CUET PG Material Science and Technology 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Oct 1, 2025

The CUET PG Material Science and Technology exam in 2025 will be conducted between 13th May and 3rd June, and candidates will be able to download the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF after the exam. The test assesses a candidate’s knowledge in material structures, thermodynamics, kinetics, mechanical behavior of materials, nanotechnology, and current advancements in material sciences.

Students must attempt 75 questions in 60 minutes, with a total of 300 marks. Each correct answer is awarded 4 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect response.

CUET PG Material Science and Technology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Material Science and Technology Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

 


CUET PG Material Science and Technology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The number of atoms per unit cell of SCC are:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 2:

Which of the following statements are correct:

A. In SC structure a = 2r
B. In SC structure a = r/2
C. In BCC structure a = \( 4r/\sqrt{3} \)
D. In FCC structure a = \( 2\sqrt{2} r \)

Where a is a lattice parameter and r is the atomic radius.

  • (A) A, C and D
  • (B) A, B and C
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D

Question 3:

Which statements are correct for edge dislocation?

A. An edge dislocation moves in the direction of the Burger vector.
B. An edge dislocation involves an extra row of atoms above the slip plane.
C. An edge of the atomic plane is formed internal of the crystal.
D. The Burger vector of an edge dislocation is parallel to the dislocation line.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 4:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 5:

Which of the following relations are correct for the cubic crystal:

A. a = b \( \neq \) c
B. a = b = c
C. \( \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ \)
D. \( \alpha \neq \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) B and D only
  • (D) A and D only

Question 6:

Which of the following symmetry does not exist:

  • (A) one fold symmetry
  • (B) two fold symmetry
  • (C) four fold symmetry
  • (D) five fold symmetry

Question 7:

Copper has FCC structure with a lattice constant 3.61 Å. The radius of the copper atom is:

  • (A) 1.28 Å
  • (B) 1.26 Å
  • (C) 1.23 Å
  • (D) 1.29 Å

Question 8:

The surface defects are two-dimensional defects, which have:

A. Grain boundaries
B. Tilt boundaries
C. Twin boundaries
D. Stacking boundaries

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 9:

Vacancies of the crystal may arise due to:

  • (A) thermal vibrations
  • (B) optical vibrations
  • (C) quantum vibrations
  • (D) vacuum fluctuations

Question 10:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

Question 11:

The energies involved in the process of domain growth are:

A. Exchange energy
B. Anisotropic energy
C. Domain Wall energy
D. Magnetostrictive energy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 12:

The potential energy of a system of two atoms is given by the expression \( U = -A/r^2 + B/r^{10} \). A stable molecule is formed with the release of 8.0 eV of energy, when the interatomic distance is 2.8 Å. The values of A and B are:

  • (A) A = \(1.22 \times 10^{-37}\) J m\(^2\) and B = \(9.52 \times 10^{-115}\) J m\(^{10}\)
  • (B) A = \(1.22 \times 10^{-23}\) J m\(^2\) and B = \(1.52 \times 10^{-115}\) J m\(^{10}\)
  • (C) A = \(1.22 \times 10^{-23}\) J m\(^2\) and B = \(2.52 \times 10^{-115}\) J m\(^{10}\)
  • (D) A = \(1.22 \times 10^{-27}\) J m\(^2\) and B = \(3.53 \times 10^{-115}\) J m\(^{10}\)

Question 13:

The steps involved in determining the Miller indices are:

A. Take the reciprocal of these intercepts.
B. Simplify the fraction.
C. Enclose the obtained numbers into parentheses.
D. Find the intercepts of the plane on the crystallographic axes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, D, C, B
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) D, A, B, C

Question 14:

The correct statements about SC lattice are:

A. The number of atoms per unit cell is 1
B. Its packing factor is 0.52
C. Iron is an example of SC lattice
D. Its Coordination Number is 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, B and D only

Question 15:

Diamond exhibits which type of structures:

  • (A) Hexagonal and orthorhombic
  • (B) Orthorhombic and tetragonal
  • (C) Trigonal and monoclinic
  • (D) Cubic and hexagonal

Question 16:

The vector form of Bragg's law is used in the construction of:

  • (A) Brillouin zone
  • (B) Extended Zone
  • (C) Reduced Zone
  • (D) Periodic zone

Question 17:

In Laue's technique of X-ray diffraction, a single crystal is held stationary and the beam of white radiation of wavelength \(\lambda\) is inclined at which condition with glancing angle (\(\theta\)):

