CUET PG Development and Labour Studies 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the specific term used to describe an organization of workers that collectively advocates for its members' rights and interests concerning pay, benefits, and workplace environment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Trade Union: A trade union, or labor union, is an organization of workers who have come together to achieve common goals. The primary purpose is to protect and advance the interests of its members in the workplace through collective bargaining with employers over wages, working hours, benefits, and safety conditions. This matches the definition given in the question perfectly.

Employee Welfare Trust: This is a trust set up by an employer for the benefit of its employees, often focusing on healthcare, retirement, or other welfare activities. It is managed for the employees but is not an organization formed by the workers to negotiate with the employer.

Workplace Intervention Programmes: These are specific programs designed to address issues within a workplace, such as safety problems, harassment, or productivity. They are initiatives, not permanent organizations of workers.

Social Security Association: This term typically refers to government or quasi-government agencies that administer social security programs, such as retirement, disability, and unemployment benefits for the general population, not a worker-formed organization for collective bargaining.



Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the definitions, the correct term for an organization of workers formed to address members' interests in wages, benefits, and working conditions is a Trade Union.
Quick Tip: In questions related to industrial relations, clearly distinguish between organizations formed by workers (like trade unions) and programs or trusts provided by employers or the government. The key element of a trade union is collective bargaining power.

Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the author of the book "Everybody Loves a Good Drought".


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


P. Sainath: Palagummi Sainath is a renowned Indian journalist and author who focuses on social issues, rural affairs, and poverty. His book, "Everybody Loves a Good Drought: Stories from India's Poorest Districts," published in 1996, is a classic work of reportage on rural India and is based on his travels and research in the country's poorest districts. The book won him the Ramon Magsaysay Award.

V.M. Dandekar: V. M. Dandekar was a prominent Indian economist known for his work on poverty and agricultural economics in India. He is not the author of this book.

Dadabhai Naoroji: A key figure in the Indian independence movement, Dadabhai Naoroji was a scholar and politician who authored "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India," where he formulated the "drain of wealth" theory. He did not write "Everybody Loves a Good Drought."

Amartya Sen: A Nobel laureate in Economic Sciences, Amartya Sen is a celebrated economist and philosopher. While he has written extensively on poverty, famine, and human development, and has praised P. Sainath's work, he is not the author of this specific book.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The author of "Everybody Loves a Good Drought" is P. Sainath.
Quick Tip: For "Books and Authors" questions, create a list of famous contemporary Indian authors and their most significant works, especially those dealing with social and political issues, as they are frequently asked in competitive exams.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the Indian legislation enacted to curb monopolies and regulate unfair or restrictive business practices.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The correct name of the act is the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969. This act was the first major piece of legislation in India aimed at regulating free trade and preventing the concentration of economic power that could be detrimental to the public interest. Its objectives were to control monopolies and prohibit monopolistic, restrictive, and unfair trade practices.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:

The options provided seem to have slight inaccuracies in their wording. Let's analyze them:

(A) Multilateral Trade Agreement Act: This is a general term and not the name of a specific Indian act for controlling monopolies.
(B) Monopolies Restructive Trade Practices Act: This option is the closest to the actual name "Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act". The word "Restructive" is likely a typographical error for "Restrictive".
(C) Monopolies Reformative Trade Practices Act: The term "Reformative" is incorrect. The act was about restricting, not reforming, such practices.
(D) Monopoly Reconstructive Trading Practice Act: The terms "Reconstructive" and "Trading" are incorrect in this context.

Given the choices, option (B) is the intended and most accurate answer, despite the minor typo.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The most appropriate answer is the Monopolies Restructive Trade Practices Act, which refers to the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969. It is important to note that the MRTP Act was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002.
Quick Tip: Be aware of major economic legislations in India and their evolution. Knowing that the MRTP Act, 1969 was replaced by the Competition Act, 2002 is a crucial piece of information for modern context.

Step 1: Understanding the Role:

The Advocate-General is the highest law officer in a state government, corresponding to the Attorney General for India at the central level. The role involves giving legal advice to the state government.


