CUET PG Horticulture 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Sep 26, 2025

The CUET PG Horticulture exam 2025 is scheduled from 13th May to 3rd June. After the examination, candidates will be able to download the question paper, answer key, and PDF solutions. The test evaluates knowledge in areas like floriculture, pomology, olericulture, post-harvest technology, plant propagation, and horticultural practices.

The exam has 75 questions, to be completed within 60 minutes, with a maximum of 300 marks. Each correct response awards 4 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect answer.

CUET PG Horticulture 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Horticulture Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Horticulture 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Arrange the following vegetables in increasing order of their production based on Area and Production Estimates of Horticulture Crops 2021-22 (Final) –

(A) . Bitter gourd
(B) . Cabbage
(C) . Cucumber
(D) . Cauliflower

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (C), (D), (B).
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (C) (B), (C), (A), (D).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (C), (D), (B).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange four vegetables—Bitter gourd, Cabbage, Cucumber, and Cauliflower—in increasing order of their production in India for the year 2021-22, based on the final estimates for horticulture crops. This requires accessing the specific production data for that period.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The approach is to find the production data (in '000 metric tonnes or lakh tonnes) for each vegetable from the "Area and Production Estimates of Horticulture Crops 2021-22 (Final)" report and then arrange them from the lowest production volume to the highest.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Based on the Second Advance Estimates for 2021-22 from the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (which are closely aligned with the final estimates), the production figures are as follows:


(A) Bitter gourd: The total production was approximately 13.33 lakh metric tonnes (or 1,333 '000 MT).

(C) Cucumber: The total production was approximately 16.08 lakh metric tonnes (or 1,608 '000 MT).

(D) Cauliflower: Cauliflower and Broccoli are often grouped. The production of Cauliflower was approximately 95.55 lakh metric tonnes.

(B) Cabbage: The production of Cabbage was approximately 105.78 lakh metric tonnes.


Arranging these in increasing order of production:

1. Bitter gourd (A) - \(\approx 13.33\) lakh MT

2. Cucumber (C) - \(\approx 16.08\) lakh MT

3. Cauliflower (D) - \(\approx 95.55\) lakh MT

4. Cabbage (B) - \(\approx 105.78\) lakh MT

The correct increasing order is (A), (C), (D), (B).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct sequence in increasing order of production is Bitter gourd, Cucumber, Cauliflower, and Cabbage. This corresponds to the option (A), (C), (D), (B).
Quick Tip: For questions based on specific government reports or data, it's crucial to be familiar with the latest annual or biennial publications, such as the Horticulture/Agriculture Statistics at a Glance. Often, remembering the relative order of major crops is more important than memorizing exact numbers.


Question 2:

Lalbagh Garden is situated at

  • (A) Bengaluru
  • (B) Mysore
  • (C) Srinagar
  • (D) Chandigarh
Correct Answer: (1) Bengaluru
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the location of the famous Lalbagh Garden. This is a general knowledge question related to important landmarks in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Lalbagh Botanical Garden is a well-known botanical garden in southern Bengaluru, India. It was commissioned in 1760 by Hyder Ali, the ruler of Mysore, and was completed by his son, Tipu Sultan. It is one of the city's major tourist attractions and is located in the Mavalli area of Bengaluru, Karnataka.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Therefore, Lalbagh Garden is situated in Bengaluru.
Quick Tip: Memorizing the locations of famous gardens, national parks, and historical monuments is a common requirement for general knowledge sections in competitive exams. Creating a list of these landmarks state-wise can be a helpful study aid.


Question 3:

'Pinjore Garden' in Chandigarh is a beautiful example of

  • (A) Rock Garden
  • (B) Terrace Garden
  • (C) Bog Garden
  • (D) Water Garden
Correct Answer: (2) Terrace Garden
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the style or type of garden that 'Pinjore Garden' (also known as Yadavindra Gardens) represents.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Pinjore Gardens, located in Pinjore near Chandigarh, is a classic example of the Mughal Gardens style. A defining characteristic of Mughal gardens, especially those built on sloping ground, is the use of terraces. Pinjore Garden is laid out with seven descending terraces. This terraced structure is a key feature, creating a stunning visual effect as one moves through the garden. While it has elements of a water garden (a central channel with fountains) and is built in the Mughal style, its most prominent structural feature among the given options is the terrace design. The famous Rock Garden of Chandigarh is a separate, distinct garden created by Nek Chand.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Given its structure of seven descending levels, Pinjore Garden is a beautiful example of a Terrace Garden, designed in the Mughal style.
Quick Tip: When identifying garden types, look for the most defining structural or stylistic feature. Pinjore Garden's Mughal origin is key, and terraces are a hallmark of this style, especially on sloped terrain. Don't confuse it with the Rock Garden, another famous site in Chandigarh.


Question 4:

Cacti and Succulents are suitable for

  • (A) Water Garden
  • (B) Bog Garden
  • (C) Rock Garden
  • (D) Terrace Garden
Correct Answer: (3) Rock Garden
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question is about identifying the most suitable type of garden for growing cacti and succulents. This requires knowledge of the growing conditions these plants need.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Cacti and succulents are plants adapted to arid or dry conditions. They require excellent drainage and cannot tolerate waterlogged soil, which leads to root rot.


Water Garden and Bog Garden are characterized by excessive moisture and are completely unsuitable for these plants.

Terrace Garden is a structural design and doesn't inherently define the soil or moisture conditions.

Rock Garden (or rockery) is specifically designed to mimic a rocky or alpine environment. The use of rocks, gravel, and sandy soil provides the excellent drainage that cacti and succulents need to thrive. Therefore, a rock garden is the ideal environment for these types of plants.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Cacti and Succulents are most suitable for a Rock Garden due to its excellent drainage properties.
Quick Tip: Match the plant's natural habitat to the garden type. Cacti and succulents are desert/arid plants, so they need a garden that replicates those conditions—dry, well-drained, and sunny. A rock garden is the perfect fit.


Question 5:

'Water garden with fountains' is a special feature of

  • (A) Mughal Garden
  • (B) Rock Garden
  • (C) French Garden
  • (D) English Garden
Correct Answer: (1) Mughal Garden
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the garden style for which 'water garden with fountains' is a characteristic feature.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The use of water is a central and essential element in Mughal garden design. These gardens are typically laid out in a rectilinear pattern known as Charbagh (four gardens), with water channels, pools, and fountains forming the axes. The running water was intended to create a cool microclimate and represent the rivers of paradise as described in the Quran. Fountains and pools were used extensively to reflect the sky and architecture, adding to the garden's beauty and serenity. While French gardens also use formal water features, the specific combination described as a 'water garden with fountains' is most famously and intrinsically associated with the Mughal style.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A 'water garden with fountains' is a special and defining feature of a Mughal Garden.
Quick Tip: Associate key features with garden styles. Mughal Gardens = Water, symmetry, Charbagh layout. English Gardens = Naturalistic, informal, flowing landscapes. French Gardens = Formal, geometric, grand vistas. Rock Gardens = Stones, alpine plants, drainage.


Question 6:

The quickest method of developing lawn is

  • (A) By seed sowing
  • (B) By dibbling method
  • (C) Turfing
  • (D) By turf plastering
Correct Answer: (3) Turfing
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the fastest method to establish a lawn from the given options.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the methods:


Seed Sowing: This involves spreading grass seeds over prepared soil. It is the slowest method as it requires time for germination and growth to achieve full coverage.

Dibbling: This involves planting small plugs or roots of grass at regular intervals. It is faster than seeding but still requires time for the grass to spread and cover the bare ground between plugs.

Turfing: This method involves laying down pre-grown mats of grass (sod or turf) onto the prepared soil. Since the grass is already mature and dense, it provides an "instant lawn" effect. This is widely recognized as the quickest way to establish a full, usable lawn.

Turf Plastering: This is a method where a mixture of soil, manure, and chopped grass roots/stems is plastered over the ground. It's faster than seeding but generally slower than turfing to establish a dense lawn.


Comparing the options, turfing provides immediate ground cover and is the fastest method to develop a complete lawn.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The quickest method of developing a lawn is Turfing.
Quick Tip: Think of the starting material for each method. Seeding starts from scratch. Dibbling uses small pieces. Turfing uses a finished product (a mature mat of grass). Therefore, turfing is the fastest way to get a finished lawn.


Question 7:

In Controlled Atmospheric Storage, oxygen and carbon dioxide gases are maintained as

  • (A) Low concentration of oxygen and high concentration of carbon dioxide
  • (B) High concentration of oxygen and low concentration of carbon dioxide
  • (C) Low concentration of oxygen and low concentration of carbon dioxide
  • (D) High concentration of oxygen and high concentration of carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: (1) Low concentration of oxygen and high concentration of carbon dioxide
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Controlled Atmosphere (CA) storage is a technique used to extend the shelf life of fresh produce, like fruits and vegetables. The goal is to slow down the natural respiration and ripening processes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Respiration in plants involves taking in oxygen (O\(_2\)) and releasing carbon dioxide (CO\(_2\)), similar to breathing in animals. This process leads to the breakdown of stored sugars and the eventual decay of the produce. To slow this down, CA storage modifies the atmosphere:


Oxygen (O\(_2\)) is reduced: Normal air has about 21% oxygen. In CA storage, this is significantly lowered, typically to a range of 1-5%. Lowering oxygen directly reduces the rate of respiration.

Carbon Dioxide (CO\(_2\)) is increased: Normal air has very little CO\(_2\) (about 0.04%). In CA storage, the CO\(_2\) level is often increased. This elevated CO\(_2\) also helps to inhibit respiration and suppress the action of ethylene, the ripening hormone.


Therefore, the standard condition for CA storage is a low concentration of oxygen and a higher-than-normal concentration of carbon dioxide.


Step 3: Final Answer:

In Controlled Atmospheric Storage, a low concentration of oxygen and a high concentration of carbon dioxide are maintained.
Quick Tip: To preserve produce, you want to put it to "sleep." This means slowing down its breathing (respiration). You achieve this by reducing the oxygen it needs to "breathe" and increasing the carbon dioxide it "exhales," which further slows the process.


Question 8:

On the basis of ripening behaviour, choose the non climacteric fruits

(A) . Litchi
(B) . Grape
(C) . Jackfruit
(D) . Pineapple

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Fruits are classified based on their ripening behavior into two categories:


Climacteric fruits: These fruits can continue to ripen after being harvested. They exhibit a characteristic burst in respiration and ethylene (a ripening hormone) production. Examples include bananas, mangoes, and apples.
Non-climacteric fruits: These fruits do not ripen further once they are harvested. They must be picked when ripe. They do not show a peak in respiration or ethylene production. Examples include citrus fruits, grapes, and strawberries.


The question asks to identify the non-climacteric fruits from the given list.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's classify each fruit:


(A) Litchi: Litchi is a classic example of a non-climacteric fruit. It does not ripen after being picked and its quality deteriorates quickly.

(B) Grape: Grapes are also non-climacteric. They must be harvested when fully ripe as they will not become sweeter after picking.

(C) Jackfruit: Jackfruit is a climacteric fruit. It continues to ripen and soften after being harvested.

(D) Pineapple: Pineapple is a non-climacteric fruit. Although its outer color may change slightly, it does not become sweeter or ripen internally after being harvested.


Based on this classification, Litchi, Grape, and Pineapple are non-climacteric fruits.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The non-climacteric fruits in the list are (A) Litchi, (B) Grape, and (D) Pineapple. This corresponds to the option (A), (B) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: A simple rule of thumb for exams: If a fruit needs to be bought when it's already ripe and won't get better on your kitchen counter (like berries, citrus, grapes), it's likely non-climacteric. If you can buy it green and it will ripen (like bananas, avocados, mangoes), it's climacteric.


Question 9:

Arrange the following fruits in decreasing order of their area of cultivation based on Area and Production estimates of Horticulture Crops 2021-22 (Final) –

(A) . Pomegranate
(B) . Pineapple
(C) . Plum
(D) . Papaya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (B) (A), (D), (B), (C).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (D), (B), (C).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires arranging the given fruits in descending (decreasing) order based on the area of land used for their cultivation in India, according to the final estimates for the year 2021-22.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The approach is to recall or find the approximate cultivation area for each fruit from the specified horticulture report and then sort them from largest to smallest area.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Based on the Horticulture Statistics at a Glance and related reports for 2021-22, the approximate area of cultivation for these fruits in India is as follows:


(A) Pomegranate: The area under cultivation is significant, approximately 2.9 lakh hectares.

