CUET PG Life Science 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Oct 3, 2025

The CUET PG Life Science 2025 exam will be held between 13th May and 3rd June. After the exam, candidates will be able to access the official question paper, answer key, and solution PDF for download and review. This exam evaluates a candidate’s understanding of cell biology, molecular biology, biochemistry, genetics, immunology, evolution, ecology, plant and animal physiology, and other key areas of life sciences.

Candidates must answer 75 questions in 60 minutes. The paper carries 300 marks, following the CUET PG marking scheme of +4 for correct and -1 for incorrect answers.

CUET PG Life Science 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Life Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

 


CUET PG Life Science 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

To observe the specific part of a tissue section under compound microscope, the contrast can be increased by:

  • (A) Staining
  • (B) Changing magnification of the microscope
  • (C) Changing microscope resolution
  • (D) Use of fluorescence dyes

Question 2:

Which of the following will be the part of the pellet, when tissue cells are homogenized and centrifuged at 1000g for 10 min.?

  • (A) Microsomes
  • (B) Mitochondria
  • (C) Nuclei
  • (D) Ribosomes

Question 3:

Arrange the following DNA fragments A, B, C, D separated after Gel Electrophoresis in increasing order of number of their base pairs

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, D, C, B
  • (C) B, C, D, A
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 4:

Which of the following is not true about gel electrophoresis?

  • (A) Gel electrophoresis can be used to separate nucleic acids or proteins.
  • (B) Agarose and polyacrylamide are routinely used in gel electrophoresis.
  • (C) In gel electrophoresis of DNA, the digested DNA fragments move toward the negative electrode of the tank.
  • (D) In gel electrophoresis of DNA, ethidium bromide, a DNA binding dye, is used to locate the DNA fragments of interest under UV light.

Question 5:

Which of the following are the types of column chromatography?

A. Paper chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Size exclusion chromatography
D. Ion-exchange chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 6:

Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine, absorb ultraviolet light. Therefore, the protein rich in these amino acids strongly absorbs the light of wavelength ___________ due to aromatic side chain of these amino acids.

  • (A) 90 nm
  • (B) 420 nm
  • (C) 550 nm
  • (D) 280 nm

Question 7:

A scientist wants to separate three protein molecules by ion-exchange chromatography. The pH of the mobile phase of the column is maintained in such a way that the protein molecule (A) has a net charge of -2, protein molecule (B) has a net charge of +2 and protein molecule (C) has a net charge of +1. Which one of the molecule/s will elute first from a cation-exchange resin?

  • (A) Protein molecule A
  • (B) Protein molecule B
  • (C) Protein molecule C
  • (D) All protein molecules elute simultaneously

Question 8:

A technique for transferring denatured DNA molecules that have been separated electrophoretically from a gel to a matrix (such as a nitrocellulose or nylon membrane) on which a hybridization assay can be performed is called

  • (A) Northern blotting
  • (B) Southern blotting
  • (C) Eastern blotting
  • (D) Western blotting

Question 9:

The DNA of the bacterial cell is protected from the cell's own restriction enzymes by the addition of methyl group (-CH3) to ___________ of cytosine.

A. 4th Carbon
B. 7th Carbon
C. 6th Carbon
D. 5th Carbon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D only
  • (B) B only
  • (C) B and D only
  • (D) B and C only

Question 10:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding prokaryotic genomic organization?