Step 2: Constitutional Provision:

Article 165 of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment, duties, and tenure of the Advocate-General for a state.

Article 165(1) states: "The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State."


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:


(A) Chief Justice of India: The CJI is the head of the Indian judiciary and is involved in the appointment of judges, but not the state's Advocate-General.
(B) Chief Justice of High Court: The Chief Justice of the High Court heads the state judiciary. While the qualification for an Advocate-General is to be eligible to be a High Court judge, the appointment is not made by the Chief Justice.
(C) Governor of the State: As per Article 165, the Governor of the state makes the appointment. This is the correct answer.
(D) President of India: The President appoints the Attorney General for India (the highest law officer for the Union government), not the Advocate-General for the states.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Advocate-General for a state is appointed by the Governor of the State.
Quick Tip: Create a comparison table for key constitutional posts at the Union and State levels. For example, President (Union) corresponds to Governor (State), Prime Minister to Chief Minister, and Attorney General to Advocate-General. This helps in remembering their respective appointing authorities and functions.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the UN commission that popularized the concept of 'sustainable development'.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In 1983, the United Nations established the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED). This commission was chaired by Gro Harlem Brundtland, the former Prime Minister of Norway. Due to her leadership, it became popularly known as the Brundtland Commission.

The commission's mandate was to create a global agenda for change, addressing the growing concerns about environmental degradation and its connection to economic and social development.

In 1987, the commission released its seminal report, "Our Common Future". This report introduced and popularized the most widely cited definition of sustainable development:

"Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:


(A) Copenhagen: The Copenhagen Accord is related to a 2009 UN Climate Change Conference, not the origin of sustainable development.
(B) Brundtland: This is the correct answer, referring to the Brundtland Commission.
(C) Onio: This is not a recognized name of a major UN commission on the environment.
(D) Kyoto: The Kyoto Protocol is a 1997 international treaty that committed state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The commission that propounded the notion of 'sustainable development' is the Brundtland Commission.
Quick Tip: Associate key environmental terms with their origins. Sustainable Development -> Brundtland Report (1987); Greenhouse Gas Reduction Targets -> Kyoto Protocol (1997); Global Strategies -> Agenda 21 (Earth Summit, 1992).

Step 1: Understanding the Organization:

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is the supreme statutory body responsible for regulating and promoting the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. It was established by the IRDA Act, 1999.


Step 2: Location of Headquarters:

The IRDAI was initially headquartered in Delhi. However, in 2001, the headquarters were moved to Hyderabad, Telangana.

Therefore, the current head office of the IRDAI is located in Hyderabad.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:


(A) Pune: Incorrect.
(B) Hyderabad: Correct.
(C) Delhi: This was the former location of the headquarters until 2001.
(D) Mumbai: While Mumbai is the financial capital of India and hosts the headquarters of many financial institutions like the RBI and SEBI, the IRDAI is headquartered in Hyderabad.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The headquarters of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) is located in Hyderabad.
Quick Tip: For questions about headquarters of major Indian regulatory bodies, don't assume they are all in Mumbai or Delhi. Create a specific list: RBI (Mumbai), SEBI (Mumbai), IRDAI (Hyderabad), PFRDA (New Delhi).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Taxes can be broadly classified into two categories:

Direct Tax: A tax that is levied directly on the income or wealth of a person or a corporation. The liability to pay the tax and the burden of the tax fall on the same person. It cannot be shifted to others.
Indirect Tax: A tax levied on goods and services rather than on income or profit. The burden of an indirect tax can be shifted from the taxpayer to the final consumer. Examples include Goods and Services Tax (GST), customs duty, and excise duty.