(D) Papaya: The area under cultivation is around 1.5 lakh hectares.

(B) Pineapple: The area under cultivation is approximately 1.1 lakh hectares.

(C) Plum: As a temperate fruit, its cultivation is limited to specific regions, and the area is much smaller, around 0.3 lakh hectares.


Arranging these in decreasing order of area:

1. Pomegranate (A) - \(\approx 2.9\) lakh Ha

2. Papaya (D) - \(\approx 1.5\) lakh Ha

3. Pineapple (B) - \(\approx 1.1\) lakh Ha

4. Plum (C) - \(\approx 0.3\) lakh Ha

The correct decreasing order is (A), (D), (B), (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct sequence in decreasing order of cultivation area is Pomegranate, Papaya, Pineapple, and Plum. This corresponds to option (A), (D), (B), (C).
Quick Tip: For questions involving statistical data, it's helpful to remember the relative rankings of major crops rather than the exact figures. Tropical/sub-tropical fruits like Papaya and Pomegranate generally have a larger cultivation area in India than temperate fruits like Plum.


Question 10:

Based on botanical relationships, choose the correct combinations

(A) . Apocynaceae- Aonla
(B) . Rosaceae- Loquat
(C) . Tiliaceae- Phalsa
(D) . Myrtaceae- Jamun

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of plant taxonomy, specifically the botanical families to which certain fruit plants belong.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine each pair:


(A) Apocynaceae - Aonla: Aonla (Phyllanthus emblica) belongs to the family Phyllanthaceae. It was formerly placed in Euphorbiaceae. The family Apocynaceae includes plants like periwinkle and oleander. This combination is incorrect.

(B) Rosaceae - Loquat: Loquat (Eriobotrya japonica) is a member of the Rosaceae family, which also includes apples, pears, and plums. This combination is correct.

(C) Tiliaceae - Phalsa: Phalsa (Grewia asiatica) is traditionally placed in the family Tiliaceae. According to modern APG classification, it is now in Malvaceae, but Tiliaceae is still a widely accepted classification in many contexts. This combination is considered correct for the purpose of many exams.

(D) Myrtaceae - Jamun: Jamun or Black Plum (Syzygium cumini) belongs to the Myrtaceae family, along with guava and eucalyptus. This combination is correct.


Thus, the correct combinations are (B), (C), and (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The combinations that are botanically correct are Loquat-Rosaceae, Phalsa-Tiliaceae, and Jamun-Myrtaceae. Therefore, the correct option is (B), (C) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: Knowing the botanical families of major crops is essential. Create a chart listing common fruits, vegetables, and flowers and their respective families. Pay attention to common families like Rosaceae (apple, pear, stone fruits), Myrtaceae (guava, jamun), and Solanaceae (tomato, potato, pepper).


Question 11:

In plant cells, the cell wall has abundance of which polysaccharide?

  • (A) Chitin
  • (B) Cellulose
  • (C) Starch
  • (D) Glycogen
Correct Answer: (2) Cellulose
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the most abundant polysaccharide that forms the structural component of a plant cell wall.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:


Chitin: This is a structural polysaccharide found in the cell walls of fungi and the exoskeletons of arthropods. It is not a primary component of plant cell walls.

Cellulose: This is a long-chain polysaccharide made of glucose units. It is the primary structural component of plant cell walls, providing rigidity and strength. It is the most abundant organic polymer on Earth.

Starch: This is the main energy storage polysaccharide in plants, typically found as granules within the cytoplasm and plastids (like chloroplasts and amyloplasts), not as a primary structural part of the cell wall.

Glycogen: This is the main energy storage polysaccharide in animals and fungi.


Therefore, cellulose is the polysaccharide found in abundance in plant cell walls.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The cell wall in plant cells has an abundance of Cellulose.
Quick Tip: Remember the distinct roles of major polysaccharides: Cellulose = Structure in plants; Chitin = Structure in fungi/insects; Starch = Energy storage in plants; Glycogen = Energy storage in animals.


Question 12:

Based on the growing season, choose the correct combinations

(A) . Summer season- Kochia
(B) . Winter season- Petunia
(C) . Summer season- Gaillardia
(D) . Winter season- Balsam

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of the growing seasons for common ornamental annual plants in the Indian context.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each combination:


(A) Summer season - Kochia: Kochia, or Summer Cypress, is a heat-loving foliage plant grown as a summer annual. This is correct.

(B) Winter season - Petunia: Petunia is one of the most popular winter flowering annuals in the plains of India, thriving in cool weather. This is correct.

(C) Summer season - Gaillardia: Gaillardia, or Blanket Flower, is a drought and heat-tolerant plant that flowers profusely during the summer and rainy seasons. This is correct.

(D) Winter season - Balsam: Balsam (Impatiens balsamina) is a quintessential rainy season annual. It thrives in warm, humid conditions and is not a winter season flower. This is incorrect.


The correct combinations are (A), (B), and (C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct pairings of plants and their growing seasons are Kochia-Summer, Petunia-Winter, and Gaillardia-Summer. Therefore, the correct option is (A), (B) and (C) only.
Quick Tip: For floriculture questions, classify common annual flowers into three main seasons for the Indian plains: Winter (e.g., Petunia, Pansy, Calendula), Summer (e.g., Zinnia, Gaillardia, Kochia), and Rainy (e.g., Balsam, Celosia, Gomphrena).


Question 13:

Based on growth behavior, choose the correct combinations

(A) . Tree- Vanilla
(B) . Shrub- Tea
(C) . Vine- Black pepper
(D) . Tree- Nutmeg

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the correct pairings of plants with their typical growth habit (tree, shrub, vine, etc.).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine each pair:


(A) Tree - Vanilla: Vanilla is obtained from the pods of an orchid (Vanilla planifolia), which is a perennial herbaceous vine that climbs up trees. Therefore, this pairing is incorrect.

(B) Shrub - Tea: The tea plant (Camellia sinensis) is an evergreen shrub which is pruned to a certain height for ease of harvesting leaves. This pairing is correct.

(C) Vine - Black pepper: Black pepper (Piper nigrum) is a flowering perennial vine that is cultivated for its fruit (peppercorns). It grows by climbing trees or other supports. This pairing is correct.

(D) Tree - Nutmeg: Nutmeg and mace are spices derived from the fruit of Myristica fragrans, which is an evergreen tree. This pairing is correct.


The correct combinations are (B), (C), and (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct pairings of plant and growth behavior are Tea-Shrub, Black pepper-Vine, and Nutmeg-Tree. Therefore, the correct option is (B), (C) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: When studying spices and plantation crops, make a note of their growth habit (e.g., Cardamom - perennial herb; Clove - tree; Black Pepper - vine; Tea - shrub). This is a common area for questions in botany and agriculture exams.


Question 14:

Choose the correct combination based on nutrient availability

(A) . Protein- Almond
(B) . Carbohydrate- Apricot
(C) . Fibre- Guava
(D) . Fat- Papaya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of the primary macronutrient composition of different food items, specifically fruits and nuts.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each combination:


(A) Protein - Almond: Almonds are nuts known for their high content of healthy fats, fibre, and protein. This is a correct combination.

(B) Carbohydrate - Apricot: Apricots, like most fruits, are primarily composed of carbohydrates (in the form of natural sugars like fructose and glucose) and water. This is a correct combination.

(C) Fibre - Guava: Guava is an excellent source of dietary fibre, particularly in its seeds and skin. This is a correct combination.

(D) Fat - Papaya: Papaya is a fruit that is very low in fat. Its main macronutrient is carbohydrates. This is an incorrect combination.


The correct combinations are (A), (B), and (C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct nutrient-food pairings are Almond-Protein, Apricot-Carbohydrate, and Guava-Fibre. Therefore, the correct option is (A), (B) and (C) only.
Quick Tip: General nutrient rules for exams: Nuts and seeds are rich in protein and fats. Fruits are rich in carbohydrates (sugars) and fibre. Vegetables are rich in fibre, vitamins, and minerals. Knowing these basics helps in eliminating incorrect options quickly.


Question 15:

Which fruit plant is suitable for the arid conditions?

  • (A) Ber
  • (B) Guava
  • (C) Papaya
  • (D) Banana
Correct Answer: (1) Ber
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the fruit plant from the given options that is best adapted to grow in arid (dry) conditions, characterized by low rainfall and high temperatures.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's assess the water requirements of each plant:


Ber (Ziziphus mauritiana), also known as Indian jujube, is a highly drought-tolerant fruit crop. It has a deep taproot system and other xerophytic adaptations that allow it to survive and produce fruit in arid and semi-arid regions with very little water.

Guava (Psidium guajava) is relatively drought-tolerant once established but requires irrigation for commercial fruit production. It is not as hardy as Ber in truly arid conditions.

Papaya (Carica papaya) requires regular and consistent watering to produce well. It is not tolerant of drought.

Banana (Musa spp.) is a tropical plant with very high water requirements and is completely unsuitable for arid conditions without extensive irrigation.


Among the given options, Ber is exceptionally well-suited for arid conditions.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most suitable fruit plant for arid conditions is Ber.
Quick Tip: Associate crops with their climatic zones. Ber and Date Palm are classic examples of arid zone fruits. Banana and Coconut are tropical, high-rainfall crops. Apple and Plum are temperate zone crops. This mental mapping is very useful.


Question 16:

Pineapple is a

  • (A) C3 Plant
  • (B) C2 Plant
  • (C) C4 Plant
  • (D) CAM Plant
Correct Answer: (4) CAM Plant
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks to classify the Pineapple plant based on its photosynthetic pathway. There are three major pathways: C3, C4, and CAM.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


C3 Photosynthesis: The most common pathway, used by plants like rice, wheat, and soybean.

C4 Photosynthesis: An adaptation to hot, sunny climates, used by plants like maize, sugarcane, and sorghum. It is more efficient in high light and temperature.

Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) Photosynthesis: An adaptation to arid or dry conditions. CAM plants open their stomata at night to fix CO\(_2\) into organic acids, and then release this CO\(_2\) for photosynthesis during the day when stomata are closed to conserve water.


Pineapple (Ananas comosus) is a classic textbook example of a CAM plant. This adaptation allows it to thrive in conditions where water conservation is crucial. Other CAM plants include cacti, succulents, and agave. (Note: C2 pathway refers to photorespiration, not a primary photosynthetic pathway).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Pineapple is a CAM plant.
Quick Tip: Remember key examples for each photosynthetic pathway: C3 (Rice, Wheat), C4 (Maize, Sugarcane), and CAM (Pineapple, Cacti). This classification is fundamental in plant physiology and agronomy.


Question 17:

Strawberry is a typically

  • (A) Short day plant
  • (B) Long day plant
  • (C) Day neutral plant
  • (D) CAM Plant
Correct Answer: (1) Short day plant
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to classify the strawberry plant based on its photoperiodic response for flowering. Photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of organisms to the length of day or night.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Plants are classified into three main groups based on their photoperiodic response:


Short-day plants (SDP): These plants flower when the day length is less than a certain critical duration. They are technically "long-night" plants.

Long-day plants (LDP): These plants flower when the day length exceeds a certain critical duration. They are technically "short-night" plants.

Day-neutral plants (DNP): These plants flower irrespective of the day length.


Most traditional and commercially important strawberry cultivars (Fragaria × ananassa) are short-day plants. They initiate flower buds during the short days of autumn and winter, which then develop and produce fruit in the spring. While long-day and day-neutral varieties have been developed, the typical classification for strawberry is as a short-day plant.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Strawberry is typically a short-day plant.
Quick Tip: For exams, it's good to know the photoperiodic classification of a few key crops. For instance, Rice (many varieties) and Soybean are short-day plants. Wheat and Spinach are long-day plants. Maize and Tomato are generally day-neutral plants.


Question 18:

On the basis of fruit, choose the correct combination

(A) . Pome- Quince
(B) . Berry- Guava
(C) . Syconium-Fig
(D) . Stone- Litchi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires identifying the correct pairings between a fruit and its botanical fruit type. This involves knowledge of pomology and plant morphology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each combination:


(A) Pome - Quince: Quince, like apples and pears, is a member of the Rosaceae family. Its fruit type is a pome, where the fleshy part develops from the floral tube and surrounds the ovary. This is a correct combination.

(B) Berry - Guava: Botanically, a berry is a fleshy fruit produced from a single ovary, containing multiple seeds. Guava fits this definition perfectly. This is a correct combination.