A. Most prokaryotes contain a single large circle of double stranded DNA as its genome.
B. The nucleoid is an irregularly shaped region that contains the cell's chromosome and numerous proteins.
C. Nucleoid associated proteins (NAPs) are not particularly important during cell division for the compaction of chromosome.
D. Prokaryotic genomes are much smaller as compared to eukaryotes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 11:

In humans, one of the most recognized satellite DNA sequences, found mainly in the centromere region is:

  • (A) Quinoid family
  • (B) Deltoid family
  • (C) Alphoid family
  • (D) Trepizoid family

Question 12:

Select correct statement about Euchromatin :

  • (A) Highly condensed
  • (B) Associated with active transcription
  • (C) Found outside nucleus only
  • (D) Does not replicate during S phase

Question 13:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 14:

Telomerase acts as a cellular reverse transcriptase that provides the active site for:

  • (A) RNA-dependent DNA synthesis
  • (B) DNA-dependent RNA synthesis
  • (C) RNA-dependent RNA synthesis
  • (D) DNA-dependent DNA synthesis

Question 15:

Which of the following molecule/ion is not transported/buffered by hemoglobin?

  • (A) O\(_2\)
  • (B) CO\(_2\)
  • (C) Na\(^+\)
  • (D) H\(^+\)

Question 16:

Which of the following pair of class and organism is not correctly matched?

  • (A) Polyplacophora- Chiton
  • (B) Gastropoda - Aplysia
  • (C) Monoplacophora - Chiton
  • (D) Aplacophora - Chaetoderma

Question 17:

Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the work of Erwin Chargaff?

  • (A) The base composition of DNA don't varies from one species to another.
  • (B) DNA specimens isolated from different tissues of the same species have the same base composition.
  • (C) The base composition of DNA in a given species does not change with an organism's age, nutritional state, or changing environment.
  • (D) The sum of the purine residues equals the sum of the pyrimidine residues; that is, A + G = T + C.

Question 18:

Which of the following amino acids are essential amino acids in humans:

A. Leucine
B. Lysine
C. Isoleucine
D. Serine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, and C Only
  • (B) B, C, and D Only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, C, and D Only

Question 19:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C - IV, D - II
  • (B) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 20:

The glycosidic bond between the monomers of sucrose is-

  • (A) Gal(1\(\beta \rightarrow \beta\)4)Glc
  • (B) Fru(4\(\beta \rightarrow \beta\)1)Glc
  • (C) Fru(4\(\beta \rightarrow \alpha\)2)Glc
  • (D) Fru(2\(\beta \leftrightarrow \alpha\)1)Glc

Question 21:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (B) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 22:

Arrange the steps of recombinant DNA-cloning procedure in correct sequence of their occurance:

A. Joining the target DNA with cloning vector DNA by ligase enzyme.
B. Targeted DNA from a source organism is cleaved and cloning vector DNA is also cleaved by the same restriction endonuclease.
C. Selection of transformants from non-transformants through antibiotic resistance and color indicators
D. Introduction of recombinant DNA into host cell.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 23:

Tetracycline is usually mixed with the culturing medium as selective agents in selecting transformants in gene cloning technique. It acts by:

  • (A) Inhibiting cell wall formation; inactivated by \(\beta\)-lactamase
  • (B) Binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs in bacteria
  • (C) Blocking protein initiation complex formation and causes misreading during translation
  • (D) Binding to 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis.

Question 24:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 25:

For sterilization, the culture media and glasswares must be generally autoclaved at:

  • (A) 121\(^\circ\)C and 19 psi
  • (B) 121\(^\circ\)C and 15 psi
  • (C) 112\(^\circ\)C and 15 psi
  • (D) 120\(^\circ\)C and 20 psi

Question 26:

Benzoic acid or benzoates are used to preserve food from

A. Insects
B. Yeast
C. Clostridia
D. Molds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) B and D only

Question 27:

The Bdellovibrios bacteria is a _________ bacteria:

A. Gram negative
B. Predator of gram negative bacteria
C. It has a single polar flagellum
D. Reproduce by producing spores called myxospore during nutrient deficit conditions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 28:

Organisms belongs to the genus bacteroides are:

  • (A) Chemoautotrophs, aerobic and gram positive.
  • (B) Causative agents of Lyme diseases.
  • (C) Anaerobic, gram-negative, nonspore-forming rods and usually nonmotile.
  • (D) Not able to degrade cellulose, pectins, and other complex carbohydrates.

