Fluid retention causes hypovolemia, a decrease in circulating blood volume, as the body tries to compensate for poor cardiac output.

- (C) CHF leads to reduced cardiac output: The heart’s inability to pump effectively reduces the amount of blood pumped to the organs, exacerbating symptoms.

- (D) Extra-renal (aldosterone) mechanism, intrinsic-renal mechanism ADH secretion are stimulated: The body stimulates aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to retain water and sodium in an attempt to correct the hypovolemia.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct order of occurrence is (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: In CHF, the kidneys’ response to fluid retention worsens the condition by increasing fluid overload.

Step 1: Understanding genu valgum.

Genu valgum, or knock-knees, is a condition where the knees angle inward while the lower legs remain apart. This condition affects the alignment of the lower extremity joints.


Step 2: Analyzing the effects on joints.

- (A) Coxa Vara: This condition, characterized by an abnormally angled femur, is commonly seen in individuals with genu valgum.

- (B) Pes Planus: Flat feet or collapsed arches are often observed in individuals with genu valgum due to abnormal lower extremity alignment.

- (C) Pes Cavus: This condition, characterized by high arches, may also occur due to improper lower limb mechanics, though it's less common with genu valgum.

- (D) Calcaneo valgus: This condition refers to the outward tilting of the heel, which is not typically associated with genu valgum.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) only, as these conditions are commonly associated with genu valgum.
Quick Tip: Genu valgum often leads to abnormal joint alignment, causing various musculoskeletal issues such as pes planus and coxa vara.

Step 1: Understanding the muscles and their innervations.

The muscles in the gluteal region and their innervations play a crucial role in movement and stability. Each muscle is innervated by specific nerves that facilitate their function.


Step 2: Analyzing each muscle and its nerve supply.

- (A) Gluteus maximus: It is innervated by the Inferior gluteal nerve (IV).

- (B) Piriformis: It is innervated by the Nerve to quadratus femoris (II).

- (C) Gemellus inferior: It is innervated by the Ventral rami of S1 and S2 (I).

- (D) Gluteus minimus: It is innervated by the Superior Gluteal nerve (III).


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct matching is: (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).
Quick Tip: For gluteal muscles, remember that the inferior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus maximus and the superior gluteal nerve supplies gluteus minimus and medius.

Step 1: Understanding the spinal cord tracts.

The ascending tracts of the spinal cord transmit sensory information to the brain. These include pathways for pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception.


Step 2: Analyzing each tract and its function.

- (A) Lateral spinothalamic tract: It carries pain and temperature sensation from the opposite half of the body.

- (B) Anterior spinothalamic tract: It transmits crude touch and pressure sensations from the opposite side of the body.

- (C) Fasciculus Cuneatus: It conveys fine touch and vibratory sense from the upper half of the body.

- (D) Posterior spinocerebellar tract: It transmits unconscious proprioception information to the cerebellum.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct matching is: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
Quick Tip: The spinothalamic tracts carry pain and temperature, while the posterior spinocerebellar tract carries proprioception.

Step 1: Understanding the drugs and their indications.

These drugs are used for various conditions, including pain management, spasticity, and depression. Each drug has specific indications based on its mechanism of action.


Step 2: Analyzing each drug and its indication.

- (A) Baclofen: This is a muscle relaxant used to treat spasticity.

- (B) Diclofenac: This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) is used for inflammatory pain relief.

- (C) Gabapentin: It is used for central or peripheral neurogenic pain.

- (D) Amitryptiline: It is an antidepressant used to treat depression.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct matching is: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
Quick Tip: For pain management, remember that diclofenac targets inflammatory pain, while gabapentin is used for neurogenic pain.

Step 1: Understand the chi-square test.

The chi-square test is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant association between observed and expected frequencies. It is a non-parametric test because it does not assume a normal distribution of the data.


Step 2: Analyze each option.

- (A) It is a non-parametric test: Correct. The chi-square test does not assume any underlying distribution of the data, making it a non-parametric test.

- (B) It is based on frequencies and not on parameters like mean and standard deviation: Correct. The chi-square test works with frequency data (observed vs. expected counts) and does not involve parameters such as mean and standard deviation.

- (C) It can be used when individual observations of the sample are dependent: Incorrect. The chi-square test assumes that the observations are independent. It is not appropriate for dependent observations.

- (D) It can be used for testing hypothesis but is not useful for estimation: Correct. The chi-square test is primarily used for hypothesis testing, especially for categorical data, but it does not provide parameter estimates.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) only. The chi-square test is non-parametric, based on frequencies, and is used for hypothesis testing.
Quick Tip: Chi-square tests are useful for categorical data and determining relationships between observed and expected frequencies.

