CUET PG Healthcare and Hospital Management Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Healthcare and Hospital Management exam was conducted on 18th March 2025 in Shift 1. Candidates who appeared for the exam can download the official question paper, answer key, and solutions PDF for review and preparation. The exam covers key topics such as healthcare systems, hospital operations, public health policies, healthcare laws, medical ethics, hospital information systems, and strategic management in healthcare.

There are 75 multiple-choice questions to be answered in 60 minutes. Each correct answer awards 4 marks, with 1 mark deducted for each wrong answer.

CUET PG Healthcare and Hospital Management 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Healthcare and Hospital Management Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Healthcare and Hospital Management 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

What implies to harmony and integration within the individual, between each individual and other members of society and between individuals and the world in which they live?

  • (A) Physical Dimension of Health
  • (B) Mental Dimension of Health
  • (C) Social Dimension of Health
  • (D) Emotional Dimension of Health

Question 2:

Lifestyle factors that promote good health does not include which of the following?

  • (A) Adequate Nutrition
  • (B) Enough Sleep
  • (C) Sufficient Physical Activity
  • (D) Genetic Composition

Question 3:

What defines the "Reliability" of health indicators?

  • (A) They should actually measure what they are supposed to measure.
  • (B) The answers should be the same if measured by different people in similar circumstances.
  • (C) They should be sensitive to changes in the situation concerned.
  • (D) They should have the ability to obtain the data needed.

Question 4:

Which of the following terms has been defined by WHO as "the control of all those factors in man's physical environment which exercise or may exercise a deleterious effect on his physical development, health and survival"?

  • (A) Environmental Sanitation
  • (B) Environmental Health
  • (C) Environmental Standard
  • (D) Environmental Control

Question 5:

Which of the statement is FALSE in relation to "Ground Water"?

  • (A) It is likely to be free from pathogenic agents.
  • (B) It is more subjected to contamination than surface water.
  • (C) It is superior to surface water, because the ground itself provides an effective filtering medium.
  • (D) The supply of Ground Water is likely to be certain even during dry season.

Question 6:

What is the full form of NOAEL which is defined as the highest dose or concentration of a chemical in a single study, found by experiment or observation, that causes no detectable adverse health effects?

  • (A) No-observed-adverse-effect level.
  • (B) No-observed-adverse-essential level.
  • (C) Nil-observed-adverse-effect level.
  • (D) No-observed-adequate-effect level.

Question 7:

What does the unit "Becquerel (Bq)" define?

  • (A) The activity of a pathogenic material.
  • (B) The activity of a radio-active material.
  • (C) The activity of a chemical material.
  • (D) A hardness of material.

Question 8:

Medical sociology is a specialization within the field of sociology. It was first proposed by whom?

  • (A) Robert K. Merton
  • (B) Malcom V
  • (C) Charles McIntire
  • (D) Bostonee T.D

Question 9:

The speciality of family practice is specially designed to deliver which type of care?

  • (A) "Primary care"
  • (B) "Secondary care"
  • (C) "Tertiary care"
  • (D) "Quaternary care"

Question 10:

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

  • (A) Contraceptive methods which may be quite suitable for one group may be unsuitable for another, because of different cultural patterns.
  • (B) The social obstetric problems in India, differ from the social obstetric problems in the developed countries, because of cultural factors.
  • (C) Studying the cultural patterns relating to child-bearing might be useful in promoting acceptance and utilization of obstetric and paediatric services by the community.
  • (D) The traditions affecting habits related to cleanliness, eating, clothing, and child care are unaffected by cultural factors.

Question 11:

"Security that society furnishes through appropriate organization, against certain risks to which its members are exposed" is termed as which of the following?

  • (A) Society security
  • (B) Health security
  • (C) Social security
  • (D) Community security

Question 12:

Waste in health care processes can be classified into how many types?

  • (A) Five
  • (B) Six
  • (C) Seven
  • (D) Four

Question 13:

The process that involves mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal, in order to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the wastes migrating into the surface water or ground water is termed as?