Question 29:

A method for culturing anaerobes is the GasPak System, which uses hydrogen and a ___________ catalyst to remove O\(_2\).

  • (A) Rubidium
  • (B) Lead
  • (C) Iridium
  • (D) Palladium

Question 30:

The antimicrobial agent mercuric chloride functions by

  • (A) Interfering with cellular oxidation process.
  • (B) Inhibiting the enzymes which contain the sulfhydryl group.
  • (C) Alkylation reactions with organic compounds such as enzymes and other proteins.
  • (D) Denaturation of proteins, interference with glycolysis and membrane damage.

Question 31:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 32:

The Ti plasmid and its T-DNA have been genetically modified for use as a vector for the insertion of recombinant DNA into plant chromosomes to prevent dicots from tumor diseases. The source of Ti plasmid is:

  • (A) Asparagus sp.
  • (B) Arthrobacter luteus
  • (C) Aspergillus niger
  • (D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 33:

The ability of a molecule to function as an antigen depends on its:

A. Size
B. Structural complexity
C. Chemical nature
D. Degree of foreign nature to the host

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 34:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, BII, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 35:

The cationic antimicrobial peptide, histatin is found in human's_____________.

  • (A) Synovial fluid
  • (B) Cerebrospinal fluid
  • (C) Bile juice
  • (D) Saliva

Question 36:

Convalescent sera belongs to

  • (A) Sera from healthy individual
  • (B) Sera of patients chronically infected with bacterial disease
  • (C) Sera of patients recovering from infectious disease
  • (D) Sera of patients in the latent phase of infection

Question 37:

Typhoid Vi antigen type of vaccine is:

  • (A) Bacterial products
  • (B) Killed products
  • (C) Live products
  • (D) Subunit

Question 38:

Which one of the given statement is not correct about plant viruses ?

  • (A) In viruses, the envelope proteins may even project from the envelope surface as spikes are also called as protomers
  • (B) In viruses, the envelope proteins may even project from the envelope surface as spikes are also called as concatemers
  • (C) In viruses, the envelope proteins may even project from the envelope surface as spikes are also called as peplomers.
  • (D) In viruses, the envelope proteins may even project from the envelope surface as spikes are also called as capsomers

Question 39:

Hepatitis C virus can cause liver cancer. It has:

  • (A) ds DNA genome
  • (B) ssDNA genome
  • (C) ss RNA genome
  • (D) ds RNA genome

Question 40:

The role of slow sand filters in water treatment facilities is:

  • (A) To remove water borne microbes upto a set standard.
  • (B) To remove excess ammonia present in the polluted water
  • (C) To evaluate the microbiological characteristics of water.
  • (D) To neutralize the increased pH of the water.

Question 41:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C - IV, D - III
  • (C) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 42:

The F\(_1\) hybrid (Rr Ii) is crossed with a variety double recessive for both the traits. How many types of zygotes will be produced in the cross?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 43:

Which of the following statement is wrong about C\(_4\) plants

  • (A) Kranz anatomy is present
  • (B) Initial CO\(_2\) acceptor is Phosphoenol-pyruvate (PEP)
  • (C) First stable product is 3-phosphoglycerate
  • (D) Calvin cycle operates along with the Hatch and Slack cycle.

Question 44:

The plants bloom when the light duration is less than 12 hours per day are know as.

  • (A) Short day plants
  • (B) Long day plants
  • (C) Mid day plants
  • (D) Day neutral plants

Question 45:

A rock body through which ground water flows is called

  • (A) Lake
  • (B) Artesian well
  • (C) Springs
  • (D) Aquifer

Question 46:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B- II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B- III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 47:

The left-handed helix, Z-DNA is 18 AA (1.8 nm) in diameter which contains _____________________.