Step 1: Understanding the Vrikshasana pose.

Vrikshasana, also known as the Tree Pose, is a standing posture in yoga that involves balancing on one leg with the other leg placed on the inner thigh or calf, with hands brought together in prayer position above the head.


Step 2: Analyzing the effects of the pose.

- (1) Improves breathing: Although yoga poses improve breathing, the primary benefit of Vrikshasana is balance, not breathing per se.

- (2) Gives a sense of balance: Correct. The Vrikshasana pose challenges your balance and strengthens the lower limbs, thereby enhancing physical and mental equilibrium.

- (3) Improves flexibility of the trunk: While yoga poses can improve flexibility, Vrikshasana primarily focuses on balance, not trunk flexibility.

- (4) Strengthens upper limb muscles: This pose does not significantly target the upper limbs but instead engages the legs and core for stability.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is that the major effect of Vrikshasana is to give a sense of balance. This pose is excellent for developing both physical and mental balance.
Quick Tip: In standing poses like Vrikshasana, balance is key. Focus on a steady point to help improve concentration and stability.

Step 1: Understanding the concept of protection.

Social protection is a concept that refers to the protection provided by society to individuals in the face of life’s risks and challenges, especially related to financial hardships, illness, disability, or old age.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Social welfare: Social welfare generally refers to services and programs aimed at improving the quality of life for individuals in society, but it is a broader term than the specific protection provided in times of distress.

- (2) Social security: Correct. Social security is a system of protection provided to individuals, including insurance programs, pensions, and benefits, to safeguard them from economic and social risks.

- (3) Social work: Social work refers to the profession focused on helping individuals and communities overcome challenges, but it is not the protection system itself.

- (4) Social reform: Social reform refers to changes made to improve society, but it does not directly describe the protection mechanism provided against social distress.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is Social security, which specifically refers to the protection provided by the government or society through various public measures to ensure citizens’ financial security in times of need.
Quick Tip: Social security is essential for protecting individuals from economic risks, providing financial support during times of unemployment, illness, or old age.

Step 1: Understanding Piaget's stages.

Piaget's stages of cognitive development include the sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational stages. The emergence of language is closely associated with the preoperational stage.


Step 2: Analyzing each stage.

- (1) Sensorimotor: This stage is characterized by the development of object permanence, not language. Language starts emerging later.

- (2) Concrete operational: This stage focuses on logical thinking and conservation but is too late for the emergence of language.

- (3) Preoperational: Correct. The preoperational stage (typically ages 2 to 7) is when children begin to use language, representing a critical milestone in cognitive development.

- (4) Formal operational: This stage, starting at age 11, involves abstract and hypothetical thinking but does not relate to language emergence.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (3) Preoperational, as this is when language development becomes prominent.
Quick Tip: The preoperational stage is when language acquisition begins, and children start engaging in symbolic play.

Step 1: Understanding the types of electrical currents in therapy.

Monophasic sinusoidal currents are a type of alternating current used in physical therapy. Pierre Bernard introduced these currents as diadynamic currents for therapeutic use.


Step 2: Analyzing each option.

- (1) HVPGS (High Voltage Pulse Galvanic Stimulation): HVPGS refers to high-voltage, low-frequency current used in electrotherapy, but not the type introduced by Bernard.

- (2) Galvanic Current: This is a continuous direct current, different from sinusoidal or alternating currents.

- (3) Faradic Current: This type of current is typically used in muscle stimulation but is not the monophasic sinusoidal current introduced by Pierre Bernard.

- (4) Diadynamic Currents: Correct. Diadynamic currents are monophasic sinusoidal currents, a therapeutic form of current introduced by Pierre Bernard.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (4) Diadynamic Currents, as these are the currents introduced by Pierre Bernard.
Quick Tip: Diadynamic currents are used for pain relief, muscle stimulation, and tissue repair in physical therapy.

Step 1: Understanding cardiovascular fitness recommendations.

Cardiovascular fitness is important for overall health and involves activities that increase the heart rate and improve the functioning of the heart and lungs. The American Heart Association and other health bodies recommend specific frequency, duration, and intensity levels for optimal cardiovascular health.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) 3 days/week for 40 minutes/day at an intensity of 10-11 on the RPE scale: This is too low in frequency and intensity for optimal cardiovascular fitness.

- (2) 3-5 days/week for 20-60 minutes/day at an intensity of 12-16 on the RPE scale: Correct. This recommendation falls within the optimal range for cardiovascular fitness for healthy adults, balancing duration, frequency, and intensity.