(C) Syconium - Fig: A fig develops from an inflorescence (a cluster of flowers) that is inverted into a fleshy, hollow receptacle. This specialized type of multiple fruit is called a syconium. This is a correct combination.

(D) Stone - Litchi: A stone fruit, or drupe (like a peach), has a fleshy mesocarp developed from the ovary wall. In litchi, the edible part is a fleshy aril that grows from the seed coat, not the ovary wall. Therefore, litchi is not a true stone fruit. This is an incorrect combination.


The correct combinations are (A), (B), and (C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the analysis, the correct option is (A), (B) and (C) only.
Quick Tip: Memorizing the fruit types of common crops is crucial. Key examples include: Pome (Apple, Pear), Berry (Grape, Tomato, Guava), Drupe/Stone (Mango, Peach, Plum), Hesperidium (Citrus), Pepo (Cucumber, Watermelon), and Syconium (Fig).


Question 19:

Tomb or Mosque are the main feature of

  • (A) Mughal Garden
  • (B) Japanese Garden
  • (C) English Garden
  • (D) French Garden
Correct Answer: (1) Mughal Garden
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the style of garden in which a tomb or mosque is a central architectural feature.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Mughal gardens in India are renowned for their highly structured and symmetrical designs, heavily influenced by Persian gardens. A key characteristic of these gardens is their integration with significant architectural elements. They were often built to surround tombs (as in the case of the Taj Mahal or Humayun's Tomb) or palaces and mosques. These buildings serve as the focal point of the garden's layout, which typically features a rectilinear 'Charbagh' (four-part) design with water channels. The other garden styles have different focal points: Japanese gardens focus on natural elements like rocks and water, English gardens on creating an idealized natural landscape, and French gardens on grand vistas and geometric parterres.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A tomb or mosque is a main feature of a Mughal Garden.
Quick Tip: Associate key elements with garden styles: Mughal = Tombs, symmetry, water channels; Japanese = Asymmetry, symbolism, rocks; English = Naturalistic, informal, sweeping lawns; French = Geometric, formal, grand scale.


Question 20:

Rock Garden is situated in

  • (A) Srinagar
  • (B) Vadodra
  • (C) Coimbatore
  • (D) Chandigarh
Correct Answer: (4) Chandigarh
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the location of the famous Rock Garden of India. This is a general knowledge question related to important landmarks.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Rock Garden of Chandigarh is a renowned sculpture garden. It is also known as Nek Chand's Rock Garden after its creator, Nek Chand Saini, a government official who started the garden secretly in his spare time in 1957. The garden is completely built of industrial and home waste and thrown-away items. It is one of the most famous tourist attractions in Chandigarh.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Rock Garden is situated in Chandigarh.
Quick Tip: For general knowledge questions about landmarks, associate the landmark with its city and creator if possible. For example, Rock Garden - Chandigarh - Nek Chand; Lalbagh Garden - Bengaluru - Hyder Ali/Tipu Sultan.


Question 21:

Persian gardens are based on the idea of

  • (A) Heaven
  • (B) Life
  • (C) God
  • (D) Dream
Correct Answer: (1) Heaven
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the core philosophical or religious concept behind the design of Persian gardens.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The design of Persian gardens is deeply symbolic and is intended to represent paradise or Heaven on Earth. The traditional 'Charbagh' style, divided into four quadrants by water channels, symbolizes the four rivers of Paradise mentioned in the Quran. Water, shade, and lush greenery in an otherwise arid landscape represent the abundance and serenity of Heaven. This concept was inherited and adapted by the Mughals for their gardens in India. The design is a physical manifestation of a spiritual ideal.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Persian gardens are based on the idea of Heaven (Paradise).
Quick Tip: The concept of 'paradise garden' is central to Islamic garden design, which includes both Persian and Mughal styles. The key elements are almost always water, shade, and a walled enclosure representing a protected, sacred space.


Question 22:

Wastage of fresh fruits and vegetables is estimated to be to the extent of

  • (A) 5-10%
  • (B) 20-25%
  • (C) 40-45%
  • (D) 50-60%
Correct Answer: (2) 20-25%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the estimated percentage of post-harvest losses for fresh fruits and vegetables in India. This is a key issue in the agricultural supply chain.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Post-harvest losses in India are significant due to factors like inadequate infrastructure (cold storage, refrigerated transport), improper handling, and fragmented supply chains. While the exact percentage varies by crop, season, and region, and different studies provide different figures, a commonly cited range in government reports and academic literature for overall wastage of horticultural produce falls between 20% and 30%.

5-10% is too low and is more typical of developed countries with advanced cold chains.

40-60% represents the higher end of estimates for highly perishable specific crops in specific adverse conditions, but is generally too high for an overall average.

The 20-25% range is a widely accepted and frequently quoted conservative estimate representing the substantial level of wastage.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The wastage of fresh fruits and vegetables is generally estimated to be in the range of 20-25%, although it can be higher for certain commodities.
Quick Tip: In questions about agricultural statistics, look for the most reasonable and commonly cited figure. Extremely low or extremely high percentages are often distractors. Post-harvest loss is a major problem, so the figure will be significant, making 20-25% a plausible answer.


Question 23:

Pre-cooling of fruits and vegetables is generally done to

  • (A) Value addition
  • (B) Remove field heat
  • (C) Kill pathogens
  • (D) Remove moisture
Correct Answer: (2) Remove field heat
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the primary purpose of pre-cooling in the post-harvest handling of fresh produce.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

'Field heat' is the latent heat that produce holds from being exposed to the sun and high ambient temperatures in the field at the time of harvest. Freshly harvested produce is a living entity that continues to respire. High temperatures lead to high respiration rates, which in turn leads to rapid deterioration, water loss, and reduced shelf life. Pre-cooling is the process of rapidly and promptly removing this field heat before the produce is stored or transported. By lowering the temperature quickly, pre-cooling slows down respiration and metabolic processes, thus preserving the quality and extending the life of the produce. While it contributes to maintaining value (and thus could be seen as part of value addition) and can slow pathogen growth, its direct and immediate purpose is to remove field heat. Removing moisture is undesirable as it causes wilting.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Pre-cooling is generally done to remove field heat from the produce.
Quick Tip: Remember the post-harvest mantra: "Cool it fast, keep it cool." The "cool it fast" part is pre-cooling, and its specific target is removing the initial field heat.


Question 24:

Maleic hydrazide is used to

  • (A) Enhance ripening
  • (B) Control sprouting
  • (C) Enhance maturity
  • (D) Value addition
Correct Answer: (2) Control sprouting
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the primary use of Maleic hydrazide (MH) in agriculture, particularly in post-harvest management.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Maleic hydrazide is a plant growth regulator. Its main function is to inhibit cell division. When sprayed on crops like potatoes and onions in the field before harvest, it is absorbed by the plant and translocated to the storage organs (tubers or bulbs). During storage, it effectively inhibits cell division in the dormant buds, thereby preventing sprouting. Sprouting reduces the quality and storage life of these commodities. MH does not enhance ripening (ethylene does) or maturity. While controlling sprouting is a form of value addition, its specific physiological function is sprout control.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Maleic hydrazide is used to control sprouting, especially in potatoes and onions.
Quick Tip: Associate specific growth regulators with their primary functions. Ethylene/Ethephon for ripening, Auxins (IBA, NAA) for rooting, Gibberellins (GA3) for breaking dormancy and fruit size, and Maleic Hydrazide (MH) for sprout inhibition.


Question 25:

Vapour heat treatment given to mango fruits controls the

  • (A) Mango hopper
  • (B) Mango mealy bug
  • (C) Mango fruit fly
  • (D) Mango stem borer
Correct Answer: (3) Mango fruit fly
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks which specific pest is controlled by Vapour Heat Treatment (VHT) in mangoes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Vapour Heat Treatment is a quarantine procedure used for disinfestation of fresh fruits, particularly for export markets. The treatment involves heating the fruit with air saturated with water vapor to a specific core temperature for a set duration. This process is lethal to the eggs and larvae of insects that may be present inside the fruit without damaging the fruit itself. The primary target for this treatment in mangoes is the tephritid fruit fly (*Bactrocera dorsalis*), as it is a major quarantine pest for many importing countries. The other pests listed (hopper, mealy bug, stem borer) are primarily field pests and are not the main target of post-harvest heat treatments like VHT.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Vapour heat treatment given to mango fruits controls the Mango fruit fly.
Quick Tip: Heat treatments (like VHT and hot water treatment) and irradiation are key quarantine measures for fruits. They primarily target internal pests that are difficult to detect, with fruit flies being the most common target globally.


Question 26:

In hypobaric storage, the produce is stored under

  • (A) High pressure atmosphere
  • (B) Low temperature atmosphere
  • (C) Low pressure atmosphere
  • (D) High temperature atmosphere
Correct Answer: (3) Low pressure atmosphere
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to define the atmospheric condition in hypobaric storage. The prefix "hypo-" means 'under' or 'low', and "baric" refers to pressure.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Hypobaric storage, also known as low-pressure storage, is a preservation technique where produce is stored in a refrigerated, sealed chamber at a pressure well below normal atmospheric pressure (i.e., under a partial vacuum). The low pressure environment reduces the partial pressure of oxygen, which slows down the rate of respiration. It also facilitates the removal of volatile compounds like ethylene from the produce, further slowing down ripening and senescence. Therefore, the defining characteristic of hypobaric storage is a low-pressure atmosphere, usually combined with low temperature and high humidity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

In hypobaric storage, the produce is stored under a low pressure atmosphere.
Quick Tip: Break down scientific terms. "Hypo-" means low, "Hyper-" means high. "Baric" refers to pressure. So, Hypobaric = Low pressure, Hyperbaric = High pressure. This helps in decoding many technical terms.


Question 27:

Zero Energy Cool Chamber is based on the principal of

  • (A) Evaporative temperature
  • (B) Evaporative cooling
  • (C) High pressure temperature
  • (D) Low pressure cooling
Correct Answer: (2) Evaporative cooling
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the scientific principle behind the functioning of a Zero Energy Cool Chamber (ZECC).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A Zero Energy Cool Chamber is a low-cost, on-farm storage structure built with porous materials like bricks and sand. It consists of a double-walled brick chamber, and the space between the walls is filled with sand. The sand is kept moist by periodic watering. The water from the sand evaporates, and the process of evaporation requires energy, which is drawn from the surroundings. This drawing of heat leads to a lowering of the temperature inside the chamber. This phenomenon, where cooling is achieved through the evaporation of a liquid, is known as evaporative cooling. It's the same principle that makes you feel cool when you sweat.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Zero Energy Cool Chamber is based on the principle of evaporative cooling.
Quick Tip: The word "Zero Energy" is a clue. It means the system doesn't use electricity. Evaporative cooling is a passive cooling method that doesn't require external energy input, unlike conventional refrigeration. Earthen pots (matkas) also work on the same principle.


Question 28:

Firmness of fruit during storage

  • (A) Increases
  • (B) Reduces
  • (C) No change in firmness
  • (D) Increases and reduces both
Correct Answer: (2) Reduces
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the general change in the texture (firmness) of fruits as they are stored.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

During storage, fruits undergo ripening and senescence (aging). A key process during ripening is softening. This is caused by the enzymatic breakdown of structural components in the cell walls. The primary "glue" that holds plant cells together is pectin. Enzymes like polygalacturonase (PG) and pectin methylesterase (PME) break down this pectin into soluble forms, weakening the cell walls and the bonds between cells. This results in the fruit becoming softer. Therefore, as storage progresses, the firmness of most fruits generally reduces.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The firmness of fruit reduces during storage.
Quick Tip: Think about a practical example. A hard, unripe banana becomes soft as it ripens on your counter. This softening is a universal sign of ripening in many fruits and is due to the breakdown of pectin.


Question 29:

Which of the following hormones increases the respiration rate during storage?

  • (A) GA3
  • (B) Cytokinin
  • (C) IBA
  • (D) Ethylene
Correct Answer: (4) Ethylene
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the plant hormone responsible for increasing the rate of respiration in fruits during storage, a process associated with ripening.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In climacteric fruits (like bananas, mangoes, apples), the ripening process is marked by a sharp increase in the rate of respiration, known as the "climacteric rise". This rise is triggered by the plant hormone ethylene. Ethylene acts as a signaling molecule that initiates a cascade of events leading to ripening, including color change, softening, and aroma development, all of which are energy-intensive processes fueled by respiration.