  • (A) 10 bp per turn
  • (B) 11 bp per turn
  • (C) 10.4 bp per turn
  • (D) 12 bp per turn

Question 48:

Choose the correct sequence of events as they occur during a bacterial transcription

A. RNA polymerase sigma (\(\sigma\)) subunits recognizes promoters
B. DNA double helix unwind
C. Sigma (\(\sigma\)) subunit dissociates from the holoenzyme
D. Formation of hairpin secondary structure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 49:

Choose the correct answer regarding the translation of mRNA to proteins when AUG is the start codon and codes for methionine.

  • (A) All proteins have methionine as the first amino acids.
  • (B) Methionine never added at the beginning of protein synthesis.
  • (C) An enzyme can cleave the methionine amino acid from the polypeptide after synthesis.
  • (D) Methionine fall off automatically from the polypeptide just after termination step of the protein synthesis.

Question 50:

Choose the correct sequence of different regions on a typical eukaryotic DNA segment when we go from the upstream to the downstream of a transcription start point.

A. Initiation site
B. CAAT box
C. Enhancer
D. TATA box

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B, D, A, C
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 51:

Which one of the following acid is hydrophobic with non polar side chain?

  • (A) Tyrosine
  • (B) Proline
  • (C) Glutamine
  • (D) Serine

Question 52:

Choose the correct order of steps involved in nucleotide excision repair of damaged bases as their occur.

A. A fresh burst of DNA synthesis
B. Cuts are made on both the 3' side and the 5' side of the damaged area
C. The DNA is unwound producing a "bubble".
D. A DNA ligase covalent binds the fresh piece into the backbone.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) B, C, A, D
  • (C) C, B, A, D
  • (D) A, B, D, C

Question 53:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D- IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 54:

Frequency of recombination between linked genes in Drosophila is affected by

A. Distance between genes
B. Sex of heterozygotes for linked genes
C. Age of female
D. Temperature

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 55:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C - III, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C - IV, D - III

Question 56:

In general F\(_2\), F\(_3\) and the subsequent generations do not show segregation for a cytoplasmically inherited trait. This is because

  • (A) The F\(_1\) individuals generally receive plasmagenes from one parent only.
  • (B) The F\(_1\) individuals generally receive nuclear genes from one parent only.
  • (C) The F\(_1\) individuals generally receive plasmagenes from both parents.
  • (D) The F\(_1\) individuals generally receive nuclear genes from both parents.

Question 57:

Which of the given factors can affect frequency in Mendelian population?

A. Migration
B. Mutation
C. Selection
D. Random shift

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 58:

In 1963, several varieties such as Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were introduced all over the wheat-growing belt in India. They were

  • (A) High yielding and disease susceptible
  • (B) Low yielding and disease susceptible
  • (C) High yielding and disease resistant
  • (D) Low yielding and disease resistant

Question 59:

Among the following species of bryophytes, which is not an example of mosses?

  • (A) Funaria
  • (B) Marchantia
  • (C) Polytrichum
  • (D) Sphagnum

Question 60:

Who among the following is known as the father of Indian paleobotany?

  • (A) Prof. Bhishma Sahni
  • (B) Prof. Balraj Sahni
  • (C) Prof. Birbal Sahni
  • (D) Prof. Birpal Sahni

Question 61:

The symmetry in which a flower can be divided into two equal and similar halves by only one vertical division is

  • (A) Actinomorphic
  • (B) Polymorphic
  • (C) Metamorphic
  • (D) Zygomorphic

Question 62:

In homosporous pteridophyte species, the development of gametophyte is

  • (A) Hemisporic
  • (B) Episporic
  • (C) Endosporic
  • (D) Exosporic

Question 63:

More recently discovered plant hormone, Jasmonates, play an important role both in plant defense and development, is derived from which fatty acid?

