CUET PG Food Science and Technology 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Oct 3, 2025

The CUET PG Food Science and Technology exam in 2025 will take place between 13th May and 3rd June, and students can download the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF after the exam. This exam evaluates knowledge in food chemistry, microbiology, food safety, preservation methods, quality control, sensory evaluation, and nutrition.

There will be 75 questions, and candidates will have 60 minutes to complete the paper for a total of 300 marks. 4 marks are awarded per correct answer, with 1 mark deducted for each incorrect one.

CUET PG Food Science and Technology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Food Science and Technology Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

 


CUET PG Food Science and Technology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The addition of aluminium to the packaging materials for better conduction in microwave is known as __________

  • (A) Susceptors
  • (B) Docking
  • (C) Coating
  • (D) Lamination

Question 2:

Red muscle fibres have __________ myoglobin than white muscle fibre.

  • (A) higher
  • (B) lower
  • (C) dense
  • (D) thin

Question 3:

Foaming is a functional property attributed to the __________ component of food.

  • (A) protein
  • (B) fat
  • (C) minerals
  • (D) sugars

Question 4:

Pectin is primarily composed of__________

  • (A) galactose and glucose
  • (B) fructose
  • (C) galacto-pyranosyl uronic acid
  • (D) amylose

Question 5:

Candling of egg reveals the presence of __________

  • (A) blood spot
  • (B) hazards
  • (C) vitelline membrane
  • (D) microorganisms

Question 6:

The standard weight of extra large size grade hen eggs, ranges __________ g

  • (A) 38 - 44
  • (B) More than 60
  • (C) 53 - 59
  • (D) 45 - 52

Question 7:

The major microorganism responsible for food infection transmitted through eggs is __________

  • (A) E. coli
  • (B) Salmonella
  • (C) Pseudomonas
  • (D) Clostridium botulinum

Question 8:

Match List-I with List-II


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 9:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 10:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 11:

The term "GRAS" stands for:

  • (A) Generally Recognized As Stable
  • (B) Generally Recommended As Safe
  • (C) Generally Regarded As Stable
  • (D) Generally Recognized As Safe

Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 13:

The sequence of biscuit manufacturing process generally involves:

(A). Cooling and packing
(B). Forming
(C). Baking
(D). Mixing

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (D), (B), (C), (A).
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 14:

The process for the development of cocoa mass follows a sequence of

(A). Milling
(B). Cleaning and roasting
(C). Breaking and winnowing
(D). Fermentation of dried beans

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (B) (D), (B), (C), (A).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 15:

Syneresis or weeping is a defect in__________

  • (A) Jelly
  • (B) Pickles
  • (C) Juices
  • (D) Jam

Question 16:

Arrange the processing steps of Jelly marmalade in a proper sequence:

(A). Selection and preparation of fruit
(B). Preparation of sherds & peels
(C). Boiling and cleaning of pectin
(D). Canning and sterilization

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (D), (C).
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (C) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 17:

Natural carotenes can be extracted from__________

  • (A) saffron
  • (B) soyabean
  • (C) beans
  • (D) pear

Question 18:

The process of yoghurt manufacture involves the following sequence

(A). Homogenization of milk
(B). Standardization of milk
(C). Pasteurization, cooling followed by addition of starter culture
(D). Fermentation, packaging and storage

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (B) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (D) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Question 19:

Toxic constituent in Vicia faba may cause __________ pathological disorder.

  • (A) Favism
  • (B) Lathyrism
  • (C) Rickets
  • (D) Blindness

Question 20:

Which of the following legume is considered as the poor man's pulse?

  • (A) Field bean
  • (B) Horse gram
  • (C) Green gram
  • (D) Lentil

Question 21:

Which of the following are polyunsaturated fatty acids (n-6)?

(A). Linoleic
(B). \(\gamma\)- Linolenic
(C). Arachidonic
(D). Oleic

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 22:

Durum wheat is used for the making of __________

  • (A) Pasta
  • (B) Cake
  • (C) Pastry
  • (D) Cookies

Question 23:

Freshly milled wheat flour used for bread making is matured for __________ months during storage.