  • (A) \(\theta\) is fixed while \(\lambda\) varies
  • (B) \(\lambda\) is fixed while \(\theta\) varies
  • (C) \(\lambda\) is fixed while both \(\theta\) and distance varies
  • (D) \(\theta\) is fixed while both \(\lambda\) and distance varies

Question 18:

The shortest wavelength, present in X-rays produced by an accelerating potential of 50kV, is:

  • (A) 25 Å
  • (B) 2.5 Å
  • (C) 0.25 Å
  • (D) 0.025 Å

Question 19:

The number of distinct space groups possible in 3-dimensions is:

  • (A) 240
  • (B) 220
  • (C) 230
  • (D) 250

Question 20:

The coordination number and volume of unit cell of hexagonal closed packed structure are respectively:

  • (A) 6 and \( \left(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2\right)c^2 \)
  • (B) 8 and \( \left(\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{5}a^2\right)c^3 \)
  • (C) 10 and \( \left(\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{5}a^2\right)c^2 \)
  • (D) 12 and \( \left(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2}a^2\right)c \)

Question 21:

Which type of liquid crystal has its structure twisted about the helical axis lying perpendicular to the orientation of molecules?

  • (A) Nematic liquid crystal
  • (B) Smetic liquid crystal
  • (C) Lytotropic liquid crystal
  • (D) Cholesteric liquid crystal

Question 22:

The magnitude of the reciprocal lattice vector is related to interplaner spacing \(d_{hkl}\):

  • (A) proportional to \(d_{hkl}\)
  • (B) inversely proportional to \(d_{hkl}\)
  • (C) proportional to \((d_{hkl})^2\)
  • (D) inversely proportional to \((d_{hkl})^2\)

Question 23:

Inter-planer spacing for a (034) plane in a simple cubic, whose lattice constant is \(4.5 \times 10^{-10}\) m, is:

  • (A) \(9 \times 10^{-10}\) m
  • (B) \(9 \times 10^{-11}\) m
  • (C) \(8 \times 10^{-10}\) m
  • (D) \(10^{-10}\) m

Question 24:

The reciprocal lattice for a body centered cubic crystal is:

  • (A) body centered cubic crystal
  • (B) face centered cubic crystal
  • (C) simple cubic crystal
  • (D) diamond structure

Question 25:

The value of specific heat at constant volume (\(C_V\)) for diatomic molecules is:

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{2}R \)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{3}R \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7}{2}R \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{2}R \)

Question 26:

According to the Entropy hypothesis, which one of the following statements is correct:

  • (A) Entropy is intensive property and entropy of system is sum of entropy of its parts.
  • (B) Entropy can be produced, or in the limit of a reversible process be conserved, but entropy can never be destroyed.
  • (C) Entropy is not transferred with heat, but there is entropy transfer associated with energy transfer as work.
  • (D) Entropy can not measures the amount of microscopic randomness.

Question 27:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 28:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 29:

Which of the following are the correct statements about laws of thermodynamics:

A. The first law does not indicate the direction in which the change can occur.
B. The first law indicates the direction in which the change can occur.
C. The second law does not indicate the direction in which the change occurs.
D. The second law indicates the direction in which the change can occur.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 30:

Select the correct sequence:

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) B, C, A, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 31:

How does the gas constant R is related to the universal gas constant \(\bar{R}\) and molecular mass M?

  • (A) \( R = \frac{\bar{R}^2}{M} \)
  • (B) \( R = \frac{\bar{R}}{M^2} \)
  • (C) \( R = \frac{\bar{R}}{M} \)
  • (D) \( R = \frac{\bar{R}^2}{M^3} \)

Question 32:

Choose the correct sequence of operations in the Carnot cycle.

A. Isothermal expansion of gas.
B. Isothermal compression of gas.
C. Adiabatic compression of gas.
D. Adiabatic expansion of gas.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) A, D, B, C

Question 33:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Question 34:

The speed of sound in a fluid is the velocity at which a weak pressure wave propagates in the medium.

  • (A) Isothermally
  • (B) Adiabatically
  • (C) Isobarically
  • (D) Isentropically

Question 35:

The ideal gas, which is a model for gas used in constant volume gas thermometers, for which P = \(\rho\)RT. This equation illustrates that there are only ___________ independent intensive thermodynamic properties for a simple fluid.