GA3 (Gibberellin) and Cytokinin are generally known to delay senescence.
IBA (an auxin) is primarily used for promoting root growth.
Ethylene is famously known as the "ripening hormone" and directly stimulates respiration.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Ethylene is the hormone that increases the respiration rate during storage.
Quick Tip: Remember the phrase "one bad apple spoils the bunch." This is because a ripening apple produces ethylene gas, which then triggers the ripening (and increased respiration) in the apples around it.


Question 30:

Ethylene absorbent used during storage is

  • (A) CaCl₂
  • (B) CaCO₃
  • (C) KMnO₄
  • (D) NH₃
Correct Answer: (3) KMnO₄
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a chemical compound used to absorb or remove ethylene gas from the storage environment of fruits and vegetables.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Since ethylene promotes ripening and senescence, removing it from storage atmospheres can significantly extend the shelf life of produce. This is done using "ethylene scrubbers" or absorbents. Potassium permanganate (KMnO\(_4\)) is a very strong oxidizing agent. When ethylene gas comes into contact with it, KMnO\(_4\) oxidizes the ethylene into ethylene glycol and carbon dioxide, effectively removing it from the air. KMnO\(_4\) is typically impregnated on an inert carrier like silica gel or alumina (often sold as purple-colored beads) and placed in packages or storage rooms.

CaCl₂ (Calcium chloride) is a desiccant used to absorb moisture.
CaCO₃ (Calcium carbonate) is largely inert in this context.
NH₃ (Ammonia) is a gas and not an absorbent.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ethylene absorbent used during storage is KMnO₄ (Potassium permanganate).
Quick Tip: Potassium permanganate (KMnO\(_4\)) is well-known for its distinctive deep purple color and its strong oxidizing properties. In post-harvest, its main role is as an ethylene scavenger.


Question 31:

High humidity in storage can be reduced by keeping

  • (A) CaCl\(_2\)
  • (B) KMnO\(_4\)
  • (C) KNO\(_3\)
  • (D) Urea
Correct Answer: (1) CaCl\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for a chemical compound that can be used to reduce high humidity in a storage environment. High humidity means there is a high concentration of water vapor in the air. To reduce it, a substance that absorbs water from the air is needed. Such substances are known as desiccants or hygroscopic agents.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the properties of the given options:


CaCl\(_2\) (Calcium chloride): This is a salt that is highly hygroscopic, meaning it readily attracts and absorbs water molecules from its surroundings. It is a very effective and commonly used desiccant to keep enclosed spaces dry.

KMnO\(_4\) (Potassium permanganate): This is a strong oxidizing agent. In storage, its primary role is as an ethylene scavenger. It oxidizes ethylene gas, which is a ripening hormone, thereby slowing down the ripening process. It is not used to absorb moisture.

KNO\(_3\) (Potassium nitrate): This is a salt used primarily as a fertilizer and in other industrial applications. While it can absorb some moisture, it is not an effective desiccant compared to calcium chloride.

Urea: This is a nitrogenous compound used extensively as a fertilizer. It is also hygroscopic but is not typically used as a desiccant for storage purposes.


Based on these properties, calcium chloride is the most suitable chemical among the options for reducing humidity in storage.


Step 3: Final Answer:

High humidity in storage can be reduced by keeping Calcium chloride (CaCl\(_2\)).
Quick Tip: In post-harvest and storage questions, remember the specific roles of common chemicals: Calcium chloride (CaCl\(_2\)) and silica gel are for absorbing moisture (desiccants), while Potassium permanganate (KMnO\(_4\)) is for absorbing ethylene (ethylene scavenger).


Question 32:

Sodium benzoate is used for

  • (A) Value addition
  • (B) Preservation
  • (C) Fortification
  • (D) Control of diseases
Correct Answer: (2) Preservation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the primary function of sodium benzoate in the context of food.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Sodium benzoate is the sodium salt of benzoic acid. It is widely used as a food preservative. It is a class II chemical preservative that works by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms like yeast, mold, and some bacteria. It is most effective in acidic conditions (pH \(<\) 4.5), which makes it suitable for preserving acidic foods and beverages such as fruit juices, jams, pickles, and carbonated drinks.


Value addition refers to increasing the economic value of a product, which is a broader concept.

Fortification is the process of adding micronutrients (vitamins and minerals) to food.

Control of diseases usually refers to controlling plant or human diseases, which is not the primary use of sodium benzoate as a food additive.


Therefore, its specific role is preservation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Sodium benzoate is used for the preservation of food products.
Quick Tip: Remember the common class II chemical preservatives used in food processing: Sodium benzoate (for acidic foods), Potassium metabisulphite (KMS) (for juices, prevents browning), and Sorbic acid (against yeast and mold).


Question 33:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching specific crop varieties with their corresponding crops. This tests the knowledge of important varieties in horticulture.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each variety in List-I to its crop in List-II:


(A) Vengurla: The Vengurla series of varieties (e.g., Vengurla-4, Vengurla-7) are well-known high-yielding varieties of (II) Cashew, developed at the Regional Fruit Research Station, Vengurla.

(D) Chakaiya: This is a famous, late-maturing, and highly productive variety of (III) Aonla (Indian Gooseberry), known for its suitability for processing.

(C) Arka Sahan: Varieties with the prefix 'Arka' are released from the Indian Institute of Horticultural Research (IIHR), Bengaluru. Arka Sahan is a hybrid variety of (IV) Custard Apple.

(B) Shinghara: By elimination, Shinghara matches with (I) Tea. While not as common as other tea clones, it is a recognized variety.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches corresponds to option 2.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to the prefixes of variety names. 'Arka' varieties are from IIHR, 'Pusa' varieties are from IARI, and 'Co' varieties are from TNAU, Coimbatore. Knowing these can help you quickly identify or eliminate options.


Question 34:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching specific nutrients/constituents with the crops that are exceptionally rich sources of them.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match the constituent to its rich source:


(A) Beta Carotene: This is a precursor to Vitamin A. (II) Mango is famously one of the richest fruit sources of beta carotene, which gives its flesh the characteristic orange-yellow color.

(B) Ascorbic Acid: This is Vitamin C. (IV) Barbados Cherry (*Malpighia emarginata*) is one of the richest known natural sources of Vitamin C in the world.

(C) Riboflavin: This is Vitamin B2. (III) Bael (*Aegle marmelos*) fruit pulp is an exceptionally rich source of riboflavin.

(D) Niacin: This is Vitamin B3. Among the given options, (I) Fig is a good source of niacin.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) IV, C \(\rightarrow\) III, D \(\rightarrow\) I.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches corresponds to option 2.
Quick Tip: For nutrition-based questions, remember the "champion" sources: Aonla and Barbados Cherry for Vitamin C, Mango and Papaya for Vitamin A (Beta Carotene), Bael for Riboflavin, and Avocado and nuts for fats.


Question 35:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching common physiological disorders in plants with their corresponding nutritional cause (deficiency or toxicity).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each disorder to its cause:


(A) Blossom end rot: This is a classic disorder in tomato, watermelon, and peppers, appearing as a dark, sunken lesion at the blossom end of the fruit. It is caused by a localized (II) Ca deficiency (Calcium deficiency) in the developing fruit.

(B) Fruit cracking: While often related to irregular irrigation, nutritional imbalances are also a key factor. Deficiency of (I) B (Boron) is a major cause of fruit cracking in many fruits like pomegranate and tomato, as boron is essential for cell wall elasticity.

(C) Interveinal chlorosis: This symptom, where the tissue between the leaf veins turns yellow while the veins remain green, is a hallmark of (IV) Mg deficiency (Magnesium deficiency), especially in older leaves, as Mg is the central atom in the chlorophyll molecule.

(D) Leaf scorching: This appears as a burning or drying of the leaf margins. It can be caused by various stresses, including the toxicity of certain ions. (III) Cl toxicity (Chloride toxicity) is a well-known cause of leaf scorching in many crops.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches corresponds to option 1.
Quick Tip: Create a chart of major nutrients (Macro & Micro) and the classic deficiency/toxicity symptom for each. For example: N-general chlorosis, Ca-death of growing points/BER, B-fruit cracking, Mg-interveinal chlorosis, Cl-leaf scorching.


Question 36:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of specific apple rootstocks and their key characteristics, such as size control, resistance to pests, and environmental tolerance.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each rootstock to its characteristic:


(B) BUD 9 (Budagovsky 9): This is a Russian rootstock bred for cold hardiness, making it highly (I) Frost resistant.

(C) M-27 (Malling 27): This is the most dwarfing commercially available apple rootstock, producing a tree even smaller than on M-9. It is therefore classified as an (IV) Ultra dwarf rootstock.

(D) MM-106 (Malling-Merton 106): The 'MM' series was bred specifically for resistance to a particular pest. They are known for being (II) Woolly aphid resistant.

(A) M-9 (Malling 9): This is the world's most famous dwarfing rootstock. While its dwarfing nature is its main feature, among the remaining options, being (III) Compatible with all apple scions is a generally true and important characteristic for a widely used rootstock.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches corresponds to option 4.
Quick Tip: For apple rootstocks, remember the series: 'M' (Malling) are the original series. 'MM' (Malling-Merton) are woolly aphid resistant. 'BUD' (Budagovsky) are Russian and cold-hardy. 'G' (Geneva) are modern, disease-resistant rootstocks.


Question 37:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching specific horticultural applications with the Plant Bioregulator (PBR) or chemical used to achieve them.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each application to the chemical:


(A) Rooting of cuttings: The induction of adventitious roots in cuttings is a primary function of auxins. (III) IBA (Indole-3-butyric acid) is the most widely used commercial auxin for this purpose.

(B) Seed scarification: This process involves breaking, scratching, or softening the hard seed coat to allow water absorption and germination. A common method is chemical scarification using a strong (I) Acid treatment (like concentrated sulfuric acid).

(C) Parthenocarpy in Mango: Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without fertilization. While not a standard commercial practice in mango, combinations of growth regulators like (II) BA (a cytokinin) + Beta NOA (an auxin) can be used experimentally to improve fruit set and induce parthenocarpy.

(D) Induction of flowering in Pineapple: Uniform flowering in pineapple is commercially induced by applying a substance that triggers it. (IV) Ethephon is commonly used, as it releases ethylene gas, which is the direct stimulus for flowering in pineapple.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) II, D \(\rightarrow\) IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches corresponds to option 2.
Quick Tip: Associate key chemicals with their "killer app": IBA \(\rightarrow\) Rooting, Ethephon \(\rightarrow\) Ripening/Pineapple flowering, GA3 \(\rightarrow\) Grape size/Breaking dormancy, MH \(\rightarrow\) Sprout suppression.


Question 38:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching major classes of Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs) with their primary practical applications in horticulture.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each PGR to its utility:


(A) Auxins: As a class of hormones, auxins are fundamentally involved in cell elongation and differentiation. Their most prominent practical use is to stimulate adventitious root formation, i.e., (II) Root induction, in cuttings.

(B) Gibberellins: These hormones are known to break seed and bud dormancy and promote stem elongation. They play a crucial role in the process of (III) Germination.

(C) Cytokinin: Named for their role in cytokinesis (cell division), cytokinins are extensively used in plant tissue culture to stimulate cell division and induce the formation of multiple shoots from a single explant, a process known as (IV) Shoot proliferation.

(D) Ethephon: This is a synthetic compound that releases ethylene gas upon application. Ethylene is the natural ripening hormone in plants, so Ethephon is widely used to commercially induce uniform (I) Fruit ripening.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) III, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) I.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct set of matches corresponds to option 1.
Quick Tip: Remember the 5 classic plant hormones and their main jobs: Auxin (Roots & Tropisms), Gibberellin (Stem elongation & Germination), Cytokinin (Cell division & Shoot growth), Ethylene (Ripening & Senescence), and Abscisic Acid (Dormancy & Stress).


Question 39:

What is the descending order of rate of respiration in following vegetables?

(A) . Bean
(B) . Onion
(C) . Asparagus
(D) . Beet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (A), (D), (B).
Correct Answer: (4) (C), (A), (D), (B).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange a list of vegetables in descending order of their post-harvest respiration rate. The rate of respiration is a direct indicator of the metabolic activity and perishability of the produce.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The respiration rate varies based on the type of plant tissue. Actively growing tissues respire faster than storage organs or dormant tissues.


(C) Asparagus: The edible part is a rapidly growing spear (shoot). It has an extremely high respiration rate and is one of the most perishable vegetables.

