The CUET PG Food Engineering and Technology exam for 2025 will be held between 13th May and 3rd June. After the test, candidates can download the question paper, answer key, and solution PDF. The test measures a candidate’s understanding of food processing, unit operations, food plant design, food machinery, thermodynamics, and fluid mechanics in the context of food engineering.
The paper consists of 75 questions in 60 minutes, totaling 300 marks. Each correct answer earns 4 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect one.
CUET PG Food Engineering and Technology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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CUET PG Food Engineering and Technology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions
Question 1:
Which equation is used for atmospheric air-steam mixtures, according to Gibbs Dalton Law?
- (1) \( p_B = p_a + p_w \)
- (2) \( p_w = p_a + p_B \)
- (3) \( p_a = p_w + p_B \)
- (4) \( p_T = p_a + p_w \)
Question 2:
Bacteria that oxidize ethyl alcohol to acetic acid and cause spoilage in alcoholic beverages belong to the Genus.
- (1) Aeromonas
- (2) Acetobacter
- (3) Arthrobacter
- (4) Campylobacter
Question 3:
Microorganism, commonly called as bread mold, and is involved in the spoilage of foods like berries, fruits, vegetables, bread, etc. is:
- (1) Rhizopus stolonifer
- (2) Thamnidium
- (3) Aspergillus
- (4) Trichothecium
Question 4:
Bacteria like Coliform, Enterococci, intestinal bacteria, anaerobes and viruses are generally present in:
- (1) Soil
- (2) Water
- (3) Animals
- (4) Sewage
Question 5:
Thamnidium chaetocladioides in meat produces:
- (1) Ropiness
- (2) Discoloration
- (3) Phosphoresecence
- (4) Whiskers
Question 6:
Which one of the following process is used for the selection of good quality eggs for storage?
- (1) Candling
- (2) Washing
- (3) Oiling
- (4) Waxing
Question 7:
Milk fat may be decomposed by various bacteria, yeasts, and molds, the changes that take place in the milk fat are:
A. Oxidation of the unsaturated fatty acids
B. Hydrolysis of the butterfat to fatty acids
C. Alkali production
D. Combined oxidation and hydrolysis to produce rancidity
- (1) A, B and D only
- (2) A, B and C only
- (3) B, C and D only
- (4) A, C and D only
Question 8:
A 4% commercially available acetic acid is known as__________.
- (1) Salt
- (2) Brine
- (3) Tartar
- (4) Vinegar
Question 9:
Identify the equipment in the image:
![]()
- (1) Homogeniser
- (2) Clarifier
- (3) Batch pasteurizer
- (4) HTST pasteurizer
Question 10:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
Average composition of Milk
![]()
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
- (2) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
- (3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
- (4) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Question 11:
Casein is more resistant to heat than whey. Resistance of casein to heat is NOT because of the following which factor.
- (1) Calcium
- (2) Magnesium
- (3) Citrates
- (4) Nitrates
Question 12:
Pasteurized milk does not contain which of the following enzyme:
- (1) Plasma lipase
- (2) Alkaline phosphatase
- (3) Xanthine oxidase
- (4) Membrane lipase
Question 13:
Vitamin that is synthesized in the cow's rumen is
- (1) Vitamin K
- (2) Vitamin A
- (3) Vitamin D
- (4) Vitamin E
Question 14:
Amongst the following, choose a type of concentrated milk
- (1) Vitamin D milk
- (2) Condensed milk
- (3) Soft curd milk
- (4) Standardized milk
Question 15:
Sequentially arrange the steps in manufacture of Roquefort cheese
A. Inoculation of Penicillium roqueforti
B. Addition of Lactic acid producing starter culture
C. Hopped and pressed
D. Formation of firm curd and cutting of curd
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) B, C, A, D
- (2) B, D, A, C
- (3) A, D, C, B
- (4) C, B, D, A
Question 16:
Among the following, the egg yolk protein is______.
- (1) Livetin
- (2) Ovalbumin
- (3) Avidin
- (4) Conalbumin
Question 17:
Ingredient added in egg proteins to decrease the temperature of coagulation is:
- (1) Water
- (2) Lemon juice
- (3) Sugar
- (4) Milk
Question 18:
During production of egg powder, browning can be prevented by:
A. Glucose oxidase
B. Yeast
C. Lactic acid bacteria
D. Syringing
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) C and D
- (2) B and C
- (3) A and B
- (4) A and D
Question 19:
The energy required for size reduction is proportional to the change in surface area of the pieces of food and is determined by _______________.