- (3) 5 days/week for 60 minutes/day at an intensity of more than 16 on the RPE scale: This intensity is too high for the majority of healthy adults and might lead to overtraining.

- (4) 3 days/week for 20 minutes/day at an intensity of 10-11 on the RPE scale: This is too low in both intensity and duration for effective cardiovascular training.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct recommendation is (2), which suggests 3-5 days a week with 20-60 minutes per session at moderate intensity.
Quick Tip: For optimal cardiovascular fitness, aim for moderate intensity (RPE 12-16) for at least 20-60 minutes, 3-5 days per week.

Step 1: Understanding the role of pressure in scar maturation.

Pressure is commonly used in the management of burn scars to reduce hypertrophy (excessive tissue growth) and to accelerate scar maturation. However, its use depends on the stage of healing.


Step 2: Analyzing each option.

- (1) The scar is less than 6 months old: Incorrect. Pressure may still be used for scars less than 6 months old if they show hypertrophy.

- (2) Wounds heal in less than 10-14 days: Correct. If a wound heals quickly in less than 10-14 days, the need for pressure to control scar hypertrophy may not be necessary.

- (3) The scar is still red and shows evidence of vascularity: Incorrect. A red, vascular scar indicates active healing, and pressure therapy may be helpful at this stage.

- (4) The skin is grafted over the wound area: Incorrect. Even after skin grafts, pressure may be necessary to minimize hypertrophic scarring.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (2), as pressure is generally not required for wounds that heal in less than 10-14 days.
Quick Tip: Pressure therapy is commonly used to manage hypertrophic scarring, but it is not required for rapidly healing wounds.

Step 1: Understanding age-related physiological changes.

As we age, several physiological changes occur in muscle fibers, motor neurons, and connective tissues, including a reduction in muscle mass, fiber size, and the number of motor neurons.


Step 2: Analyzing each option.

- (1) Reduction in size of slow twitch Type I fibres: Correct. As people age, Type I fibers, which are responsible for endurance and low-intensity activities, reduce in size.

- (2) Loss of motor neurons: Correct. Aging leads to a loss of motor neurons, which affects muscle function and coordination.

- (3) Reduction in size of fast twitch Type II fibres: Correct. Fast twitch fibers, which are responsible for quick, powerful movements, also reduce in size with age.

- (4) Increase in non-contractile tissue: Incorrect. Non-contractile tissue, such as fat and connective tissue, increases with age, but this is not typically considered a normal physiological change related to aging in the same sense as muscle and neuron changes.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (4), as the increase in non-contractile tissue is not typically considered a physiological change related to aging in muscle function.
Quick Tip: Age-related changes in muscle fibers and neurons contribute to reduced strength and coordination as we get older.

Step 1: Understanding plantarflexion and its importance.

Plantarflexion is the movement of the foot downwards, and the Achilles tendon plays a crucial role in this movement. A ruptured Achilles tendon would prevent this motion.


Step 2: Analyzing each option.

- (1) Lateral tibial torsion: Incorrect. Lateral tibial torsion affects the alignment of the leg but would not cause an absence of plantarflexion specifically.

- (2) Ruptured achilles tendon: Correct. The absence of plantarflexion on squeezing the calf muscles is a classic sign of a ruptured Achilles tendon, as the tendon is no longer intact to facilitate this movement.

- (3) Peroneal tendon dislocation: Incorrect. While peroneal tendon dislocations can cause foot instability, they typically would not prevent plantarflexion.

- (4) Anterior talofibular ligament strain: Incorrect. A strain in this ligament would affect ankle stability but not specifically the plantarflexion movement.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (2), as a ruptured Achilles tendon leads to an inability to perform plantarflexion.
Quick Tip: A ruptured Achilles tendon can severely limit foot movements such as plantarflexion and should be diagnosed promptly.

Step 1: Understanding flexor synergy.

Flexor synergy refers to a specific pattern of movements often seen in individuals with hemiplegia, particularly after a stroke. These patterns are involuntary and can hinder voluntary movements.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion: Incorrect. This does not reflect the typical movement pattern seen with stroke-induced flexor synergy.

- (2) Scapular retraction, shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist and finger extension: Incorrect. This is the opposite of the flexor synergy pattern.

- (3) Scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist and finger flexion: Correct. This represents the typical flexor synergy pattern, involving flexion at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist with associated postural changes.