(A) Bean: Green beans are developing pods containing seeds. They are metabolically active and have a high rate of respiration, though typically lower than asparagus.

(D) Beet: This is a storage root. Its metabolic rate is significantly lower than that of shoots or developing fruits/pods. It has a low to moderate respiration rate.

(B) Onion: A dry bulb onion is a dormant storage organ. It is specifically adapted for long-term survival and has a very low respiration rate, making it very shelf-stable.


Therefore, the descending order of respiration rate is: Asparagus \(>\) Bean \(>\) Beet \(>\) Onion. This corresponds to the sequence (C), (A), (D), (B).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct descending order of respiration rate is Asparagus, Bean, Beet, Onion.
Quick Tip: A simple rule for perishability: Flowers (e.g., broccoli) and Shoots (e.g., asparagus) are most perishable (highest respiration), followed by Fruits (e.g., beans, tomatoes), then Roots (e.g., carrots, beets), and finally Bulbs/Tubers (e.g., onions, potatoes) which are least perishable (lowest respiration).


Question 40:

Demography is the study of factors that affect _______________ and ________________ patterns.

  • (A) Population density, dispersion
  • (B) Population size, dispersion
  • (C) Population density, distribution
  • (D) Population size, distribution
Correct Answer: (4) Population size, distribution
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the two key components that are studied in demography. Demography is the statistical study of populations.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In both human sociology and population ecology, demography focuses on the characteristics of populations and how they change over time. The core aspects studied are:


Population size: The total number of individuals in the population. Factors affecting it are birth rates, death rates, immigration, and emigration.

Population distribution: How individuals are spread out over a geographic area. This describes the spatial pattern of a population.


While population density (size per unit area) and dispersion (spacing of individuals relative to each other) are important demographic metrics, they are derived from the more fundamental concepts of size and distribution. The most comprehensive answer that describes the scope of demography is the study of factors affecting population size and its distribution patterns.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Demography is the study of factors that affect population size and distribution patterns.
Quick Tip: Think of a national census. What are the two main things it measures? First, "how many people live in the country?" (population size), and second, "where do they live?" (population distribution). This is the essence of demography.


Question 41:

Arrange the following disease causing agents in order of their discovery

(A) . Yersinia pestis (Plague)
(B) . Salmonella typhi (Typhoid fever)
(C) . Treponema pallidium (Syphilis)
(D) . Clostridium tetani (Tetanus)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (C) (B), (D), (A), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (D), (A), (C).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires arranging the given pathogenic bacteria in the chronological order of their discovery. This tests knowledge of the history of microbiology, particularly during the "Golden Age" in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the discovery date for each bacterium:


(B) Salmonella typhi: The causative agent of typhoid fever was first observed by Karl Joseph Eberth in 1880.

(D) Clostridium tetani: The causative agent of tetanus was isolated from soil by Arthur Nicolaier in 1884.

(A) Yersinia pestis: The causative agent of plague was discovered by Alexandre Yersin in 1894 during the plague pandemic in Hong Kong.

(C) Treponema pallidum: The causative agent of syphilis, a spirochete bacterium, was identified by Fritz Schaudinn and Erich Hoffmann in 1905.


Arranging these in chronological order gives the sequence: Salmonella typhi (1880), Clostridium tetani (1884), Yersinia pestis (1894), and Treponema pallidum (1905).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct order of discovery is (B), (D), (A), (C).
Quick Tip: The late 1800s was a period of intense discovery for bacteriology, thanks to the work of pioneers like Koch and Pasteur. Most major bacterial pathogens for diseases known since antiquity were identified during this time.


Question 42:

Which of the following statements is true regarding drying and dehydration of fruits and vegetables?

(A) . Freeze drying is not covered under the methods of preservation of fruits and vegetables by drying or dehydration.
(B) . Microorganisms and enzymes need water in order to be active.
(C) . Dried, dessicated or low moisture foods are the traditional dried foods
(D) . Intermediate moisture or IM foods contain between 15% to 50% moisture.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the correct statements about food preservation through drying and dehydration. The underlying principle is the removal of water to inhibit spoilage.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:


(A): This statement is false. Freeze drying (lyophilization) is a specialized method of dehydration where water is removed from a frozen product through sublimation (solid to gas phase). It is a form of drying.

(B): This statement is true. The fundamental principle of preservation by drying is to reduce the water activity (aw) of the food. Below a certain water activity level, most microorganisms cannot grow, and enzymatic reactions are significantly slowed down.

(C): This statement is true. Traditional methods like sun drying produce low moisture foods (e.g., raisins, dried fish) which are often referred to as dried or desiccated foods.

(D): This statement is true. Intermediate Moisture (IM) foods, such as jams, jellies, and some dried fruits like dates, have moisture content in the range of 15-50%. They are shelf-stable due to a combination of reduced water activity and other factors like high sugar content.


Therefore, statements (B), (C), and (D) are true.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option includes statements (B), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: The key to preservation by drying isn't just removing moisture, but reducing 'water activity' (aw), which is the available water for biological reactions. This is the scientific principle that makes drying effective.


Question 43:

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Endomembrane system?

  • (A) Golgi apparatus
  • (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
  • (C) Lysosome
  • (D) Mitochondrion
Correct Answer: (4) Mitochondrion
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The endomembrane system is a group of organelles in eukaryotic cells that work together as a functional unit to synthesize, modify, package, and transport proteins and lipids. The question asks to identify the organelle that is not part of this coordinated system.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The components of the endomembrane system include:


The nuclear envelope

The Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

The Golgi apparatus

Lysosomes

Vacuoles

The plasma membrane


These organelles are connected either physically or by the transport of vesicles between them. The Mitochondrion, along with chloroplasts, is not considered part of the endomembrane system. Mitochondria are involved in cellular respiration and have their own distinct membranes and genetic material, believed to have originated through endosymbiosis.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Mitochondrion is not a component of the endomembrane system.
Quick Tip: Think of the endomembrane system as a "cellular factory and shipping service" for proteins and lipids. Mitochondria are the "power plants," operating independently of this production line.


Question 44:

Honey bees are efficient pollinators because of following characters

(A) . It does not have a hairy body and is smooth and waxy
(B) . They adapt themselves to different climates
(C) . Length of proboscis is suitable for many crops
(D) . Body parts are modified to pick up pollen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (A), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the characteristics that contribute to the efficiency of honey bees as pollinators.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each character:


(A): This statement is false. Honey bees have bodies covered in branched, electrostatic hairs (plumose hairs) that are specifically adapted to trap pollen grains. A smooth, waxy body would be inefficient at picking up pollen.

(B): This statement is true. Honey bees (genus *Apis*) are found across the globe and can survive in a wide range of climates, from tropical to temperate, making them reliable pollinators in diverse ecosystems.

(C): This statement is true. The proboscis (tongue) of a honey bee is of a length that allows it to access nectar from a wide variety of flowers, making it a generalist pollinator for many different crops.

(D): This statement is true. Honey bees have several modifications for pollen collection, most notably the corbicula, or "pollen basket," a polished cavity on the outer hind tibia fringed with long hairs, where they pack pollen for transport.


The correct statements that describe why honey bees are efficient pollinators are (B), (C), and (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of characters is (B), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: The fuzzy, hairy body of a bee is one of its most important tools for pollination. Pollen sticks to the hairs as the bee forages, allowing for transfer between flowers. Remember: hairy = good pollinator.


Question 45:

Which of the following is considered as the main disadvantage in the application of remote sensing methods?

  • (A) It saves time and manpower as larger area can be covered
  • (B) It provides only a synoptic overview or bird's eye view of a larger area
  • (C) It cannot provide all the information needed for any scientific study
  • (D) The collection and interpretation is expensive
Correct Answer: (4) The collection and interpretation is expensive
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the primary drawback or disadvantage of using remote sensing technology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:


(A) It saves time and manpower...: This is a major advantage of remote sensing, not a disadvantage.

(B) It provides only a synoptic overview...: Providing a synoptic (large-scale) view is also a key advantage, allowing for the study of large areas at once.

(C) It cannot provide all the information...: This is a limitation, as remote sensing data often requires "ground-truthing" (field verification). However, this is true for many scientific methods; they are rarely standalone.

(D) The collection and interpretation is expensive: This is a significant and often prohibitive disadvantage. The costs include satellite launches, sophisticated sensors, data acquisition, powerful computers for processing, specialized software, and highly trained personnel for interpretation. This high cost is a primary barrier to its application.


Comparing the disadvantages, the high cost (D) is the most significant and universal barrier, making it the main disadvantage.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The main disadvantage in the application of remote sensing methods is that the collection and interpretation is expensive.
Quick Tip: When evaluating pros and cons, consider the fundamental barriers. For many advanced technologies like remote sensing, the high initial and operational cost is a primary limiting factor that restricts its widespread use.


Question 46:

For the examination of microbial cells we require the use of?

  • (A) High-power microscope
  • (B) Low-power microscope
  • (C) High-power microscope at a magnification of about 1,000 X
  • (D) Low-power microscope at a magnification of about 1,000 X
Correct Answer: (3) High-power microscope at a magnification of about 1,000 X
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the specific equipment needed to visualize microbial cells, such as bacteria, which are microscopic.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Microbial cells are typically only a few micrometers (µm) in size. To see them clearly, a high level of magnification is required.


A standard compound light microscope is used. A "low-power" objective (e.g., 10x) is insufficient to resolve individual bacterial cells. A "high-power" objective is necessary.

The highest power objective on a standard light microscope is the oil immersion lens, which has a magnification of 100x. When combined with the 10x magnification of the eyepiece (ocular lens), it provides a total magnification of \(100 \times 10 = 1,000X\).

This 1,000X magnification is the standard and necessary level for routine examination of most bacteria.


Option (3) is the most precise and correct answer. Option (1) is correct but less specific. Option (2) is incorrect. Option (4) is contradictory as 1,000X is high magnification, not low.


Step 3: Final Answer:

For the examination of microbial cells, we require the use of a high-power microscope at a magnification of about 1,000 X.
Quick Tip: In microbiology labs, the term "oil immersion" is synonymous with viewing bacteria. The oil is used with the 100x objective lens to achieve the 1000x total magnification needed to see these tiny cells clearly.


Question 47:

Arrange the following stages in Remote Sensing Data Acquisition in correct sequence

(A) . Extraction of the information contents from the data products and conversion of information into various forms
(B) . Propagation of reflected/emitted energy through the atmosphere and detection of the reflected/emitted energy by the sensor
(C) . Source of energy and transmission of energy from the source to the surface of the earth
(D) . Conversion of energy received into photographic/digital form of data

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (C), (B), (D), (A).
  • (B) (C), (A), (B), (D).
  • (C) (C), (D), (A), (B).
  • (D) (D), (C), (B), (A).
Correct Answer: (1) (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct chronological sequence of events in the process of acquiring and using remote sensing data.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The remote sensing process follows a logical flow from the energy source to the final information product:


(A) (C) Source of energy and transmission...: The process must begin with a source of energy (like the sun or a radar pulse) that travels to and illuminates the Earth's surface. This is the starting point.


(B) (B) Propagation of reflected/emitted energy...: After interacting with the surface, the energy is reflected or emitted back towards the sensor. It travels through the atmosphere and is then detected by the sensor on a satellite or aircraft.


(C) (D) Conversion of energy received...: The sensor, having detected the energy, must record it. It converts the energy into a usable format, either a photographic image or, more commonly, digital data.


(D) (A) Extraction of the information contents...: This is the final stage, known as data analysis or interpretation. The raw digital data is processed and analyzed to extract meaningful information (e.g., creating a land use map, monitoring crop health).



The correct sequence of these stages is C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) A.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (C), (B), (D), (A).
Quick Tip: Think of the process like taking a picture: (C) Sun provides light. (B) Light bounces off your friend and enters the camera lens. (D) The camera sensor records the light as a digital image file. (A) You look at the image on your phone to see your friend's face.


Question 48:

On the basis of the size of the waves and frequency, arrange the following energy waves in correct sequence in Electromagnetic Spectrum.