  • (A) Inertization
  • (B) Incineration
  • (C) Land disposal
  • (D) Microwave irradiation

Question 14:

Who is the father of epidemiology?

  • (A) John Snow
  • (B) Paracelsus
  • (C) Andreas Vesalius
  • (D) Ambroise Pare

Question 15:

Active immunity is not acquired by which of the following?

  • (A) After clinical infection.
  • (B) After administration of an antibody-containing preparation.
  • (C) After subclinical or inapparent infection.
  • (D) After immunization with an antigen which may be a live attenuated vaccine or toxoid.

Question 16:

The introduction of a gene sequence into a cell with the aim of modifying the cell's behaviour in a clinically relevant fashion is termed as?

  • (A) Gene therapy
  • (B) DNA technology
  • (C) Cell technology
  • (D) DNA therapy

Question 17:

Which condition is known to be highly endemic in Sub-Himalayan regions?

  • (A) Xerophthalmia
  • (B) Protein-Energy Malnutrition
  • (C) Goitre
  • (D) Anemia

Question 18:

Who discovered vaccination against smallpox in 1796?

  • (A) Louis Pasteur
  • (B) Walter Reed
  • (C) James Lind
  • (D) Edward Jenner

Question 19:

What is defined as, "The process of continuous progressive improvement of the health status of a population"?

  • (A) Continuous development
  • (B) Health development
  • (C) Progressive development
  • (D) Population development

Question 20:

In which year the urban leprosy control programme was initiated to address the complex problem of larger population size, migration, poor health infrastructure and increasing leprosy cases in urban areas?

  • (A) 2005
  • (B) 2006
  • (C) 2007
  • (D) 2008

Question 21:

Which of the following statements is false in terms of the peculiarities of a hospital system?

  • (A) A hospital is a closed system which interacts within its environment.
  • (B) The boundaries separating the hospital system from other social systems are not clear.
  • (C) A hospital system has to be in a dynamic equilibrium with the wider social system.
  • (D) A hospital system is not an end in itself. It must function, as a part of the larger health care system.

Question 22:

What type of communication covers horizontal flow of information with people on same organisational level, and also diagonal flow with persons at different levels who have no direct reporting relationships?

  • (A) Downward Communication
  • (B) Upward Communication
  • (C) Crosswise Communication
  • (D) Sideways Communication

Question 23:

What is defined as "performing a dangerous or wanton act that may cause injury but without the intention to cause injury"?

  • (A) Criminal rashness
  • (B) Criminal negligence
  • (C) Civil negligence
  • (D) Contributory negligence

Question 24:

How many essential elements of PHC (Primary Health Care) has been described by the WHO?

  • (A) Six
  • (B) Seven
  • (C) Eight
  • (D) Nine

Question 25:

The charitable or not-for-profit hospitals are exempted from which Act?

  • (A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1948
  • (B) Payment of Bonus Act, 1956
  • (C) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
  • (D) Payment of Wages Act, 1936

Question 26:

Which of the following is the entry point into the health system in India?

  • (A) Primary care
  • (B) Secondary care
  • (C) Tertiary care
  • (D) Quaternary care

Question 27:

The clinics which are located away from the main hospital OPD, to serve defined concentration of populations, but having links with the main hospital are termed as:

  • (A) Filter Clinics
  • (B) Selective Clinics
  • (C) Resource Clinics
  • (D) Satellite Clinics

Question 28:

The space required for uncluttered movement of personnel and materials within the department between various technical work stations, rooms, stores and other auxiliary and administrative areas is termed as ______ space.

  • (A) Circulation
  • (B) Primary
  • (C) Secondary
  • (D) Laboratory

Question 29:

The term COPD is defined by which of the following options?

  • (A) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease.
  • (B) Coutaneous Obstructive Pulmonary Disease.
  • (C) Chronic Occlusive Pulmonary Disease.
  • (D) Chronic Obstructive Pediatric Disease.