- (4) Scapular retraction, shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion: Incorrect. This represents an extensor synergy rather than flexor synergy.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (3), as it accurately describes the flexor synergy pattern seen after a stroke.
Quick Tip: In hemiplegic stroke patients, understanding synergy patterns can help in developing more effective rehabilitation techniques.

Step 1: Understanding the term "tic douloureux."

Tic douloureux, also known as trigeminal neuralgia, is a condition characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp pain on one side of the face. This condition is typically caused by dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Trigeminal nerve: Correct. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensation in the face and is the most common nerve associated with tic douloureux.

- (2) Glossopharyngeal nerve: Incorrect. This nerve affects the throat and ear but is not involved in tic douloureux.

- (3) Facial nerve: Incorrect. The facial nerve controls facial muscles but does not cause the sharp, shooting pain of tic douloureux.

- (4) Trochlear nerve: Incorrect. The trochlear nerve controls eye movement, not facial sensation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1), as the trigeminal nerve is the one most commonly implicated in tic douloureux.
Quick Tip: Tic douloureux, or trigeminal neuralgia, is often triggered by minor stimuli and can be managed with medication or surgery.

Step 1: Understanding the technique.

The Active Cycle of Breathing Technique (ACBT) is a physiotherapy technique used to help individuals with respiratory conditions clear mucus from the airways. It involves breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises, and forced expiration.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Active Cycle of Breathing Technique: Correct. This technique is specifically designed to improve lung function by promoting controlled breathing and mucus clearance.

- (2) Manual Hyperinflation followed by Secretion Clearance: Incorrect. This involves mechanical assistance in breathing, but it doesn't involve the same cycles as ACBT.

- (3) Passive Cycle of Breathing Technique: Incorrect. This technique involves less active engagement from the patient, unlike the active cycle method.

- (4) Functional Breathing Technique: Incorrect. This term does not specifically refer to the technique involving the three cycles mentioned.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1), as the Active Cycle of Breathing Technique involves repeated cycles of breathing control, thoracic expansion, and forced expiration.
Quick Tip: ACBT is especially effective in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cystic fibrosis.

Step 1: Understanding affective psychotic disorders.

Affective psychotic disorders refer to conditions that involve mood disturbances along with psychotic features, such as hallucinations or delusions. Schizophrenia is a common example of such a disorder.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Schizophrenia: Correct. Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that can involve severe mood disturbances, delusions, and hallucinations.

- (2) Delusional disorder: Incorrect. This is a form of psychosis characterized by persistent delusions but without the severe mood disturbances seen in affective psychotic disorders.

- (3) Mental retardation: Incorrect. Mental retardation, now referred to as intellectual disability, is a developmental disorder and does not involve psychosis.

- (4) Bipolar disorders: Incorrect. Bipolar disorder involves mood swings but is not classified as a psychotic disorder unless psychotic features are present.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1), as schizophrenia is an affective psychotic disorder.
Quick Tip: Affective psychotic disorders often involve mood instability and psychosis, like hallucinations or delusions, as seen in schizophrenia.

Step 1: Understanding non-modifiable risk factors for COPD.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) has several risk factors, some of which are modifiable (such as smoking) and others that are non-modifiable (such as age). Non-modifiable factors cannot be changed or avoided.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Increased use of biomass fuel: Incorrect. This is a modifiable risk factor, as individuals can reduce exposure to biomass fuel.

- (2) Tobacco smoking: Incorrect. Smoking is a primary modifiable risk factor for COPD.

- (3) Increasing age: Correct. Aging is a non-modifiable risk factor for COPD, as lung function typically declines with age.

- (4) Exposure to noxious fumes at occupational settings: Incorrect. This is a modifiable risk factor, as individuals can reduce exposure to harmful substances at work.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (3), as increasing age is a non-modifiable risk factor for COPD.
Quick Tip: While some risk factors for COPD can be modified, like smoking and exposure to fumes, aging remains an unavoidable risk factor.

Step 1: Understanding types of data.

Data can be classified into different types, such as nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio. Nominal data involves categories that cannot be ordered, whereas ordinal data can be ranked. Interval and ratio data involve measurable quantities.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Interval: Incorrect. Interval data involves measurable differences between values, but blood groups are categorical and not on a numerical scale.

- (2) Ordinal: Incorrect. Ordinal data can be ranked, but blood groups are not ranked.

- (3) Nominal: Correct. Blood groups (A, B, AB, O) are categorical and cannot be ordered or ranked, making them nominal data.