- (1) Ideal law
- (2) Kick's law
- (3) Rittinger's law
- (4) Bond's law
Question 20:
Among the following, which one is the perennial vegetable?
- (1) Artichoke
- (2) Celery
- (3) Knol-khol
- (4) Leek
Question 21:
Activity of which enzyme increases during germination of cereals?
- (1) Protease
- (2) Lipase
- (3) Oxidoreductase
- (4) \(\beta\)-amylase
Question 22:
Deterioration in cereals is attributed to
A. Moisture content
B. Temperature
C. pH
D. Presence of oxygen
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A, B and D only
- (2) A, B and C only
- (3) B, C and D only
- (4) A, C and D only
Question 23:
Arrange the steps of modern wheat milling
A. Cleaning to remove various type of impurities
B. Separation of the endosperms from the bran and germ
C. Dry scouting
D. Conditioning
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A, D, C, B
- (2) A, C, D, B
- (3) A, B, D, C
- (4) C, B, D, A
Question 24:
Storing the freshly milled flour for 1-2 months result in desirable changes known as maturation. The changes that take place are:
A. Hydrolysis of fat into fatty acids
B. Decrease in sulphydryl groups
C. Reduction of disulphide bonds
D. Increase in sulphydryl groups
- (1) A, B and D only
- (2) A, B and C only
- (3) A, C and D only
- (4) B, C and D only
Question 25:
Parboiling of rice offers the following advantages:
A. Greater resistance to insects and fungus infection
B. Grain becomes weak
C. Increase in nutritive value of rice
D. Dehusking of parboiled rice is easy
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A, B and D only
- (2) A, B and C only
- (3) A, C and D only
- (4) B, C and D only
Question 26:
Solvent used in polishing of brown rice during solvent extraction milling is
- (1) Ether
- (2) Hexane
- (3) Toluene
- (4) Methylene
Question 27:
The temperature at which the granules begin to swell rapidly and lose birefringence is called
- (1) Oxidation
- (2) Reduction
- (3) Gelatinization
- (4) Freezing
Question 28:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
![]()
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
- (2) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
- (3) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - II
- (4) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
Question 29:
Heating of unsaturated fats and oils, as in frying operations, can produce changes in the color, molecular weight, viscosity or refractive index due to
- (1) Rancidity
- (2) Hydrogenation
- (3) Polymerization
- (4) Termination
Question 30:
Triple helical structure of protein is also called
- (1) Peptide bond
- (2) Collagen helix
- (3) Tropocollagen
- (4) Tertiary structure
Question 31:
Spirulina, when grown under controlled conditions, should contain ________ protein on dry-weight basis
- (1) 20 - 30 %
- (2) 30 - 40 %
- (3) 50 - 60 %
- (4) 70 - 80 %
Question 32:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
![]()
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
- (2) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
- (3) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
- (4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
Question 33:
In a food processing plant, heating and cooling of foods are conducted in equipment called heat exchangers. Which among the following is NOT a type of non contact heat exchanger?