Step 2: Analyzing the Options:


(A) Income tax: This tax is levied directly on the income earned by an individual or entity. The person earning the income pays the tax directly to the government. Hence, it is a direct tax.
(B) Excise Duty: This is a tax on the manufacture of goods. The manufacturer pays the tax but recovers it from the buyers by including it in the price of the goods. Thus, it is an indirect tax.
(C) Sales Tax: This tax is levied on the sale of goods. The seller pays the tax to the government but collects it from the customer. It is an indirect tax. (Note: Sales tax has been largely subsumed into GST in India).
(D) Custom Duty: This is a tax imposed on goods when they are transported across international borders. The importer pays the duty but passes the cost on to the consumer. It is an indirect tax.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the analysis, Income tax is a form of direct tax.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the difference: If you pay a tax directly from your own pocket based on what you earn (income, profit), it's a \(\textbf{direct tax}\). If the tax is included in the price of something you buy (goods, services), it's an \(\textbf{indirect tax}\).

Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the specific article of the Indian Constitution that establishes the Parliament for the Union.


Step 2: Analyzing the Relevant Articles:


Article 79 (Constitution of Parliament): This article explicitly states, "There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People." This directly matches the statement in the question. The Council of States is the Rajya Sabha, and the House of the People is the Lok Sabha.
Article 19A: There is no Article 19A in the Constitution of India. Article 19 deals with the protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
Article 356: This article deals with the provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in states, commonly known as President's Rule. It is related to emergency provisions, not the constitution of Parliament.
Article 135 (d): Article 135 deals with the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court under pre-existing law. There is no sub-clause (d) to this article, and it is unrelated to the Parliament's establishment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct article that states "there shall be a parliament for the union" is Article 79.
Quick Tip: Focus on memorizing the first article of key chapters in the Constitution. For example, Article 52 (The President of India), Article 63 (The Vice-President of India), Article 79 (Constitution of Parliament), and Article 124 (Establishment of Supreme Court). These are frequently asked.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

'Contempt of court' refers to the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers in the form of behavior that opposes or defies the authority, justice, and dignity of the court.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The power of the courts to punish for contempt is a constitutional power. Article 129 grants the Supreme Court the power to punish for its contempt, and Article 215 grants similar power to the High Courts.

However, the procedure and the specific definitions of what constitutes civil and criminal contempt are laid down in a specific piece of legislation. This legislation is the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

This Act defines and limits the powers of certain courts in punishing contempts of courts and regulates their procedure in relation thereto.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:


(A) Contempt of Court Act, 1971: This is the correct legislation that codifies the law on contempt.
(B) Contempt of Court Act, 1950: An earlier act existed but was replaced by the 1971 Act. The current law is the 1971 Act.
(C) & (D): These acts are not related to the power of the court to punish for contempt.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The power and procedure to punish for contempt of court are enacted under the Contempt of Court Act, 1971.
Quick Tip: When studying Indian Polity, remember that while many powers of institutions like the Supreme Court and High Courts are granted by the Constitution itself, the detailed procedures and definitions are often provided by subsequent laws passed by the Parliament.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for an economic theory that links rapid economic growth to the shift of resources towards the manufacturing sector, specifically because this sector exhibits 'returns to scale' (i.e., efficiency increases as production scales up).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Kaldor's growth laws, proposed by economist Nicholas Kaldor, are a set of three empirical regularities observed in economic growth. The first and most relevant law states that the growth of a country's GDP is positively related to the growth of its manufacturing sector. This is primarily because manufacturing is subject to significant economies of scale, both static (cost per unit falls as output increases) and dynamic (learning-by-doing, technological progress). This perfectly matches the premise of the question.
Kuznets Curve theory suggests that as an economy develops, market forces first increase and then decrease economic inequality, forming an inverted U-shaped curve. It relates growth to inequality, not the mechanism of manufacturing returns to scale.
Rostow's stage theory describes a sequence of five stages of economic development. While it includes an industrial "take-off" stage, it is a descriptive historical model rather than an analytical one focused on returns to scale as the core driver.
Amartya Sen's Capability Approach is a theory of human well-being and development. It argues that development should be seen as the expansion of human capabilities (freedoms to achieve desired functionings), rather than just economic growth.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The theory that directly connects rapid growth to the shift to manufacturing due to returns to scale is Kaldor's growth laws.
Quick Tip: For economics questions, focus on the core mechanism described in each theory. Kaldor is linked to manufacturing-led growth, Kuznets to inequality, Rostow to stages, and Sen to human capabilities.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that describes the act of selling a portion of a company's shares (capital stock) to generate funds and potentially alter its ownership or management control.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Disinvestment: This is the process of selling equity shares of public sector undertakings (PSUs) or other assets by the government or a company. The primary goals are to raise funds for the seller, improve efficiency through private participation, and change the ownership/management structure. This definition perfectly matches the question.
Export Promotion: This refers to government policies and incentives designed to encourage domestic companies to sell their goods and services abroad. It is a trade policy, not a corporate finance action.
Devaluation: This is the deliberate downward adjustment of a country's currency value relative to another currency or standard. It is a monetary policy tool.
Dereservation: This means opening up industries that were previously reserved exclusively for the public sector or small-scale industries to private sector competition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct term for the deliberate sale of a part of a company's capital stock is Disinvestment.
Quick Tip: In the context of government policy, 'disinvestment' is a key term associated with economic reforms, particularly the sale of stakes in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs). Differentiate it from 'privatization', where the sale results in a transfer of management control to the private sector.