Question 30:

Which department is responsible for processing, sterilizing and dispensing of almost all items of sterile equipment, sets and dressings in the hospital?

  • (A) Central sterile source department (CSSD)
  • (B) Central sterile supply department (CSSD)
  • (C) Central sterilizing supply department (CSSD)
  • (D) Common sterile supply department (CSSD)

Question 31:

Select the Act that deals with the establishment of pharmacies and drug stores and with the profession of pharmacist.

  • (A) The Pharmacy Act, 1948
  • (B) The Pharmacist Act, 1958
  • (C) The Pharmacy Act, 1940
  • (D) The Pharmacist Act, 1948

Question 32:

Which term defines the services that include the laundering of linen, storage of clean linen and repair and replacement of all linen in a hospital?

  • (A) Linen and Laundry Service
  • (B) Cleaning Service
  • (C) Linen remodelling Service
  • (D) Washing Service

Question 33:

The National Building Code of the ISI suggests how many litres of water per consumer day (LPCD) for hospitals up to 100 beds.

  • (A) 355
  • (B) 375
  • (C) 400
  • (D) 455

Question 34:

A systematic or step by step approach intended to achieve the desired functions of a product, process, system or service at an overall minimum cost without in any way affecting quality, reliability, performance, delivery or safety of environment is termed as ______ engineering.

  • (A) Value
  • (B) Critical
  • (C) Service
  • (D) Systematic

Question 35:

Which of the following measures the hardness of water for different salts?

  • (A) parts per million
  • (B) parts per trillion
  • (C) parts per thousand
  • (D) parts per hundred

Question 36:

Which inventory management means that inventory supplies are delivered as soon as needed by the health care organization, the prescribing doctor, or the patient?

  • (A) JIT inventory management
  • (B) MIT inventory management
  • (C) CIT inventory management
  • (D) AIT inventory management

Question 37:

Michael Porter competitive strategies take into account how many forces for understanding the underlying fundamentals of competition?

  • (A) Two
  • (B) Three
  • (C) Four
  • (D) Five

Question 38:

CT is a specialised X-ray examination. CT stands for?

  • (A) Computed Tonography
  • (B) Computer Tomography
  • (C) Computed Totalgraphy
  • (D) Computer Totalgrdphy

Question 39:

Which of the following is not the technique of management and control of inventories?

  • (A) ABC analysis
  • (B) VED analysis
  • (C) Economic order quantity
  • (D) BCG analysis

Question 40:

The infection that develops in admitted patients after more than 48 hours of hospitalization is termed as ______ infection.

  • (A) Cytotoxic
  • (B) Comprehensive
  • (C) Nosocomial
  • (D) Community

Question 41:

Which Act provides a simple, speedy and inexpensive redressal for consumer grievances relating to defective goods, deficient services and unfair trade practices?

  • (A) Customer Protection Act
  • (B) Consumer Protection Act
  • (C) Consumer Grievances Act
  • (D) Service Protection Act

Question 42:

Which committee will have the responsibility for monitoring the occurrence of hospital infection and recommend corrective action?

  • (A) Hospital Control Committee
  • (B) Infection Monitoring Committee
  • (C) Hospital Monitoring Committee
  • (D) Infection Control Committee

Question 43:

Which Act implemented in 1996 includes provisions related to insurance, privacy, security, transactional, and code sets?

  • (A) HIPAA
  • (B) NIPAA
  • (C) LIPAA
  • (D) RIPAA

Question 44:

The matrix designed to apply the traditional public health domains of host, agent, and disease to primary, secondary, and tertiary injury factors is termed as ______ matrix.

  • (A) Headon
  • (B) Seddon
  • (C) Haddon
  • (D) Headdon

Question 45:

Which tag indicates a seriously injured patient who requires some medical stabilization in the field prior to transportation, but whose life is not immediately threatened?

  • (A) Red tag
  • (B) Yellow tag
  • (C) Green tag
  • (D) Orange tag

Question 46:

Arrange the definition of epidemiology given by different authors in a chronological order starting from oldest to the latest definition.