  • (A) Palmitic acid
  • (B) Oleic acid
  • (C) Linoleic acid
  • (D) Linolenic acid

Question 64:

Plants can assimilate only two inorganic forms of nitrogen. These are:

A. Nitrite (NO\(_2^-\))
B. Ammonium (NH\(_4^+\))
C. Nitric acid (HNO\(_3\))
D. Nitrate (NO\(_3^-\))

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and D only

Question 65:

Lenticels permit the:

  • (A) Exchange of water between the outer atmosphere and internal tissue of the stem in most woody trees.
  • (B) Exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere and internal tissue of the stem in most woody trees.
  • (C) Exchange of heat between the outer atmosphere and internal tissue of the stem in most woody trees.
  • (D) Exchange of radiation between the outer atmosphere and internal tissue of the stem in most woody trees.

Question 66:

The membrane potential of a resting neuron is:

  • (A) -20 and -60 millivolts
  • (B) -30 and -80 millivolts
  • (C) -20 and -80 millivolts
  • (D) -60 and -80 millivolts

Question 67:

Which one of the following amino acids is involved in synthesis of hormone epinephrine in humans?

  • (A) Threonine
  • (B) Tryptophan
  • (C) Tyrosine
  • (D) Phenylalanine

Question 68:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 69:

Which one of the following granulocyte has following features?
Highly phagocytic; nucleus with three to five lobes; primary and secondary granules; limited life span:

  • (A) Eosinophil
  • (B) Mast cells
  • (C) Neutrophil
  • (D) Basophil

Question 70:

Which of the following are autosomal recessive genetic disorder?

A. Huntington disease
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Tay-Sachs disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 71:

Which one of the following proteins is often referred to as "the guardian of the genome"?

  • (A) PFU
  • (B) Rb
  • (C) Myc
  • (D) p53

Question 72:

Colibactin is a DNA-damaging compound and when taken up by human intestinal cells, colibactin result in double stranded DNA break and can cause human colorectal cancers. It is synthesized by:

  • (A) Certain strain of E. coli
  • (B) Helicobacter pylori
  • (C) Bacteroides fragilis
  • (D) Bifidobacterium spp.

Question 73:

Agar is used for preparing solid media for culture. Which of the following is not true about agar media?

  • (A) Agar is obtain from a sea weed
  • (B) It has virtually no nutritive value.
  • (C) It melts at 98\(^\circ\)C and usually sets on 42\(^\circ\)C depending on agar concentration.
  • (D) For solid media 0.2% to 0.5% agar concentration is employed.

Question 74:

Which one of the following groups of animal is devoid of gill slits?

  • (A) Osteichthyes
  • (B) Cyclostomata and Chondrichthyes
  • (C) Echinodermata
  • (D) Adult Amphibians

Question 75:

Which one of the following is not a tetrapods character?

  • (A) Dermal scales
  • (B) Neck and ribs
  • (C) Pelvic girdle
  • (D) Flat skull

CUET PG Questions

  • 1.
    On’sogiminrangko poraie sing’anirangna aganchakbo:
    Badiaba burung bolgrim damsao makkke aro do’mesal gronggrike rona ine ku’mongaha. Do’mesal makkrena aganaha, "Ma’nok na’a jagital jatengrak, te’gisim anggal so’o, angni nokcheli roangpaebone." Makkre roangna ku’rachakataha. Sal manchia sokon, makkke ma’nok do’mesali nokchei re’angaha. Do’mesal ma’nok makkreko kusi ong’e rimchakoaha.
    Do’mesal gimal sokbaana mi cha’angchina ine mi song’aha. Mi minamo bijak song’na ine sam’diko chiko rue chaanataha. Do’mesal sam’dik rikingo bae’a bitchi rongngi chi’ataha. Makkre uko nike aiao imanne changgipino ma’noktang re’bao ua an’tangba apsanko dake on’gen ine chancehiaha.
    Makkre do’chiko namen tonikbeaha, ua cha’man ringmanahaoan an’tang nokona robachina agane re’angipaha. Sal sokahaon do’mesal makkreni nokona re’baaha. Makkre do’mesalna mesal song’manahaon me’diko chiko rue ding’ataha. Chi ding’ahoan me’dik rikingo asonge bitchi chi onat man’jae ben gimikko asongaota, ki’sangsa chi ding’ao asongbeka gita dake ki’sang gimik chibilotkaha. Indakesa makkreni ki’sang gitchaka. Do’mesal aro makkreko mande gita aganirakate , mandeni bewalo done seaha aro skidapanikoba on’a.
    Chanchibewaljiga gipinni dakako nike dakpana nangja. Indake dakgipakon ‘jola matjol’ine agana.