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Initiative:


(A) Kudumbashree: This is a well-known poverty eradication and women empowerment program implemented by the State Poverty Eradication Mission (SPEM) of the Government of Kerala. It is a community-based network of women. This correctly matches with (II).
(B) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY): Under this scheme, each Member of Parliament (Sansad) adopts a village (Gram) and guides its holistic development. This correctly matches with (I).
(C) Appiko: This was a grassroots environmental movement in Karnataka, inspired by the Chipko movement of Uttarakhand. The aim was to save the forests of the Western Ghats by hugging the trees to prevent them from being felled. This correctly matches with (III).
(D) TANWA (Tamil Nadu Women in Agriculture): This was a project launched in Tamil Nadu aimed at empowering women in agriculture by training them in modern agricultural techniques and practices. This correctly matches with (IV).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are:

A \(\rightarrow\) II
B \(\rightarrow\) I
C \(\rightarrow\) III
D \(\rightarrow\) IV

This corresponds to the sequence (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (C) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For 'Match the Following' questions on government schemes and movements, focus on identifying one or two pairs you are absolutely sure about. This can often help eliminate incorrect options quickly, even if you are uncertain about all the pairs.

Step 1: Understanding the Timeline of Indian Republic:

It is important to distinguish between key dates related to the establishment of the Indian republic and its institutions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation of Dates:


26 November 1949: The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India. This day is celebrated as Constitution Day or National Law Day.
26 January 1950: The Constitution of India came into full effect, and India became a sovereign, democratic republic. This day is celebrated as Republic Day. On this day, the Federal Court of India and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council ceased to be the highest courts.
28 January 1950: The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated, holding its first sitting two days after India became a republic.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the historical timeline, the Supreme Court of India came into being on 28 January 1950.
Quick Tip: Do not confuse the date the Constitution was adopted (Nov 26, 1949), the date it came into force (Jan 26, 1950), and the date the Supreme Court was inaugurated (Jan 28, 1950). These are distinct and frequently asked dates.

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Term:


(A) Oligopoly: This is a market structure characterized by a small number of large sellers. The key is "few" sellers. This matches with definition (IV).
(B) Marginal Cost: In economics, marginal cost is the change in the total cost that arises when the quantity produced is incremented by one unit. It is the change in total cost per unit of change in output. This matches definition (III).
(C) Duopoly: This is the most basic form of oligopoly, a market dominated by exactly two firms. This matches definition (II).
(D) Cost function: This is a mathematical function that relates the total cost of production to the level of output. It specifies the minimum cost required to produce a given quantity of output. This matches definition (I).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are:

A \(\rightarrow\) IV
B \(\rightarrow\) III
C \(\rightarrow\) II
D \(\rightarrow\) I

This corresponds to the sequence (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For economics terminology, focus on the precise definitions. Differentiate between similar terms like Oligopoly (few sellers), Duopoly (two sellers), and Monopoly (one seller).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In India, one of the early methods for defining the poverty line was based on the minimum calorie intake required for subsistence. The Planning Commission adopted this methodology based on the recommendations of the Y. K. Alagh Committee in 1979.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The committee differentiated the calorie requirement for rural and urban populations based on the nature of work.