- (1) Steam infusion
- (2) Scraped surface
- (3) Shell and tube
- (4) Tubular
Question 34:
Most frequently employed techniques of enzyme inhibition in food are
A. Heat
B. Sugar
C. Variation of pH
D. Sulphur dioxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (1) A, D and B only
- (2) A, B and C only
- (3) A, B and D only
- (4) A, C and D only
Question 35:
All amino acids have a chiral centre, except
- (1) Lysine
- (2) Arginine
- (3) Histidine
- (4) Glycine
Question 36:
Arrange the proper sequence of oil processing
A. Refining
B. Pressing
C. Solvent Extraction
D. Rendering
- (1) D, B, C, A
- (2) A, C, B, D
- (3) D, C, B, A
- (4) C, B, D, A
Question 37:
A biological, chemical or physical agent in, or condition of, food with the potential to cause an adverse health effect is known as
- (1) Food-borne illness
- (2) Suitability
- (3) Contaminant
- (4) Hazard
Question 38:
Arrange the sequence of Jam preparation
A. Heating
B. Chopping
C. Addition of acid and pectin
D. Washing
- (1) D, B, A, C
- (2) D, C, B, A
- (3) D, B, C, A
- (4) C, B, D, A
Question 39:
The difference between the initial and the final temperature divided by the freezing time is known as
- (A) Freezing Time
- (B) Freezing Rate
- (C) Thawing Time
- (D) Thawing Rate
Question 40:
Factors that determine the effectiveness of size reduction and influence the selection of an equipment are
- A. Friability of the food
- B. Bulk density
- C. Moisture content
- D. Heat sensitivity of the food
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) A, C and D only
- (B) A, B and C only
- (C) A, B and D only
- (D) B, C and D only
Question 41:
The system that detects or senses changes within the package environment, followed by modification of package properties in response to the detected change is known as
- (A) Aseptic Packaging
- (B) Passive Packaging
- (C) Active Packaging
- (D) Intelligent Packaging
Question 42:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
![]()
- (A) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
- (B) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
- (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
- (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Question 43:
The ratio of mole fraction of water vapor in a given moist air sample to the mole fraction in an air sample saturated at the same temperature and pressure is known as
- (A) Relative Humidity
- (B) Specific Volume
- (C) Wet Bulb Temperature
- (D) Dew-Point Temperature
Question 44:
Identify the evaporator
![]()
- (A) Batch-type pan evaporator
- (B) Falling-film evaporator
- (C) Natural-circulation evaporator
- (D) Rising-film evaporator
Question 45:
A typical microwave oven consists of the following major components
- A. Wave guide
- B. Magnetron
- C. Channel
- D. Stirrer
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) A, B and D only
- (B) A, B and C only
- (C) B, C and D only
- (D) A, C and D only
Question 46:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
![]()
- (A) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
- (B) A - I, B - III, C - I, D - II
- (C) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
- (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Question 47:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
![]()
- (A) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
- (B) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
- (C) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
- (D) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
Question 48:
Arachidonic acid is composed of how many carbon atoms in its chain?
- (A) 20
- (B) 18
- (C) 16
- (D) 12
Question 49:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
![]()
- (A) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
- (B) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
- (C) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
- (D) A - I, B - IV, C - I, D - III
Question 50:
Instrument used for measuring the humidity is
- (A) Thermometer
- (B) Hygrometer
- (C) Pyrometer
- (D) Penetrometer
Question 51:
Saturated air has a relative humidity (RH) of
- (A) 0%
- (B) 75%
- (C) 50%
- (D) 100%
Question 52:
The topmost curve in the psychrometric chart represents the saturation line with _________ % relative humidity.
- (A) 100
- (B) 75
- (C) 50
- (D) 0
Question 53:
Potatoes with 85% moisture content on a wet basis are dried to a final moisture content of 10%. If we dry 100 kg of potatoes, what is the final weight of the product?
- (A) 15.66 kg
- (B) 16.66 kg
- (C) 17.66 kg
- (D) 18.66 kg
Question 54:
Freeze drying is also known as
- (A) Crystallization
- (B) Gelatinization
- (C) Homogenization
- (D) Lyophilization
Question 55:
The appearance, size, shape, density, and solubility of the final spray dried particle can be affected by
- A. Nozzle pressure
- B. Liquid viscosity
- C. Surface tension
- D. Nature of the solids
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) A, B, and D only
- (B) A, B, and C only
- (C) A, B, C, and D
- (D) B, C, and D only
Question 56:
The energy required for size reduction is proportional to the logarithm of size reduction ratio, is given by _________ law.
- (A) Kicks' Law
- (B) Bonds' Law
- (C) Ricks' Law
- (D) Rittingers' Law
Question 57:
In hammer mill operations, the dominant force is
- (A) Compressive force
- (B) Shear force
- (C) Impact force
- (D) Centrifugal force
Question 58:
Find the "Centrifuge effect" of the centrifuge, which spins at the angular velocity (\(\omega\)=523.6 /sec) at a maximum radius of 10 cm.