A. That branch of medical science which treats epidemics (Parkin).
B. The study of disease, any disease, as a mass phenomenon (Greenwood).
C. The science of the mass phenomenon of infectious diseases (Frost).
D. The study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency in man (MacMahon).

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 47:

Control programmes are designed to meet the unique needs of each country's health care system, its resources and priorities. Arrange the steps involved from start to end sequentially:

A. Establishing Priorities
B. Problem Definition
C. Considering Strategies
D. Setting Objectives

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) B, A, D, C
  • (C) B, D, A, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 48:

Nalgonda technique for defluoridation of water involves the following steps. Arrange them sequentially from first to last step.

A. Addition of two chemicals (lime and alum)
B. Sedimentation
C. Flocculation
D. Filtration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 49:

Arrange the following steps in a sequential manner from beginning to end for the biomedical waste management processes.

A. Segregation
B. Packaging
C. Transportation
D. Storage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 50:

Arrange the four stages in the life cycle of mosquito from the first stage to the last stage.

A. Adult
B. Larva
C. Egg
D. Pupa

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 51:

Arrange the levels of prevention in relation to the natural history of disease.

A. Primordial prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Primary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 52:

The Government of India has introduced a series of programmes to address maternal and newborn health. Arrange the major milestones in chronological order from oldest to new.

A. Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme
B. National Health Mission
C. National Rural Health Mission
D. India Newborn Action Plan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 53:

Arrange in chronological order from oldest to new, the notable hospitals established in the western world in the ancient times.

A. Bartholomew's Hospital
B. Bellevue Hospital
C. Pennsylvania Hospital
D. Massachusetts Hospital

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, D, B
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 54:

Arrange the steps in sequential manner as followed for Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT).

A. Planning
B. Organising
C. Scheduling
D. Coordinating and Controlling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 55:

Arrange the activities at CSSD in a sequential manner for effective maintenance of sterilization.

A. Washing, cleaning and drying
B. Receipt of used supplies
C. Packing
D. Sorting

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) B, D, A, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 56:

Select the characteristic features of marketing from the following.

A. Marketing is a management process.
B. Marketing offers and exchanges ideas, goods or services.
C. Marketing involves raising the pricing irrespective of the customer's demand.
D. Marketing is not anticipating customer's requirements.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 57:

The basic ethical principles in critical care medicine include:

A. Beneficence
B. Patient autonomy
C. Justice
D. Maleficence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 58:

The colour coding of waste categories for disposal of biomedical waste include:

A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Black

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A, B, and C
  • (D) A, B, C and D

Question 59:

The Operation theatre is planned on the concept of zones, predicted on the types of activities, patterns of circulation and degree of sterility to be maintained. They are:

A. Disposal zone
B. Protective zone
C. Autonomous zone
D. Sterile zone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 60:

High efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters have the following characteristic features:

A. They are dry type filter.
B. Non-reusable filter.
C. Remove 99.9 per cent of airborne particles.
D. Remove dust, pollen, mold and bacteria.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 61:

The Administrative Departments in the Hospital include:

A. Accounts department
B. Linen and laundry department
C. General OPD
D. Housekeeping

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 62:

A management decision model comprises of the following elements:

A. A clear idea of what is to be achieved
B. An appreciation of insource constraints
C. An identification of risk factors
D. A comparison of payoff value with input costs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 63:

Some of the syndromes associated with abnormalities of sex chromosomes are:

A. Cerebral palsy
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Turner's syndrome
D. Super females

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 64:

Health care has many characteristics; they include:

A. Appropriateness
B. Adequacy
C. Apprehension
D. Affordability

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 65:

Socio-economic determinants of Health include:

A. Economic status
B. Education
C. Political system
D. Gender

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B and C
  • (D) A, B, C and D

Question 66:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 67:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 68:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 69:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 70:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 71:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 72:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 73:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 74:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 75:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

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