Rural Areas: People in rural areas are often engaged in more physically intensive labor (like farming). Therefore, a higher calorie intake was recommended. The figure was set at 2,400 calories per person per day.
Urban Areas: People in urban areas generally have more sedentary lifestyles with less physical labor. Hence, a lower calorie intake was recommended. The figure was set at 2,100 calories per person per day.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The recommended nutritional requirements are 2,400 calories for rural areas and 2,100 calories for urban areas.
Quick Tip: Remember that the calorie requirement for rural areas is higher than for urban areas due to the higher level of physical activity. This simple logic can help you select the correct option (2400 > 2100).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

'Operation Flood' is the program that led to the "White Revolution" in India. It was a rural development program started by India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1970. It is one of the world's largest rural development programs and made India the world's largest milk producer.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The engine behind the success of Operation Flood was the Anand Milk Union Limited (AMUL), a dairy cooperative based in the city of Anand, Gujarat.

The program replicated the "Anand pattern" of cooperatives across the country. The initiative was spearheaded by Dr. Verghese Kurien, who is known as the "Father of the White Revolution in India". Given that the movement was born out of the success of the Anand cooperative, its initiation is attributed to Gujarat.


Step 3: Final Answer:

'Operation Flood' was initiated from the state of Gujarat.
Quick Tip: Associate 'Operation Flood' or 'White Revolution' with three key terms: Dr. Verghese Kurien, AMUL, and Anand, Gujarat. This triad is crucial for answering related questions.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In microeconomics, when the price of a good changes, the total change in the quantity demanded by a consumer is called the Price Effect. This Price Effect can be broken down into two components: the Substitution Effect and the Income Effect.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Substitution Effect: This measures the change in consumption of a good solely due to the change in its relative price. To isolate this effect, we theoretically hold the consumer's "real income" or "purchasing power" constant. The question describes exactly this: the consumer's money income is adjusted so they can still afford the original bundle of goods. This change in consumption, driven only by the product becoming relatively cheaper or more expensive, is the substitution effect. (The option "substitutive" is a slight variation of this term).
Income Effect: This measures the change in consumption due to the change in the consumer's real purchasing power that results from the price change.

The other options are irrelevant: 'Shut-down point' relates to a firm's production decision, and 'supernormal profit' is profit exceeding the normal rate. 'Substantive effect' is not a standard economic term in this context.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The described phenomenon is the Substitution Effect (referred to as the substitutive effect in the option).
Quick Tip: Remember the decomposition of the Price Effect: Price Effect = Substitution Effect + Income Effect. The key to identifying the substitution effect is the condition that real income (or the ability to buy the original bundle) is held constant.

Step 1: Understanding Different Types of Poverty:

Poverty can be classified based on its duration and cause. The question describes a type of poverty triggered by specific, often temporary, life events.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Situational Poverty: This is a temporary form of poverty caused by an adverse event like a natural disaster, serious illness, job loss, or divorce. Individuals and families in situational poverty often have resources (like education and job skills) to recover once the crisis passes. This perfectly matches the description in the question.
Generational Poverty: Also known as chronic poverty, this is a long-term condition where poverty is passed down from one generation to the next. It is not caused by a single sudden event.
Relative Poverty: This is a measure of poverty in relation to the average standard of living in a particular society. A person can be relatively poor without being in absolute poverty. It is not defined by a sudden crisis.
Absolute Poverty: This refers to a condition where a person lacks the basic necessities for survival, such as food, water, shelter, and sanitation. It is defined by a fixed standard (like income below
(1.90/day) rather than a sudden event.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Poverty caused by a sudden crisis like a disaster or health problem is known as Situational poverty.
Quick Tip: To distinguish types of poverty, think about the cause and duration. \(\textbf{Situational}\) is caused by an event and is often temporary. \(\textbf{Generational}\) is long-term and inherited. \(\textbf{Absolute}\) is based on a fixed survival threshold. \(\textbf{Relative}\) is based on comparison to others in society.