- (4) Ratio: Incorrect. Ratio data involves quantities that have a true zero, such as weight or height, which is not the case for blood groups.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (3), as blood groups are an example of nominal data, being distinct categories without an inherent order.
Quick Tip: Nominal data consists of categories without any meaningful order, such as blood groups, gender, and ethnicity.

Step 1: Understanding SOAP format.

The SOAP format is used for organizing progress notes and includes four main sections: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan. Goals and expected outcomes typically appear in the "Plan" section.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Assessment: Incorrect. The Assessment section includes the healthcare professional's evaluation of the patient's condition, not the anticipated goals.

- (2) Planning: Correct. The "Plan" section contains the patient's goals, expected outcomes, and the actions that will be taken to achieve them.

- (3) Subjective: Incorrect. The Subjective section includes the patient's self-reported symptoms and concerns, not the goals or outcomes.

- (4) Objective finding: Incorrect. The Objective section includes measurable data, such as physical findings and test results, not the goals.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (2), as goals and expected outcomes are outlined in the "Plan" section of the SOAP format.
Quick Tip: In SOAP format, the "Plan" section includes anticipated goals, treatment plans, and expected outcomes for the patient.

Step 1: Understanding Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM).

EBM integrates the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values to make informed healthcare decisions. It considers the individual patient's circumstances, preferences, and health goals.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Treatment based on research evidence and clinical expertise without any regard for patient's values: Incorrect. EBM always incorporates the patient's values and preferences.

- (2) Treatment based on case-control studies: Incorrect. While case-control studies can contribute, EBM involves the integration of all high-quality evidence, not just one study design.

- (3) Integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient's unique values and circumstances: Correct. This defines EBM, which is a patient-centered approach to care.

- (4) Integration of expert opinion with clinical expertise: Incorrect. Expert opinion alone does not constitute EBM, as it lacks the integration of research evidence and patient values.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (3), as EBM integrates research, clinical expertise, and patient-specific factors.
Quick Tip: EBM is a comprehensive approach that combines research, clinical expertise, and patient values for optimal decision-making.

Step 1: Understanding variables in research.

In research, dependent variables are the outcomes being measured, while independent variables are the factors that are manipulated or studied for their effect on the dependent variables.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Dependent: Correct. Balance and gait are the outcomes being measured in this study, making them dependent variables that depend on the effect of knee bracing.

- (2) Independent: Incorrect. The independent variable is knee bracing, as it is the factor being manipulated or studied for its effect on balance and gait.

- (3) Criterion: Incorrect. Criterion variables are often used for measurement scales or benchmarks, but they are not relevant to the context here.

- (4) Extraneous: Incorrect. Extraneous variables are uncontrolled factors that can affect the dependent variable, but they are not the main focus of the study.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1), as balance and gait are the dependent variables in the study examining the effect of knee bracing.
Quick Tip: In research, dependent variables are the outcomes being measured, while independent variables are the factors being manipulated.

Step 1: Understanding the role of interventions for airway clearance.

Airway clearance interventions are used to remove mucus or secretions from the airways to improve breathing. The removal of secretions is critical for individuals with respiratory conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or pneumonia.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Suctioning: Correct. Suctioning is the most direct intervention for removing airway secretions, especially when they are collected centrally in the trachea or upper airways.

- (2) Incentive spirometry: Incorrect. Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and lung expansion but does not directly remove secretions.

- (3) Manual percussion: Incorrect. While percussion can help loosen secretions, it is not as effective in removing them as suctioning.

- (4) Pursed lip breathing: Incorrect. Pursed lip breathing helps improve ventilation and reduces shortness of breath but does not directly assist in secretions removal.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (1), as suctioning is the most effective way to clear secretions that have accumulated centrally in the airways.
Quick Tip: Suctioning is a key technique for clearing airway secretions, especially when they are difficult to expel through coughing.

Step 1: Understanding the condition.

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head movements, such as turning in bed or bending over. It is caused by dislodged otoconia (calcium crystals) in the inner ear.


Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- (1) Vestibular Neuritis: Incorrect. Vestibular neuritis typically presents with acute, persistent vertigo, but it does not involve position-dependent symptoms.

- (2) Meniere's Disease: Incorrect. Meniere's disease involves episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, but it does not typically present with positional vertigo.

- (3) Migraine: Incorrect. While migraines can be associated with dizziness, they usually do not cause the specific positional vertigo symptoms described.

- (4) Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo: Correct. BPPV is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms, as it is triggered by specific movements of the head.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (4), as BPPV is the condition that causes vertigo triggered by changes in head position, such as the activities described.
Quick Tip: Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo can be treated with repositioning maneuvers like the Epley maneuver to reposition the displaced otoconia.