(A) . Infrared rays
(B) . Microwaves, Radio waves
(C) . Gamma rays, X-rays
(D) . Ultraviolet rays, Visible rays

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (C), (A), (D), (B).
  • (B) (C), (D), (A), (B).
  • (C) (C), (B), (D), (A).
  • (D) (D), (C), (A), (B).
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (D), (A), (B).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange different types of electromagnetic radiation in the correct order as they appear in the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum. In the EM spectrum, wavelength and frequency are inversely related (higher frequency means shorter wavelength and higher energy). The standard convention is to list them in order of increasing wavelength or decreasing frequency/energy. Let's arrange them by decreasing energy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The order of the electromagnetic spectrum from highest energy/frequency (shortest wavelength) to lowest energy/frequency (longest wavelength) is:


(A) Gamma rays


(B) X-rays


(C) Ultraviolet (UV) rays


(D) Visible light


(E) Infrared (IR) rays


(F) Microwaves


(G) Radio waves



Now let's place the given groups into this sequence:


(C) Gamma rays, X-rays: These have the highest energy and shortest wavelengths. This group comes first.

(D) Ultraviolet rays, Visible rays: This group comes after X-rays, having less energy.

(A) Infrared rays: This group comes after visible light, having even lower energy.

(B) Microwaves, Radio waves: These have the lowest energy and longest wavelengths. This group comes last.


The correct sequence is (C), (D), (A), (B).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct arrangement of the energy waves in the electromagnetic spectrum is (C), (D), (A), (B).
Quick Tip: A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the EM spectrum from longest wavelength to shortest (lowest energy to highest) is: "Raging Martians Invaded Venus Using X-ray Guns" (Radio, Microwave, Infrared, Visible, UV, X-ray, Gamma). The question asks for the reverse order.


Question 49:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching fundamental terms in population ecology with their correct definitions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's define each term and find its best match:


(A) Population size: This is the total number of individuals in the population. This directly matches with (III) It represents the total number of individuals in a habitat.

(B) Population density: This is the number of individuals per unit area or volume. This directly matches with (I) It refers to how many individuals reside in a particular area.

(D) Population dispersion: This refers to the pattern of spacing among individuals within the boundaries of the population (e.g., clumped, uniform, or random). The description (IV) It describes how individuals of a species are spread out... is the definition of dispersion. However, in the given options, C is matched with IV.

(C) Population distribution: This refers to the geographic area within which a species can be found. In the context of the options, it has been matched with (IV) It describes how individuals of a species are spread out.... While this is technically the definition of dispersion, it's the intended match in this question's logic.

By the logic of the chosen correct answer, (D) Population dispersion is matched with (II) It yields helpful information about how species interact.... This is a consequence or an inference from dispersion patterns (e.g., uniform dispersion suggests competition), rather than a definition.

Despite some imprecision in the definitions for C and D, the combination that correctly pairs the clearest terms (A with III, and B with I) is found only in option (4). A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the process of elimination and the most accurate pairings, the correct option is (4).
Quick Tip: Focus on the most unambiguous matches first. Population size is the total count (III), and population density is the count per area (I). This will often help you narrow down the options to the correct answer, even if other parts of the question are slightly confusing.


Question 50:

Two important characteristics for estimating any population of animals and plants are ______________ and ______________ of individuals.

  • (A) Density, dispersion
  • (B) Density, size
  • (C) Density, distribution
  • (D) Dispersion, distribution
Correct Answer: (2) Density, size
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the two most fundamental quantitative characteristics that are estimated when studying a population.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Ecologists study several characteristics of populations, but the most primary estimations are:


Population size (N): The total number of individuals in the population. This is a fundamental measure of the population's abundance. Methods like mark-recapture are used to estimate this.

Population density: The number of individuals per unit of area or volume. This measures how crowded the population is and is crucial for understanding interactions and resource use. Methods like quadrat sampling are used to estimate this.


While distribution (geographic range) and dispersion (spatial pattern) are also very important characteristics, the core quantitative estimations that form the basis of many ecological studies are the population's size and its density.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Two important characteristics for estimating any population of animals and plants are density and size of individuals.
Quick Tip: When an ecologist goes to the field to study a new population, the first two questions they try to answer are "How many are there?" (Size) and "How crowded are they?" (Density). These are the foundational estimates.


Question 51:

Which eukaryotic cell-cycle event is missing in Binary Fission?

  • (A) Cell growth
  • (B) DNA duplication
  • (C) Cytokinesis
  • (D) Mitosis
Correct Answer: (4) Mitosis
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a process from the eukaryotic cell cycle that does not occur in binary fission. Binary fission is the method of asexual reproduction used by prokaryotic organisms like bacteria. The eukaryotic cell cycle is the process by which eukaryotic cells divide.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's compare the events in binary fission and the eukaryotic cell cycle:


Cell growth: Both prokaryotic cells undergoing binary fission and eukaryotic cells undergoing division first grow in size. This event is present in both.

DNA duplication: Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes must duplicate their genetic material before dividing to ensure each daughter cell receives a copy. This event is present in both (replication of the circular chromosome in prokaryotes, and replication of linear chromosomes in S phase for eukaryotes).

Cytokinesis: This is the division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells. This event occurs at the end of both binary fission and the eukaryotic cell cycle.

Mitosis: This is the complex process of nuclear division, where the duplicated chromosomes are precisely segregated into two daughter nuclei. This process is characteristic of eukaryotes, which have a nucleus. Prokaryotes lack a nucleus, so they do not undergo mitosis.


Therefore, mitosis is the eukaryotic cell-cycle event that is absent in binary fission.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The eukaryotic cell-cycle event missing in Binary Fission is Mitosis.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Binary fission is simple division in prokaryotes (no nucleus). Mitosis is complex nuclear division in eukaryotes (have a nucleus). If there's no nucleus, there can't be mitosis.


Question 52:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  • (A) All organisms are composed of one or more cells
  • (B) Cytotechnologists study cells
  • (C) New cells arise from existing cells
  • (D) Viruses display all the properties of life outside of a host cell
Correct Answer: (4) Viruses display all the properties of life outside of a host cell
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the incorrect statement among the given options, which relate to cell theory and the nature of viruses.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:


1. All organisms are composed of one or more cells: This is a fundamental tenet of the Cell Theory. It is a correct statement.

2. Cytotechnologists study cells: Cytotechnology is a field of pathology that involves the microscopic study of cells to detect cancer and other abnormalities. This is a correct statement.

3. New cells arise from existing cells: This principle, "Omnis cellula e cellula" (all cells from cells), was proposed by Rudolf Virchow and is another key part of the modern Cell Theory. This is a correct statement.

4. Viruses display all the properties of life outside of a host cell: This is an incorrect statement. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Outside of a living host cell, they are inert, non-living particles (virions) and cannot replicate, metabolize, or carry out any of the processes associated with life. They only become active and replicate by hijacking the machinery of a host cell.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement that is not correct is that viruses display all the properties of life outside of a host cell.
Quick Tip: Viruses are often described as being on the "borderline of life" precisely because they are completely inactive outside a host cell but can replicate and evolve once inside. They lack the cellular machinery for independent life.


Question 53:

The difficulties encountered in a roof garden are as follows

(A) . Soil depth is limited
(B) . Large trees and shrubs can be grown with greater ease than any other garden
(C) . Drainage needs to be ensured
(D) . Frequent watering is required

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the real challenges and difficulties associated with establishing and maintaining a roof garden.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:


(A) Soil depth is limited: This is a major difficulty. The weight-bearing capacity of a roof is limited, so only a shallow layer of lightweight growing medium can be used, restricting the types of plants that can be grown. This statement is a difficulty.

(B) Large trees and shrubs can be grown with greater ease than any other garden: This statement is the opposite of reality and is false. Due to limited soil depth and severe weight restrictions, growing large trees and shrubs is extremely difficult and often impossible on a roof.

(C) Drainage needs to be ensured: This is a critical difficulty. Proper drainage is essential to prevent water from pooling, which can damage the building's structure and waterproofing, and also cause waterlogging of plant roots. This statement is a difficulty.

(D) Frequent watering is required: This is another significant difficulty. The shallow soil, combined with increased exposure to sun and wind on a rooftop, causes the growing medium to dry out very quickly, necessitating more frequent irrigation compared to a ground-level garden. This statement is a difficulty.


The difficulties encountered are (A), (C), and (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option that lists only the difficulties is (A), (C) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: When thinking about rooftop gardening, always consider the two biggest constraints: weight and water. Limited weight capacity restricts soil depth and plant size. Exposure to elements increases water needs and necessitates excellent drainage.


Question 54:

Which of the following organelles is most likely to aid in the digestion of food particles?

  • (A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • (B) Nucleus
  • (C) Lysosome
  • (D) Ribosome
Correct Answer: (3) Lysosome
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the cell organelle responsible for intracellular digestion.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the function of each organelle:


1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER): Its surface is studded with ribosomes, and its primary function is the synthesis and modification of proteins that are destined for secretion or insertion into membranes.

2. Nucleus: This organelle contains the cell's genetic material (DNA) and controls the cell's growth and reproduction.

3. Lysosome: These are membrane-bound organelles that contain a variety of hydrolytic enzymes. They function as the cell's "recycling center" or "digestive system," breaking down waste products, damaged organelles, and foreign material like bacteria or food particles brought into the cell via endocytosis.

4. Ribosome: These are the sites of protein synthesis (translation), where genetic information from mRNA is used to build proteins.


Based on these functions, the lysosome is the organelle that aids in digestion.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The lysosome is the organelle most likely to aid in the digestion of food particles.
Quick Tip: Associate the suffix "-lys-" with breakdown. "Lysosome" contains enzymes for lysis (breaking down). This simple word association can help you remember its primary function.


Question 55:

Which of the following organelles are NOT present in plant cells?

  • (A) Peroxisomes
  • (B) Golgi apparatus
  • (C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  • (D) Lysosome
Correct Answer: (4) Lysosome
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify an organelle from the list that is typically absent in plant cells. This requires knowledge of the differences between animal and plant cell structures.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's review the presence of each organelle in a typical plant cell:


1. Peroxisomes: These organelles are present in plant cells and are involved in various metabolic processes, including photorespiration.

2. Golgi apparatus: Present in plant cells, where it is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids, and is also crucial for synthesizing cell wall polysaccharides.

3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum: Present in plant cells, playing roles in lipid synthesis, detoxification, and calcium storage.

4. Lysosome: Lysosomes are characteristic organelles of animal cells, containing digestive enzymes. In plant cells, this digestive function is largely taken over by the large central vacuole. While some plant cells may contain small lysosome-like bodies, the distinct organelle known as a lysosome is generally considered to be absent from plant cells.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Lysosomes are generally not considered to be present in plant cells.
Quick Tip: Remember the three key structures present in plant cells but absent in animal cells: the cell wall, chloroplasts, and a large central vacuole. Conversely, lysosomes and centrioles are typically found in animal cells but not in plant cells.


Question 56:

Which microbiologist made first simple microscope to see the presence of tiny living organisms present in pond water?

  • (A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
  • (B) Zaccharias Janssen
  • (C) Robert Hooke
  • (D) Robert Brown
Correct Answer: (1) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the historical figure credited with the first observation of microorganisms.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the contributions of each scientist:


1. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723): A Dutch cloth merchant, he is known as the "Father of Microbiology." He crafted high-quality single-lens microscopes and was the first person to observe and meticulously describe single-celled organisms, which he called "animalcules" (now known as microorganisms), from samples like pond water and tooth scrapings.

2. Zaccharias Janssen (c. 1585-1632): He was a Dutch spectacle-maker who is often credited, along with his father Hans, with inventing the first compound microscope around 1590. However, he is not known for using it to observe microorganisms.

3. Robert Hooke (1635-1703): An English scientist who, in his book *Micrographia* (1665), coined the term "cell" after observing the structure of cork under a compound microscope. He observed the cell walls of dead plant cells, not living microorganisms.

4. Robert Brown (1773-1858): A Scottish botanist who discovered and named the cell nucleus in orchids in 1831. He also described Brownian motion.


Therefore, Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was the first to see and describe living microorganisms.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was the microbiologist who first used a simple microscope to see tiny living organisms in pond water.
Quick Tip: Associate names with key discoveries: Leeuwenhoek \(\rightarrow\) "animalcules" (microbes), Hooke \(\rightarrow\) "cell" (from cork), Brown \(\rightarrow\) nucleus.


Question 57:

Which of the fixatives is NOT used for sample preparation in TEM?

  • (A) Formaldehyde
  • (B) Glutaraldehyde
  • (C) Osmium tetroxide
  • (D) Coating with gold and palladium
Correct Answer: (4) Coating with gold and palladium
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a technique that is not a method of fixation for Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM). Fixation is the process of preserving a biological sample's structure as closely as possible to its living state.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine the options in the context of TEM sample preparation:


1. Formaldehyde and 2. Glutaraldehyde: These are aldehydes and are the most common primary chemical fixatives for TEM. They work by cross-linking proteins, which stabilizes the cell's ultrastructure.