  • (A) 3 to 4
  • (B) 2 to 3
  • (C) 1 to 2
  • (D) 5 to 6

Question 24:

The yellow colour of the cow milk is due to the presence of__________

  • (A) sterols
  • (B) albumin
  • (C) phospholipids
  • (D) carotenoids

Question 25:

Sequentially arrange the processing steps involved in the manufacturing of cheddar cheese

(A). Standardization
(B). Pre-heating
(C). Addition of starter culture
(D). Pasteurization

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (D), (C).
  • (B) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 26:

Foods which are specially processed or formulated to satisfy a particular dietary requirement which exists due to a disease or disorder are known as __________

  • (A) Healthy foods
  • (B) Nutraceuticals
  • (C) Balanced foods
  • (D) Special foods

Question 27:

The colour permitted in cheddar cheese as per FSS Act, 2006 is __________

  • (A) Annatto
  • (B) Anthocyanin
  • (C) Riboflavin
  • (D) Chlorophyll

Question 28:

The rate of food spoilage is not dependent on __________

  • (A) Water activity
  • (B) Package size
  • (C) OR potential
  • (D) Temperature

Question 29:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 30:

What does the term "JECFA" stands for:

  • (A) Joint Expert Committee on Food Additives
  • (B) Joint Excellence Committee on Food Allergens
  • (C) Joint Expert Committee on Food Analysis
  • (D) Joint Export Committee on Food Additives

Question 31:

Which of the following criteria that are used for screening of the New Food Product ideas?

(A). Marketability
(B). Technical feasibility
(C). Manufacturing capability
(D). Financial capability

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 32:

In chiffon cakes, leavening occurs mainly by whipping of the __________

  • (A) egg yolk
  • (B) citric acid
  • (C) egg white
  • (D) ascorbic acid

Question 33:

Hypobaric storage represents storage at __________

(A). Low pressure
(B). High pressure
(C). Low pressure and high humidity
(D). Low pressure and low humidity

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (B) only.
  • (B) (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 34:

Which of the following is commonly used as oxygen scavenger in food packaging?

  • (A) Powdered iron
  • (B) Calcium
  • (C) Potassium permanganate
  • (D) Chlorine

Question 35:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 36:

The penetration of fat within the muscle fibre when an animal is well fed, is called as __________

  • (A) stabilization
  • (B) marbling
  • (C) ageing
  • (D) rigor mortis

Question 37:

The molten mixture of sand, soda, limestone for the development of glass is called as __________

  • (A) mold
  • (B) gob
  • (C) curing
  • (D) annealing

Question 38:

Application of silicone on the glass bottle surface during their manufacturing helps in

(A). Maintaining glossy appearance
(B). Prevents breakage
(C). Decreases the noise on contact
(D). Prevents spoilage

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 39:

Sugarcane gur (jaggery) contains __________ % sucrose.

  • (A) 65 to 85
  • (B) 20 to 30
  • (C) 35 to 40
  • (D) 50 to 60

Question 40:

During processing, the characteristic flavor is developed in cocoa:

  • (A) Cooking
  • (B) Roasting
  • (C) Boiling
  • (D) Frying

Question 41:

Increase in volume of bread during baking is known as __________

  • (A) sheen
  • (B) oven spring
  • (C) bloom
  • (D) rising

Question 42:

__________ are responsible for the flavor and aroma of bread.

  • (A) Propanol and maltol
  • (B) Flavanol and isomaltol
  • (C) Maltol and Isomaltol
  • (D) Maltose and galactose

Question 43:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 44:

A flexible pouch capable of withstanding temperatures of about 120 \(^{\circ}\)C is known as __________

  • (A) High barrier plastic
  • (B) Microwave-ovenable package
  • (C) Retortable pouch
  • (D) Aseptic pouch

Question 45:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Question 46:

Which of the following is NOT a type of "Difference test"?

  • (A) Duo-trio test
  • (B) Triangle test
  • (C) Paired-comparison test
  • (D) Hedonic test

Question 47:

QRAC stands for:

  • (A) Qualitative Risk Analyzing Committee
  • (B) Qualitative Risk Assessment Committee
  • (C) Quantitative Risk Assessment Committee
  • (D) Quantitative Risk Analysing Committee

Question 48:

The instrument used to measure plasticity of bread dough is known as

  • (A) Penetrometer
  • (B) Fibrograph meter
  • (C) Tenderometer
  • (D) Brabender Farinograph

Question 49:

The 'AGMARK' standard was set up by

  • (A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • (B) Ministry of Agriculture
  • (C) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection
  • (D) Directorate of Quality and Inspection

Question 50:

The Codex Alimentarius Commission was established under the authority of

(A). World Health Organization
(B). World Trade Organization
(C). Food and Agriculture Organization
(D). International Organization for Standardization

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (B) (A) and (D) only
  • (C) (A) and (C) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 51:

Bananas usually get spoiled due to chilling injury when stored at temperature

  • (A) \(<\)12 \(^{\circ}\)C
  • (B) \(<\)18 \(^{\circ}\)C
  • (C) \(<\)15 \(^{\circ}\)C
  • (D) \(<\)21 \(^{\circ}\)C