      • 2.
        Bak I-o on'sogiminko Bak II baksa nangrimatbo. \[ \begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \textbf{Bak I} & \textbf{Bak II} \\ \hline A. \ \text{Golap rasong chaa, mikka aro ripamchi baksa} & I. \ \text{Personal Metaphor} \\ B. \ \text{Anga rongtal gipa mikka ko ringna sikenggipa bibalrangna ra'baa.} & II. \ \text{Apostrophe} \\ C. \ \text{O sia, nang'ni beri bao?} & III. \ \text{Personification} \\ D. \ \text{Me'chik bi'sani dukna chibimana rang'speaha.} & IV. \ \text{Pathetic Fallacy} \\ \hline \end{array} \] Ka’mao on’sogiminoniko badia ong’a basebo:

          • A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
          • A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
          • A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
          • A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III

        • 3.
          There are five boys P, Q, R, S and T sitting in a row facing North such that P is right of Q and T is left of R and right of P. Q is right of S. Which boy is in the middle of the row?

            • P
            • Q
            • R
            • T

          • 4.
            Bak I-o on’sogiminko Bak II baksa nangrimatbo. \[ \begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \textbf{Bak I} & \textbf{Bak II} \\ \hline A. \ \text{A keja a’matja} & I. \ \text{On’tinimbitu u’ja} \\ B. \ \text{Okamna intila} & II. \ \text{Matecha chike mongna doke saitgipa mandeko nokona ra’baa.} \\ C. \ \text{Mangbila de’bila} & III. \ \text{Biminga mingne okamna.} \\ D. \ \text{Sarija surija} & IV. \ \text{Arata} \\ \hline \end{array} \] Ka’mao on’sogimirangoniko kakket ong’gipako seokbo:

              • A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
              • A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
              • A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
              • A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III

            • 5.
              Pringsao me’chik bi’sa chi ko’na kang’kareo basing de’e chibimaona re’angaha. Ua chiona ong’onange chi ko’mitgo mangsa gorial chabae uni ja’gitoko chikkaapeaha. Da’nang me’chik bi’sa rang’san chirike grapaha. Demechikini chirike grapako knae ma’gipa bakan chabae nioa, demechinki ja’gitoko gorialni chikkaepngakosa nikaeha. Ma’gipa duk ong’bee gapae gorialko mol’mole aganaha. Anga ia demechik saksakamkamna agre darangba dongpaja. Ua angko dakkachapenga; anga segri. Pilabak angko nirok sandipiga dongpaja. Na’a ka’sakchapae angni demechikko watpabo. "Gorial an’tangba segri me’chikni duk ong’bee grapako nike mikchi ong’chakpilaha, indiba watajha.
              Duk man’gipana mikchi ong’pile mesokgenoba, dakechakaniko on’na man’gnigipa ong’eba uko on’jaode mamung namgni ong’ja. Indaka kamkon gorial mikchi ong’a ine agana.


                • 6.

                  Bak I-o on 'sogiminko' Bak II baksa nangrimatbo 

                  Ka'mao on 'sogimirangoni' kakket ong' gipako seokbo: 
                   

                    • A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
                    • A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
                    • A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
                    • A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I

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