3. Osmium tetroxide: This is typically used as a secondary fixative after aldehyde fixation. It cross-links and stabilizes cell membranes (lipids) and also acts as a heavy metal stain, increasing the contrast of the image.

4. Coating with gold and palladium: This is a technique called sputter coating. It involves depositing a thin layer of conductive metal onto the surface of a specimen. This is done to make the sample electrically conductive and to prevent the buildup of static charge when it is scanned by the electron beam. This technique is exclusively used for Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM), which visualizes the surface of objects, not for TEM, which passes electrons through a thin section of the sample.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Coating with gold and palladium is a technique used for SEM, not a fixation method for TEM.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: TEM (Transmission) looks *through* a very thin slice of the sample. SEM (Scanning) looks *at the surface* of the sample. Therefore, coating the surface with metal is an SEM technique.


Question 58:

Negative staining method is used for examining very small objects. It is generally used in ________

  • (A) TEM
  • (B) SEM
  • (C) Confocal Microscopy
  • (D) ESEM
Correct Answer: (1) TEM
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the type of microscopy for which the negative staining technique is primarily used.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Negative staining is a sample preparation technique where a specimen is suspended in a solution of an electron-dense material, such as uranyl acetate or phosphotungstic acid. When dried, the heavy metal stain forms a dark background around the much lighter, unstained specimen. This creates a high-contrast image that reveals the size and surface morphology of very small objects like viruses, bacteria, or macromolecules. Because this technique relies on the differential scattering of electrons passing through the stained background versus the unstained sample, it is a method used for Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM).


SEM and ESEM visualize surface topography and do not use negative staining.

Confocal Microscopy is a type of light microscopy that uses fluorescence and is not related to this staining method.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The negative staining method is generally used in TEM (Transmission Electron Microscopy).
Quick Tip: Think "negative" means staining the background, not the object itself. This method is perfect for seeing the outline or silhouette of tiny things like viruses, and it requires the "through-the-sample" view of a TEM.


Question 59:

The change of source of illumination from light to electrons significantly improved the ______________________ of the microscope.

  • (A) Resolving power
  • (B) Resolution
  • (C) Numerical aperture
  • (D) Magnification
Correct Answer: (1) Resolving power
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks which property of a microscope was most fundamentally improved by switching from using photons (light) to electrons as the illumination source.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The ability of a microscope to distinguish between two closely spaced points is known as its resolving power or resolution. This ability is fundamentally limited by the wavelength of the illumination used. The relationship is described by the Abbe diffraction limit, which states that the minimum resolvable distance (d) is proportional to the wavelength (\(\lambda\)). \[ d \propto \lambda \]
Electrons have a much shorter de Broglie wavelength than photons of visible light. By switching from light to electrons, the wavelength (\(\lambda\)) of the illumination source was reduced by several orders of magnitude. This dramatically decreased the minimum resolvable distance (d), thereby significantly increasing the microscope's ability to see fine details. This ability is called resolving power.

While magnification was also increased, the improvement in magnification is only useful if the resolving power is high enough to make the magnified details clear. The primary, limiting factor that was overcome was resolution. Resolving power is the direct measure of this ability.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The change of source of illumination from light to electrons significantly improved the resolving power of the microscope.
Quick Tip: Think of it this way: Resolution/Resolving Power is about clarity, while Magnification is about size. You can magnify a blurry image, but it just gets bigger and blurrier. The switch to electrons improved the fundamental clarity (resolving power), which then made higher magnifications meaningful.


Question 60:

Arrange the following in the order of their occurance in TCA cycle

(A) . Isocitric Acid
(B) . Citric Acid
(C) . Fumaric Acid
(D) . Malic Acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B), (A), (C), (D).
  • (B) (A), (B), (D), (C).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (1) (B), (A), (C), (D).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the given intermediate compounds in the correct sequence as they appear in the Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The TCA cycle is a series of chemical reactions used by all aerobic organisms to release stored energy. The sequence involving the given compounds is as follows:


(A) The cycle begins when Acetyl-CoA combines with Oxaloacetate to form (B) Citric Acid.


(B) Citric acid is then isomerized into its isomer, (A) Isocitric Acid.


(C) Isocitric acid is then oxidized and decarboxylated, leading to a series of other intermediates (alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate).


(D) Succinate is oxidized to form (C) Fumaric Acid.


(E) Fumaric acid is then hydrated to form (D) Malic Acid.


(F) Finally, Malic acid is oxidized back to Oxaloacetate, allowing the cycle to begin again.



Therefore, the correct chronological order for the given molecules is Citric Acid \(\rightarrow\) Isocitric Acid \(\rightarrow\) Fumaric Acid \(\rightarrow\) Malic Acid.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct order of occurrence in the TCA cycle is (B), (A), (C), (D).
Quick Tip: A helpful mnemonic for the TCA cycle intermediates is: "Citrate Is Krebs' Starting Substrate For Making Oxaloacetate". (Citrate, Isocitrate, \(\alpha\)-Ketoglutarate, Succinyl-CoA, Succinate, Fumarate, Malate, Oxaloacetate). This can help you quickly place the given compounds in the correct order.


Question 61:

Arrange the following spices in increasing order of their production based on Area and Production estimates of Horticulture Crops 2021-22 (Final) –

(A) . Turmeric
(B) . Tamarind
(C) . Garlic
(D) . Coriander

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B), (D), (A), (C).
  • (B) (D), (B), (A), (C).
  • (C) (B), (D), (C), (A).
  • (D) (D), (B), (C), (A).
Correct Answer: (1) (B), (D), (A), (C).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires arranging the given spices in increasing order (lowest to highest) based on their production volume in India for the year 2021-22, according to final horticulture estimates.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The approach involves recalling or referencing the production data for each spice from the specified government report and then ordering them from the smallest production quantity to the largest.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Based on the final estimates for horticulture crops for 2021-22 released by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, the approximate production figures are as follows:


(B) Tamarind: The production of tamarind is the lowest among the given options, estimated at around 2.01 lakh tonnes.

(D) Coriander: The production of coriander (seed spice) is estimated to be around 8.04 lakh tonnes.

(A) Turmeric: Turmeric production is significantly higher, estimated at around 13.31 lakh tonnes.

(C) Garlic: Garlic has the highest production among the four, estimated at a substantial 32.09 lakh tonnes.


Arranging these in increasing order of production:

Tamarind (B) \(\rightarrow\) Coriander (D) \(\rightarrow\) Turmeric (A) \(\rightarrow\) Garlic (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct sequence in increasing order of production is (B), (D), (A), (C).
Quick Tip: For questions based on production data, it's helpful to have a general idea of the scale of cultivation. Major bulb and rhizome spices like Garlic and Turmeric generally have much higher production volumes than seed spices like Coriander or tree spices like Tamarind.


Question 62:

Arrange the following Citrus fruits in increasing order of their area of cultivation based on Area and Production estimates of Horticulture Crops 2021-22 (Final) –

(A) . Lime/Lemon
(B) . Mandarin
(C) . Sweet Mosambi
(D) . Other Citrus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (D), (C), (A), (B).
  • (B) (C), (D), (B), (A).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (1) (D), (C), (A), (B).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the different categories of citrus fruits in increasing order based on the area of land used for their cultivation in India for the year 2021-22.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The approach is to find the area under cultivation for each citrus category from the 2021-22 horticulture estimates and then order them from smallest to largest area.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

According to the final estimates for 2021-22, the area under cultivation for different citrus fruits in India is approximately as follows:


(D) Other Citrus: This category includes fruits like grapefruit, pummelo, etc., and has the smallest cultivation area, estimated at around 37,000 hectares.

(C) Sweet Orange (Mosambi): The area under sweet orange is estimated to be around 202,000 hectares.

(A) Lime/Lemon: The area under lime and lemon is the second largest, estimated at around 332,000 hectares.

(B) Mandarin: This category, which includes oranges like Nagpur Santra and Kinnow, has the largest area under cultivation, estimated at around 439,000 hectares.


Arranging these in increasing order of area:

Other Citrus (D) \(\rightarrow\) Sweet Mosambi (C) \(\rightarrow\) Lime/Lemon (A) \(\rightarrow\) Mandarin (B).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct sequence in increasing order of cultivation area is (D), (C), (A), (B).
Quick Tip: In India, Mandarin oranges (especially Kinnow and Nagpur Santra) dominate citrus cultivation in terms of area, followed by Limes/Lemons. Sweet Oranges (Mosambi) are third, with other minor citrus fruits occupying the smallest area.


Question 63:

Sapota fruits are highly perishable and ripen within 5-7 days.

(A) . Sapota is a climacteric fruit
(B) . Fruits of sapota can be harvested at physiological maturity
(C) . Sapota can be ripened artifically for use as table fruit
(D) . Sapota can be stored in a refrigerator for nearly six months

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (A), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the correct statements regarding the physiology and post-harvest handling of Sapota (Chikoo).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:


(A) Sapota is a climacteric fruit: This is correct. Sapota exhibits a distinct climacteric pattern, with a sharp increase in respiration and ethylene production during ripening.

(B) Fruits of sapota can be harvested at physiological maturity: This is correct. As a climacteric fruit, it is harvested once it reaches physiological maturity but is still firm, and it can then ripen off the tree.

(C) Sapota can be ripened artificially for use as table fruit: This is correct. Because it is climacteric and responds to ethylene, ripening can be induced and made uniform by treating the mature fruits with ethylene-releasing chemicals like ethephon.

(D) Sapota can be stored in a refrigerator for nearly six months: This is incorrect. The introductory sentence itself states that sapota is highly perishable. Its storage life, even under refrigerated conditions, is typically only 2-3 weeks, not six months.


Therefore, the correct statements are (A), (B), and (C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct option is the one that includes statements (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: For any fruit, if you know it's climacteric (like banana, mango, sapota), you can infer that it can be harvested mature-green and ripened artificially with ethylene. This links statements A, B, and C together.


Question 64:

Which of the following is a hybrid guava with pink flesh used for table as well as processing purpose?

  • (A) Arka Anmol
  • (B) Lucknow 49
  • (C) Shweta
  • (D) Arka Kiran
Correct Answer: (4) Arka Kiran
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a specific hybrid guava variety with two key characteristics: pink flesh and suitability for both fresh consumption (table) and processing.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's review the given varieties:


1. Arka Anmol: This is a hybrid from IIHR, Bengaluru, but it is known for its white flesh.

2. Lucknow 49: Also known as Sardar, this is a very popular selection variety, famous for its white flesh and excellent quality.

3. Shweta: This is another white-fleshed guava variety.

4. Arka Kiran: This is a hybrid variety (Kamsari \(\times\) Purple Local) released by IIHR, Bengaluru. It is specifically known for its deep red/pink flesh, high lycopene content, relatively soft seeds, and excellent quality, making it suitable for both table and processing purposes (like making juice or puree).



Step 3: Final Answer:

Arka Kiran is the hybrid guava variety with pink flesh that fits the description.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to the prefix 'Arka,' which indicates a variety from the Indian Institute of Horticultural Research (IIHR). IIHR has released several notable guava varieties. 'Arka Kiran' and 'Arka Rashmi' are particularly known for their red/pink pulp.


Question 65:

Recommended for loose flower as well as perfumery, Prajwal is a variety of which of the following flowers?

  • (A) Tuberose
  • (B) Rose
  • (C) Marigold
  • (D) Jasminum
Correct Answer: (1) Tuberose
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the flower crop to which the variety 'Prajwal' belongs, given its use for loose flowers and perfumery.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

'Prajwal' is a well-known and commercially important variety of Tuberose (*Polianthes tuberosa*). It is a double-flowered hybrid developed at the Indian Institute of Horticultural Research (IIHR), Bengaluru. It is highly valued for its long spikes, high yield of flowers, and strong fragrance, making it ideal for both the cut flower market (as spikes) and loose flower market, as well as for the extraction of its essential oil for the perfumery industry.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Prajwal is a variety of Tuberose.
Quick Tip: When a question mentions "perfumery" in the context of Indian floriculture, Tuberose and Jasmine are the two most likely candidates. Knowing specific popular varieties like 'Prajwal' for Tuberose or 'Gundumalli' for Jasmine is very helpful.


Question 66:

Which of the following is the type of fruit in Pyrus communis or European Pear ?