- (A) 2794.6
- (B) 2694.6
- (C) 2594.6
- (D) 2494.6
Question 59:
In the sedimentation process, the rate of settling (moving) particles is affected by
- A. Gravitational pull
- B. Density of the particle
- C. Buoyancy force
- D. Size of the particle
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) A, B, C and D
- (B) A, B and C only
- (C) A, B and D only
- (D) B, C and D only
Question 60:
Arrange the steps involved in the gas transfer from gas bubble into bulk liquid
- A. The gaseous component diffused through the quiescent liquid film into the bulk liquid.
- B. The gaseous component enters into the liquid film.
- C. Transportation of the gaseous component into the well mixed bulk liquid.
- D. The aeseous component transported from the bulk gas to gas-liquid interphase.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) D, B, A, C
- (B) D, C, B, A
- (C) C, D, B, A
- (D) D, B, C, A
Question 61:
Ficks' law of diffusion states that mass flux per unit area of a component is directly proportional to its ___________.
- (A) Velocity gradient
- (B) Temperature gradient
- (C) Concentration gradient
- (D) pH gradient
Question 62:
Sherwood number is a function of
- (A) Reynolds' number and Rayleigh number
- (B) Rayleigh number and Grashof number
- (C) Reynolds' number and Grashof number
- (D) Reynolds' number and Schmidt number
Question 63:
Sequentially arrange the processing steps of coffee
- A. Brewing
- B. Roasting
- C. Grinding
- D. Blending
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) D, B, C, A
- (B) D, C, B, A
- (C) B, A, D, C
- (D) B, D, C, A
Question 64:
Lecithin is structurally like fat but contain
- (A) Amino acid
- (B) Hydrochloric acid
- (C) Phosphoric acid
- (D) Sugar
Question 65:
The process which permits the formation of the polymorphic form in fats is known as
- (A) Conditioning
- (B) Hydrogenation
- (C) Tempering
- (D) Shortening
Question 66:
On treatment with alkali, chlorophyll changes to
- (A) Pheophytin
- (B) Chlorophyllin
- (C) Xanthophyll
- (D) Vitamin A
Question 67:
Arrange the sequence of steps involved in the production of sauerkraut
- A. Pasteurization
- B. Salting
- C. Fermentation
- D. Shredding
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) D, B, C, A
- (B) D, B, A, C
- (C) C, A, B, D
- (D) C, B, D, A
Question 68:
Match the LIST I (Enzyme) with LIST II (Catabolic Products)
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- (A) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
- (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
- (C) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
- (D) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
Question 69:
Bitterness is exhibited by alkaloids such as _____
- (A) Quinine
- (B) Beryllinm salts
- (C) Lead acetate
- (D) Cyclamate
Question 70:
Match the LIST I (Stage of Egg White foam) with LIST II (Uses)
![]()
- (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
- (B) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
- (C) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
- (D) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
Question 71:
Match the LIST-I (Class of Meat) with LIST-II (Description)
![]()
- (A) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
- (B) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
- (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
- (D) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
Question 72:
Arrange the steps involved in alkali processing of maity (maize)
- A. Washing with fresh water
- B. Steeping in water for 14 hours
- C. Milling to obtain "masa"
- D. Mixing with water and lime at 90\(^{\circ}\)C for 50 minutes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) D, B, C, A
- (B) D, B, A, C
- (C) B, A, D, C
- (D) C, B, D, A
Question 73:
Arrange the sequence of steps involved in the reaction of enzymatic browning
- A. Formation of DOPA
- B. Action of PPO enzyme on cut fruits
- C. Polymerization of ortho-quinones to form melanins
- D. Formation of ortho-quinones
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) C, B, A, D
- (B) B, D, C, A
- (C) B, A, D, C
- (D) B, A, C, D
Question 74:
Arrange the steps involved in the production of soy sauce
- A. Roasting of wheat
- B. Moromi stage
- C. Lactic/ethanolic fermentation
- D. Fermentation at 25-30 \(^{\circ}\)C for 2-3 days
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- (A) A, D, B, C
- (B) A, C, B, D
- (C) A, D, C, B
- (D) C, B, D, A
Question 75:
The bacteria most commonly associated with the soft rotting of carrots is
- (A) Corynebacterium spp.
- (B) Lactobacillus spp.
- (C) Pectobacterium spp.
- (D) Xanthomonas spp.
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