  • (A) one
  • (B) two
  • (C) three
  • (D) four

Question 36:

The breaking stress of a wire depends on:

  • (A) length of the wire
  • (B) radius of the wire
  • (C) material of the wire
  • (D) shape of the cross-section of the wire

Question 37:

Under the elastic limit, Poisson's ratio is:

  • (A) The ratio of the lateral strain to the longitudinal strain
  • (B) The ratio of the longitudinal strain to the lateral strain
  • (C) The ratio of the lateral stress to the longitudinal stress
  • (D) The ratio of the longitudinal stress to the lateral stress

Question 38:

The elastic energy density of a stretched wire is given by:

  • (A) Stress \(\times\) strain
  • (B) stress/ strain
  • (C) 1/2 \(\times\) stress \(\times\) strain
  • (D) strain/stress

Question 39:

Which of the following option is correct related to the application of elastic hysteresis?

  • (A) shock absorber
  • (B) eddy current absorber
  • (C) shock transmitter
  • (D) eddy current transmitter

Question 40:

Which statements are true for total internal reflection?

A. The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.
B. light goes from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium.
C. light goes from an optically rarer medium to an optically denser medium.
D. The critical angle depends on the refractive index of both media.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 41:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (B) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (C) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 42:

Which statements are true about wave propagation through a medium:

A. Frequency changes in a non-linear medium but remains constant in a linear medium.
B. Frequency changes in a linear medium but remains constant in a non-linear medium.
C. R + T = 1, where R is the reflection coefficient and T is the transmission coefficient
D. R + T \(>\) 1, where R is the reflection coefficient and T is the transmission coefficient

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 43:

Paramagnetic materials behaves as diamagnetic materials :

  • (A) above Curie temperature
  • (B) below Curie temperature
  • (C) at normal temperature
  • (D) at very high temperature

Question 44:

What is the effect of temperature on magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials?

  • (A) increases with increasing temperature.
  • (B) remains unchanged with increasing temperature.
  • (C) decreases with increasing temperature.
  • (D) Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases depending on the environment.

Question 45:

Domain theory explains:

  • (A) diamagnetism
  • (B) paramagnetism
  • (C) ferromagnetism
  • (D) superconductivity

Question 46:

Antiferromagnetic materials have magnetic susceptibility in the range:

  • (A) \(-10^{-3}\) to \(-10^{-5}\)
  • (B) \(10^{-2}\) to \(10^{-5}\)
  • (C) \(-10^{2}\) to \(-10^{5}\)
  • (D) \(10^{2}\) to \(10^{5}\)

Question 47:

Which of the following is true for hard magnetic materials:

  • (A) both coercivity and retentivity are high
  • (B) coercivity is high and retentivity is low
  • (C) both coercivity and retentivity are low
  • (D) coercivity is low and retentivity is high

Question 48:

The density of zinc is \(7.13 \times 10^3\) kg/m\(^3\) and its atomic weight is 65.4. The fermi energy of Zinc is:
(Given that the effective mass of the electron in zinc is \(0.85m_e\))

  • (A) 9.43 eV
  • (B) 4.93 eV
  • (C) 94.3 eV
  • (D) 49.3 eV

Question 49:

In 3-dimensional system, the mean energy of an electron in electron gas at absolute zero is _____________ of fermi energy, \(E_f(0)\) at absolute zero.

  • (A) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{4} \)

Question 50:

Which of the following statements are correct for the Sommerfeld model:

A. The free electrons are valence electrons of the composing atoms.
B. The potential energy of an electron at rest inside the metal is assumed to be higher than that of an electron outside the metal.
C. In this model, the mutual repulsion between the electrons is neglected.
D. The potential energy for an electron is periodic.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and C only

Question 51:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In the absence of an electric field, the electron gas is in an equilibrium state described by equilibrium distribution functions, viz the fermi-Dirac distribution function for a degenerate electron gas and Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution function for a non-degenerate electron gas.

Reason (R): In a conductor, the number of electrons moving in opposite directions is always the same, their average velocity in any direction is zero and consequently, the distribution functions are symmetric about the axis of ordinates.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) (A) is false but (R) is true.
  • (B) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 52:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 53:

According to Weidemann-Franz-Lorentz Law, the theoretical value of Lorentz number (L) for metals is:

  • (A) \(2.45 \times 10^{-10}\) Watt ohm/deg\(^2\)
  • (B) \(2.45 \times 10^{-18}\) Watt ohm/deg\(^2\)
  • (C) \(2.45 \times 10^{-8}\) Watt ohm/deg\(^2\)
  • (D) \(2.45 \times 10^{-14}\) Watt ohm/deg\(^2\)

Question 54:

The effective density of states of electrons (\(N_c\)) at the conduction band edge of the intrinsic semiconductor varies with temperature, as:

  • (A) \(T^{2/3}\)
  • (B) \(T^{3/2}\)
  • (C) \(T^{4/3}\)
  • (D) \(T^{5/2}\)

Question 55:

Which current does not contribute to a uniformly doped semiconductor:

  • (A) Single-Phase Current
  • (B) Drift Current
  • (C) Diffusion Current
  • (D) Direct Current

Question 56:

For temperature greater than 0 K, the fermi level is the level where the probability of occupation of electrons is:

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/6
  • (C) 1/8
  • (D) 1/4

Question 57:

According to the Bloch theorem, which of the following equations is the correct form for Bloch functions:

  • (A) \( \psi(x) = e^{\pm ikx} + u_k(x) \)
  • (B) \( \psi(x) = e^{\pm ikx} - u_k(x) \)
  • (C) \( \Psi(x) = e^{\pm ikx \cdot r} u_k(x,r) \)
  • (D) \( \psi(\mathbf{r}) = e^{\pm i\mathbf{k} \cdot \mathbf{r}} u_k(\mathbf{r}) \)

Question 58:

In the Kronig penny Model, the energy of the lowest band at wave vector k = 0 is given by \( E = \frac{h^2 P}{4\pi^2 m a^2} \). This value of energy holds for which condition of Kronig penny potential (P):

  • (A) P >> 1
  • (B) P << -1
  • (C) P = 1
  • (D) P << 1

Question 59:

Choose the correct statement for the first Brillouin zone in two dimensions:

A. The region in k space that the electrons can occupy without being diffracted is called the First Brillouin zone.
B. For k < \(\pi\)/a electrons can not move freely in any direction inside the square without being diffracted.
C. For k = \(\pi\)/a electrons are prevented from moving in the x or y directions due to diffraction.
D. For k > \(\pi\)/a electrons can move perpendicularly inside the square.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 60:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
  • (C) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 61:

The effective mass of an electron is _______________ in the lower part of the band and _______________ near the zone boundary (k\(\sim\)\(\pi\)/a).

  • (A) positive and negative
  • (B) negative and positive
  • (C) positive and increases
  • (D) negative and decreases

Question 62:

In which type of metals, there is overlapping of valence band with the conduction band?

  • (A) Monovalent metals
  • (B) Divalent metals
  • (C) Trivalent metals
  • (D) Tetravalent metals

Question 63:

The electronic contribution of specific heat of copper at 300K is:
(Given that the fermi energy of copper is 7.05eV, and it is assumed to be temperature independent)

  • (A) 210 J kmol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 165 J kmol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 190 J kmol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 150 J kmol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\)

Question 64:

The characteristic length of nano-materials is:

  • (A) between 200-300 nm
  • (B) between 300-400 nm
  • (C) less than 100 nm
  • (D) greater than 500 nm

Question 65:

Surface area to volume ratio of materials:

  • (A) Decreases with decrease in characteristic dimension of materials
  • (B) Increases with decrease in characteristic dimension of materials
  • (C) No effect of characteristics dimension of materials
  • (D) Increases with increase in characteristic dimension of materials

Question 66:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
  • (D) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Question 67:

Electronic magic numbers of atoms are:

A. 2
B. 15
C. 10
D. 18

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, C and D only

Question 68:

As the particle size reduces, the optical absorption spectra shifts towards:

  • (A) Red
  • (B) Green
  • (C) Blue
  • (D) Yellow

Question 69:

Carbon nanotube shows magneto-resistive effects:

  • (A) at high temperature
  • (B) at low temperature
  • (C) at room temperature
  • (D) at very high temperature

Question 70:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (C) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Question 71:

Lithography is:

  • (A) Top-down method used in preparation of nanostructure
  • (B) Bottom-up method used in preparation of nanostructure
  • (C) Top-down method used in preparation of bulk structure
  • (D) Bottom-up method used in preparation of bulk structure

Question 72:

Scanning Tunneling Microscopy is based on:

  • (A) Classical -mechanical phenomenon
  • (B) Quantum -mechanical phenomenon
  • (C) Mechanical Phenomenon
  • (D) Classical phenomenon

Question 73:

Which statement is true for Scanning Tunneling Microscopy:

  • (A) Tunneling current between the surface and the probe
  • (B) Alternating current between the surface and the probe
  • (C) The electromagnetic radiation between the surface and the probe
  • (D) Direct current between the surface and the probe

Question 74:

Atomic Force Microscopy is a modified version of:

  • (A) Scanning Electron Microscopy
  • (B) Transmission Electron Microscopy
  • (C) Positron Emmision Tomography
  • (D) Scanning Tunneling Microscopy

Question 75:

Atomic Force Microscopy monitors:

  • (A) Current between the surface and the probe
  • (B) Force between the surface and the probe
  • (C) Electromagnetic radiation between the surface and the probe
  • (D) distance between the surface and the probe

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