  • (A) Berry
  • (B) Hesperidium
  • (C) Pome
  • (D) Drupe
Correct Answer: (3) Pome
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the botanical classification of the fruit of the European Pear (*Pyrus communis*).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's define the fruit types:


Berry: A fleshy fruit that develops from a single ovary and contains multiple seeds (e.g., grape, tomato).

Hesperidium: A modified berry with a leathery rind containing oil glands (e.g., orange, lemon).

Pome: A type of accessory fruit where the fleshy part develops from the floral tube (hypanthium) that surrounds the ovary. The core with the seeds develops from the ovary itself. This fruit type is characteristic of the subtribe Malinae of the Rosaceae family, which includes apple, pear, and quince.

Drupe: A fleshy fruit with a hard, stony endocarp (the "pit") surrounding a single seed (e.g., peach, plum, mango).


The fruit structure of a pear, with its fleshy edible part developing from the hypanthium and the papery core containing the seeds, is a classic example of a pome.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The fruit type of the European Pear is a Pome.
Quick Tip: Remember the "big three" of pome fruits: Apple, Pear, and Quince. If you see any of these in a question about fruit type, the answer is almost certainly "pome."


Question 67:

Name of the self-incompatible cultivar of apricot, which requires a pollinizer for commercial cultivation.

  • (A) Halman
  • (B) Nari
  • (C) Charmagz
  • (D) Turkey
Correct Answer: (1) Halman
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a variety of apricot that is self-incompatible, meaning its flowers cannot be fertilized by their own pollen and thus require pollen from a different, compatible variety (a pollinizer) to set fruit.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine the options:


1. Halman: This is a leading commercial cultivar of apricot, especially in the dry temperate regions of India like Ladakh. It is well-known to be self-incompatible and requires inter-planting with pollinizer varieties like Rakchakarpo or Suffaida for successful fruit set.

2. Nari: This is another apricot cultivar, but it is not as famously self-incompatible as Halman.

3. Charmagz: This is an apricot variety primarily grown for its sweet kernel, which is used as a dry fruit. It is generally self-fruitful.

4. Turkey: This is a self-fruitful apricot variety.


Therefore, 'Halman' is the correct answer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Halman is a self-incompatible cultivar of apricot that requires a pollinizer.
Quick Tip: In temperate fruits like apple, pear, cherry, and apricot, self-incompatibility is a common issue. Knowing the key self-incompatible varieties (like Halman apricot or Red Delicious apple) and the concept of a pollinizer is crucial for pomology-related exams.


Question 68:

Which of the following is a critical parameter for drought tolerance in dryland fruits?

  • (A) Large stomata
  • (B) Shallow root system
  • (C) Large sized leaves
  • (D) Short duration varieties
Correct Answer: (4) Short duration varieties
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for a critical characteristic or strategy that enables fruit crops to be tolerant to drought conditions found in drylands.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options as mechanisms for drought tolerance:


1. Large stomata: This is incorrect. Plants adapted to dry conditions (xerophytes) typically have smaller, sunken, or fewer stomata to reduce water loss through transpiration.

2. Shallow root system: This is incorrect. A deep and extensive root system is a key adaptation for drought tolerance, as it allows the plant to explore a larger volume of soil and access water from deeper layers.

3. Large sized leaves: This is incorrect. Large leaves have a greater surface area, which increases water loss via transpiration. Drought-tolerant plants often have small, modified, or waxy leaves.

4. Short duration varieties: This is a correct and critical strategy known as "drought escape". By having a short life cycle, these varieties can complete their growth and reproductive phases during the brief period when moisture is available (e.g., the rainy season), thus escaping the most severe period of drought. This is a very effective parameter for successful cultivation in drylands.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Short duration varieties are a critical parameter for drought tolerance in dryland fruits.
Quick Tip: Drought tolerance strategies can be categorized as: drought escape (short duration), drought avoidance (e.g., deep roots, reduced leaf area to conserve water), and drought tolerance (biochemical mechanisms to withstand low water potential). 'Drought escape' is a very important strategy for annual crops and some fruit varieties in arid regions.


Question 69:

The bitter component in Momordica charantia is

  • (A) Betain
  • (B) Melanin
  • (C) Cucurbitacin
  • (D) Bromellin
Correct Answer: (3) Cucurbitacin
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the specific biochemical compound responsible for the characteristic bitter taste of bitter gourd (*Momordica charantia*).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the given options:


1. Betain: A compound found in beets, contributing to their earthy flavor.

2. Melanin: A pigment responsible for coloration in skin, hair, and eyes; not a flavor compound.

3. Cucurbitacin: This is a class of triterpenoid compounds that are known for their intensely bitter taste. They are found in many plants of the gourd family (Cucurbitaceae), including bitter gourd, cucumbers, and squashes. The specific cucurbitacins in bitter gourd are the primary source of its bitterness and are also studied for their medicinal properties.

4. Bromelain: A protein-digesting enzyme complex found in pineapple.


Therefore, the bitterness in bitter gourd is due to cucurbitacins.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The bitter component in *Momordica charantia* is Cucurbitacin.
Quick Tip: Remember the family name: Bitter gourd belongs to the Cucurbitaceae family. The characteristic bitter compounds found in this family are called "cucurbitacins." This direct link makes the answer easy to recall.


Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching the botanical names of plants in List-I with their correct horticultural or economic classification in List-II.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each plant to its category:


(A) *Feronia limonia* (Wood Apple): This is a very hardy, drought-tolerant tree, making it an ideal (III) Dryland fruit.

(B) *Prunus amygdalus* (Almond): Almond is a nut crop that thrives in Mediterranean and temperate climates, classifying it as a (I) Temperate nut.

(C) *Sechium edule* (Chayote/Chow-Chow): This is a vine that produces a fruit used as a vegetable. It belongs to the gourd family, making it a (IV) Cucurbitaceous vegetable.

(D) *Cocos nucifera* (Coconut): The coconut palm is a major tropical crop cultivated on a large scale or in plantations for its various products (copra, oil, water, fiber), classifying it as a (II) Plantation crop.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) II.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is given in option 4.
Quick Tip: Knowing the common names for botanical names is half the battle. *Feronia limonia* = Wood Apple, *Prunus amygdalus* = Almond, *Sechium edule* = Chayote, *Cocos nucifera* = Coconut. Once you know the common names, the classification becomes much easier.


Question 71:

What is the inflorescence found in banana known as?

  • (A) Spadix
  • (B) Panicle
  • (C) Spike
  • (D) Solitary
Correct Answer: (1) Spadix
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the botanical term for the type of inflorescence (flower cluster) found in a banana plant.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

An inflorescence is the arrangement of flowers on a floral axis. Different types are classified based on their structure.


A Spike is an inflorescence with sessile (stalkless) flowers arranged on an elongated axis.

A Spadix is a special type of spike where the axis (peduncle) is thick and fleshy, and the entire structure is typically enclosed by a large, colorful bract called a spathe.

A Panicle is a branched, indeterminate inflorescence.

Solitary means a single flower, not a cluster.


The banana inflorescence consists of a large, pendulous, fleshy axis bearing clusters of flowers, which are covered by large purplish bracts (the spathe). This structure perfectly matches the definition of a spadix.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The inflorescence found in banana is known as a Spadix.
Quick Tip: Remember that a spadix is a characteristic feature of the banana plant, as well as plants in the Araceae family (like the peace lily) and palms. The key features are the fleshy axis (spadix) and the large bract (spathe).


Question 72:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching different modes of fruit development with their classic botanical examples.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each statement in List-I to the correct example in List-II:


(A) Thalamus contributes to fruit formation: This describes an accessory or false fruit, where parts other than the ovary (like the thalamus or receptacle) form the main fleshy part. The (IV) Apple is a classic example of this, where the edible portion is the swollen thalamus.

(B) Ovary forms fruit: This describes a true fruit, which develops solely from the ovary. The (I) Tomato is a true fruit (specifically, a berry) that develops from the plant's ovary.

(C) Fruit develops without fertilisation: This process is called parthenocarpy. The (II) Banana is a well-known example of a naturally parthenocarpic fruit.

(D) Fruit develops from inflorescence: This describes a multiple or composite fruit, which develops from the fusion of an entire flower cluster (inflorescence). The (III) Pineapple is a classic example, developing from a spike inflorescence.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) IV, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) II, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is given in option 2.
Quick Tip: For fruit morphology questions, memorize the key examples: Apple (False fruit), Mango (True fruit), Banana (Parthenocarpic fruit), Pineapple (Multiple fruit). This covers the most common question types.


Question 73:

Arrange the following in the correct sequence

(A) . Inability of different plants to unite successfully when grafted is termed incompatibility
(B) . Unrelated plants grafted together are likely to be incompatible
(C) . Such plants gradually develop distress symptoms like stunted growth, etc.
(D) . This may be due to abnormal growth at the graft union

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (C), (B), (A), (D).
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (A), (D), (C), (B).
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the given statements into a logical sequence that correctly describes the concept of graft incompatibility.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A logical explanation of graft incompatibility would follow this order: premise \(\rightarrow\) definition \(\rightarrow\) physical cause \(\rightarrow\) observable symptom.


(A) (B) Unrelated plants grafted together are likely to be incompatible. This is the starting premise or general rule. Grafting success depends on taxonomic relatedness.


(B) (A) Inability of different plants to unite successfully when grafted is termed incompatibility. This statement provides the formal definition of the phenomenon introduced in statement (B).


(C) (D) This may be due to abnormal growth at the graft union. This statement explains the physiological or anatomical reason for the failure to unite, describing what happens at the physical junction.


(D) (C) Such plants gradually develop distress symptoms like stunted growth, etc. This is the final step, describing the long-term, visible consequences or symptoms of the incompatibility.



Therefore, the correct logical sequence is (B), (A), (D), (C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence of the statements is (B), (A), (D), (C).
Quick Tip: For sequence questions, identify the most general statement or the initial cause to be the starting point. Then, find the final outcome or result as the endpoint. Arrange the intermediate statements to form a logical bridge between the start and end.


Question 74:

All fruit, vegetable as well as flowers have to go through a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life cycle before they can reproduce sexually. This stage is known as

  • (A) Precocious phase
  • (B) Reproductive phase
  • (C) Flowering phase
  • (D) Juvenile phase
Correct Answer: (4) Juvenile phase
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the name of the pre-reproductive stage in a plant's life cycle.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The life cycle of a plant is typically divided into two main stages:


Juvenile phase (or Vegetative phase): This is the initial period of growth after germination, during which the plant is physiologically immature and cannot reproduce sexually (i.e., it cannot produce flowers and fruits). Its energy is focused on developing roots, stems, and leaves.

Reproductive phase (or Adult/Mature phase): After the juvenile phase, the plant becomes capable of sexual reproduction. This phase is often marked by the onset of flowering. The flowering phase is part of the broader reproductive phase.


The "precocious phase" is not a standard term; "precocious" means developing unusually early, which is an exception, not the rule.

The question describes the stage before the plant can reproduce, which is the juvenile phase.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The stage of growth before a plant can reproduce sexually is known as the Juvenile phase.
Quick Tip: Think of the term "juvenile" as it applies to animals and humans—it refers to the youth or pre-adult stage. It's the same concept for plants; the juvenile phase is the period of vegetative growth before reproductive maturity.


Question 75:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching different mechanisms of pollination with plants that are classic examples of each mechanism.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each term in List-I with its correct example from List-II:


(A) Autogamy: This is self-pollination. The flower structure of the (II) Garden pea promotes self-pollination, making it a classic example of autogamy.

(B) Cleistogamy: This is a form of autogamy where pollination occurs within flowers that never open. (I) Oxalis is a well-known example of a plant that produces such closed, self-pollinating (cleistogamous) flowers in addition to normal open flowers.

(C) Dichogamy: This is a mechanism to promote cross-pollination where the male and female reproductive parts of a flower mature at different times. (IV) Avocado is a famous example of synchronized dichogamy, where flowers function as female one day and male the next.

(D) Allogamy: This is cross-pollination between different plants. The (III) Date palm is dioecious, meaning individual plants are either male or female. Therefore, it absolutely requires cross-pollination (allogamy) for fruit production.


The correct matching is: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct combination of matches is given in option 3.
Quick Tip: For pollination mechanisms, associate key terms with examples: Cleistogamy = closed flowers (Oxalis, Viola), Dichogamy = different maturation times (Avocado, Walnut), Dioecy (requires Allogamy) = separate male/female plants (Date Palm, Papaya).

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