Question 52:

The chemical agents most suitable for deflocculation process are

(A). Sodium metasilicate
(B). Sodium tripolyphosphate
(C). Sodium decaphosphate
(D). Sodium sesquisilicate

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (C) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (C) and (D) only

Question 53:

NOEL stands for

  • (A) Non-Observable Effluent Limit
  • (B) No Observable Effluent Limit
  • (C) Non-Observable Effect Level
  • (D) No Observable Effect Level

Question 54:

The instrument used to measure the salt percentage of pickles is__________

  • (A) Polarimeter
  • (B) Brinograph
  • (C) Saltmeter
  • (D) Ionograph

Question 55:

A type of freezing where resistance to heat transfer is minimized due to intimate contact between food or package and refrigerant

  • (A) Indirect contact freezing
  • (B) Air freezing
  • (C) Immersion freezing
  • (D) Fluidized-bed freezing

Question 56:

The process of 'Hot-break' is commonly used in the manufacturing of products like

(A). Orange squash
(B). Tomato paste
(C). Orange juice
(D). Tomato juice

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (C) and (D) only

Question 57:

During the process of ripening of fruits, the transition of pectic substance occurs in the following order:

(A). Protopectin
(B). Pectin
(C). Pectinic acid
(D). Pectic acid

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (B) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (C) (B), (C), (D), (A)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 58:

The soft and fragile food products, having delicate flavors and colors, are best dried by which of the following method:

  • (A) Drum drying
  • (B) Vacuum drying
  • (C) Tray drying
  • (D) Freeze drying

Question 59:

Which of the following is used as an antioxidant in fats and oils?

  • (A) BHA
  • (B) BHF
  • (C) HBT
  • (D) HBA

Question 60:

The correct order of unit operations carried out in the Canning of vegetables is:

  • (A) Sorting----Retorting----Exhausting----Filling----Sealing
  • (B) Retorting---Filling----Exhausting----Processing----Sealing
  • (C) Retorting----Filling----Processing----Exhausting----Sealing
  • (D) Sorting----Filling----Exhausting----Sealing------Retorting

Question 61:

An example of hard and ripened cheese is:

  • (A) Roquefort cheese
  • (B) Cottage cheese
  • (C) Cheddar cheese
  • (D) Camembert cheese

Question 62:

The alkali treatment of cocoa to enhance its color and flavor is known as

  • (A) French process
  • (B) Dutch process
  • (C) Enrobing
  • (D) Tempering

Question 63:

The enzyme used in isomerization of corn starch during the making of High Fructose Corn Syrup is/are:

(A). Alpha-amylase
(B). Glucoamylase
(C). Glucose isomerase

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (B) only
  • (B) (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (B) only
  • (D) (A), (B) and (C)

Question 64:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 65:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 66:

Identify the correct sequence of product/by-product formation during cocoa and chocolate processing/manufacturing:

(A). Cocoa powder
(B). Chocolate liquor
(C). Cocoa butter
(D). Nibs

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (C) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 67:

The drier that can be used for carrying out the instantizing or agglomeration process is:

  • (A) Drum drier
  • (B) Spray drier
  • (C) Tunnel drier
  • (D) Kiln drier

Question 68:

The major microorganism that the food handler's may harbour as part of the body's flora is:

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) Bacillus thermophilus
  • (C) Clostridium botulinum
  • (D) Bacillus cereus

Question 69:

The basic functions of a food package are:

(A). Containment
(B). Fortification
(C). Adulteration
(D). Communication

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 70:

Examples of active packaging includes;

(A). MAP
(B). Ethylene scavenger
(C). Antioxidant release film
(D). Moisture absorbents

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 71:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Question 72:

The industrial High Pressure Processing setup consists of the following components;

(A). Pressure pump
(B). Pressure agitator
(C). Pressure chamber
(D). Pulse chamber

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A) and (D) only
  • (C) (A) and (C) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 73:

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 74:

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to composition of fats and oils;

(A). The chain length and degree of saturation control the properties that are found within the fatty acids and lipids
(B). Fatty acids typically contain an even number of carbon atoms.
(C). The saturated acids have higher melting points than unsaturated acids of corresponding size.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) and (C) only
  • (B) (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A) only (B) only
  • (D) (A), (B) and (C)

Question 75:

Identify the factors that decrease the stability of egg foams;

(A). Acidity
(B). Fat content
(C). Salt content
(D). Sugar

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (B) and (C) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

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