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Book:


(A) India's Economic Crisis: The Way Ahead: This book, analyzing the 1991 economic crisis, was authored by Bimal Jalan, the former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. This matches with (I).
(B) India: Economic Development and Social Opportunity: This influential work on development economics was co-authored by Nobel laureate Amartya Sen and development economist Jean Dreze. This matches with (II).
(C) India Divided: This book, which examines the partition of India, was written by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India. This matches with (IV).
(D) India in Transition: Freeing the Economy: This book advocating for economic liberalization in India was written by the renowned economist Jagdish Bhagwati. This matches with (III).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are:

A \(\rightarrow\) I
B \(\rightarrow\) II
C \(\rightarrow\) IV
D \(\rightarrow\) III

This corresponds to the sequence (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For "Books and Authors" questions, especially on economics and Indian history, it's helpful to associate authors with their primary field. For instance, Bimal Jalan (RBI, monetary policy), Amartya Sen (welfare economics), and Jagdish Bhagwati (trade, liberalization) are key figures.

Step 1: Understanding Utility Theory:

In economics, 'utility' is a concept that represents the satisfaction or benefit a consumer derives from consuming a good or service. There are two main approaches to analyzing utility.


Step 2: Differentiating Cardinal and Ordinal Utility:


Cardinal Utility Analysis: This approach assumes that utility is measurable and quantifiable. It suggests that a consumer can express their satisfaction in absolute, numerical units, often called 'utils'. For example, a consumer can say that they get 10 utils of satisfaction from an apple and 20 utils from a banana, implying the banana provides twice the satisfaction of the apple. Thus, utility is expressed in cardinal numbers (1, 2, 3, etc.).
Ordinal Utility Analysis: This is a more modern approach which posits that utility cannot be measured numerically but can be ranked in order of preference. A consumer can say they prefer a banana to an apple, but they cannot say by how much. Utility is expressed in terms of ranks (1st, 2nd, 3rd, etc.).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Cardinal Utility Analysis is based on the idea that the level of utility can be expressed in numbers.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference between cardinal and ordinal numbers from mathematics. \(\textbf{Cardinal numbers}\) (1, 2, 100) tell you 'how many' (quantity). \(\textbf{Ordinal numbers}\) (1st, 2nd, 100th) tell you 'the position' (rank). This directly applies to utility theory.

Step 1: Understanding the Context:

After independence, India adopted a model of economic development based on Five-Year Plans, formulated by the Planning Commission. The question asks to identify the key intellectual figure behind the initial plans.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis was a renowned Indian statistician and physicist. He was a member of the Planning Commission of India from its inception in 1950 until his death in 1972.

His most significant contribution was the Mahalanobis model, which was the mathematical framework for the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61). This model emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on developing a strong heavy industry and public sector. Due to this foundational role in shaping India's economic strategy, he is widely regarded as the 'Architect of Indian Planning'.

The other individuals listed, while they may be economists or academics, are not associated with this title or the foundational role in the same way as Mahalanobis.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis is known as the Architect of Indian Planning.
Quick Tip: Associate P.C. Mahalanobis with two key concepts: the \(\textbf{Mahalanobis model}\) and the \(\textbf{Second Five-Year Plan}\). This plan's focus on heavy industry is a direct result of his model and is a frequent topic in exams.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A price ceiling is a type of price control, typically mandated by the government, that sets a maximum price a seller is allowed to charge for a product or service.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The term "ceiling" itself suggests an upper boundary. A price ceiling is the highest possible price, or an upper limit, that can be legally charged. The primary purpose of a price ceiling is to make essential goods and services (like rent, food, or medicine) affordable for consumers, especially during times of shortage or high inflation.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:


(A) The upper limit on the price of a good or service imposed by the government: This is the precise and general definition of a price ceiling.
(B) The price of the sequence fit length of ceiling in a building: This is a literal and incorrect interpretation of the term.
(C) The price fixed by a government on oil and agricultural produce: This is an example of a price ceiling, but it is not the definition. The definition is broader.
(D) Price limit by Industry: Price ceilings are a form of government regulation, not typically set by the industry itself (which would be closer to price-fixing, an anti-competitive practice).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The best definition of a price ceiling is the upper limit on the price of a good or service imposed by the government.
Quick Tip: Contrast 'Price Ceiling' with 'Price Floor'. A \(\textbf{ceiling}\) is a \(\textbf{maximum}\) price (like the ceiling of a room is the highest point) set to protect consumers. A \(\textbf{floor}\) is a \(\textbf{minimum}\) price (like the floor of a room is the lowest point) set to protect producers (e.g., Minimum Support Price for crops).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a situation where a tax leads to a price increase that is greater than the tax amount itself. This phenomenon is related to multi-stage taxation systems where tax is levied on a price that already includes previous taxes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Cascading effect of taxes: This is also known as "tax on tax". It occurs when a good or service is taxed at multiple stages of production and distribution. At each stage, the tax is applied to the total value, which includes the cost of the product plus the taxes paid at earlier stages. This leads to a final price increase that is significantly more than the sum of the nominal tax rates. This perfectly matches the situation described. The implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was primarily aimed at eliminating this cascading effect.
Critical divide, Consummation point, Economic saturation: These are not standard economic terms used to describe this specific tax phenomenon.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The disproportionate rise in prices due to tax on tax is known as the Cascading effect.
Quick Tip: Remember that the main objective of introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) was to remove the cascading effect of taxes by allowing for input tax credits at each stage of the supply chain.

Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the 1997 international agreement that set binding targets for industrialized countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation of Environmental Protocols:


Kyoto, Japan (1997): The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997. It was an international treaty that extended the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It committed industrialized nations and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets. This is the correct answer.
Montreal, Canada (1987): The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. It is not primarily about greenhouse gases.
Doha, Qatar (2012): The Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol was adopted in 2012. It extended the life of the Kyoto Protocol until 2020. It was an extension, not the original agreement.
Paris, France (2015): The Paris Agreement is a landmark international accord that was adopted in 2015. Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels. It is the successor to the Kyoto Protocol but was adopted much later than 1997.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The 1997 UN conference that resulted in an international agreement to reduce greenhouse gas emissions was held in Kyoto, Japan.
Quick Tip: Create a timeline for major environmental agreements: Montreal Protocol (1987 - Ozone Layer), Kyoto Protocol (1997 - Greenhouse Gas Targets for Developed Nations), Paris Agreement (2015 - Global Climate Action for All Nations).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a fundamental principle of economics that explains the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity consumers are willing to buy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


The law of demand: This is a core principle of microeconomics. It states that, ceteris paribus (all other factors being equal), as the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded decreases, and vice versa. The question provides a perfect textbook definition of the law of demand.
The demand and supply rule: This is a broad term. While the law of demand is part of the model of demand and supply, the "rule" itself usually refers to how the interaction of demand and supply determines market equilibrium price and quantity.
The law of creating demand: This is not a standard economic principle. It might refer to marketing strategies, but not the fundamental price-quantity relationship.
The principle of social marketing: This applies marketing concepts to influence behaviors for social good, not to describe basic economic laws.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The principle described is the law of demand.
Quick Tip: Remember the inverse relationship: Price up, Demand down; Price down, Demand up. This is the Law of Demand. The opposite is the Law of Supply (Price up, Supply up), which describes the producer's perspective.

Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for a specific central government scheme launched in the year 2000 that provides free food grains to destitute senior citizens.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation of Schemes:


Annapurna Scheme (APS): This scheme was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development on 1st April 2000. It specifically targets senior citizens (aged 65 or above) who are destitute and not receiving the National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS). Under this scheme, 10 kg of food grains per person per month are provided free of cost. This perfectly matches all the criteria in the question (year 2000, indigent senior citizens, free food grains).
Integrated Older Persons Scheme: This scheme provides financial assistance to organizations for maintaining old age homes, day care centers, etc. It is not about providing food grains directly.
Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): This scheme was also launched in December 2000. It aims to provide highly subsidized food grains to the "poorest of the poor" families, not exclusively senior citizens. The food grains are highly subsidized, not entirely free.
Annaposhan Vridha Yojana: This is not a recognized central government scheme.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The scheme that provides free food grains to indigent senior citizens is the Annapurna Scheme.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between the two major food security schemes from 2000: \(\textbf{Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)}\) is for the "poorest of the poor" families (subsidized food), while the \(\textbf{Annapurna Scheme}\) is specifically for destitute \(\textbf{senior citizens}\) not covered by pension (free food).

Step 1: Identifying the Author of a Classic Economic Text:

This question asks to identify the author of a foundational book in classical economics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation of Authors and their Works:


David Ricardo: An influential British classical economist, David Ricardo published "On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation" in 1817. This book introduced key economic concepts like the theory of comparative advantage, the labor theory of value, and the theory of economic rent. This is the correct answer.
Thomas Malthus: A contemporary of Ricardo, he is best known for his 1798 work, "An Essay on the Principle of Population."
Alfred Marshall: A leading neoclassical economist, his most famous work is "Principles of Economics" (1890).
Adam Smith: Known as the father of modern economics, his seminal work is "An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations" (1776).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The author of "The Principles of Political Economy and Taxation" is David Ricardo.
Quick Tip: For classical economists, associate each with their main work: Adam Smith \(\rightarrow\) Wealth of Nations; David Ricardo \(\rightarrow\) Principles of Political Economy and Taxation; Thomas Malthus \(\rightarrow\) Essay on Population.

Step 1: Evaluating Each Statement about Adam Smith:


(A) He is known as founding father of Modern Economics: This is True. His work laid the foundation for classical free market economic theory.
(B) He authored the Book," Principles of Macro Economics": This is False. His main work was "The Wealth of Nations". "Principles of Macroeconomics" is a generic title for modern textbooks; the field of macroeconomics as a distinct discipline did not exist in his time.
(C) "An Enquiry into the Nature and cause of the Wealth of Nations" is his celebrated work: This is True. Published in 1776, it is his magnum opus.
(D) Adam Smith gave the noted concept of 'Positivism': This is False. Positivism is a philosophical theory primarily associated with the French philosopher Auguste Comte.
(E) He was a professor at the University of Glasgow: This is True. He held the position of Professor of Moral Philosophy at the University of Glasgow from 1752 to 1764.


Step 2: Identifying the Correct Combination:

The true statements are (A), (C), and (E).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The option that includes only the true statements is (B).
Quick Tip: When faced with multiple-statement questions, go through each statement one by one and mark it as true or false. This systematic approach helps in eliminating incorrect options and arriving at the correct combination.

Step 1: Evaluating Each Statement about the Union Government:


Statement 1: "Twelve Members are nominated by the President of India in Council of State". This is Correct. As per Article 80 of the Constitution, the President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) from fields like literature, science, art, and social service.
Statement 2: "Four Anglo-Indian members are nominated by the President of India in House of People". This is Incorrect. Article 331 of the Constitution allowed the President to nominate a maximum of two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha (House of People), not four. Furthermore, this provision was discontinued by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
Statement 3: "House of People can have a maximum of 20 members representative from union territories." This is Correct. Article 81 of the Constitution sets this limit.
Statement 4: "Council of State can have a maximum of 250 members." This is Correct. As per Article 80, the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which 238 are representatives of the States and Union Territories, and 12 are nominated by the President.


Step 2: Final Answer:

The question asks for the statement that is not correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Pay close attention to numbers and details in polity questions, such as the number of nominated members and the maximum strength of the houses of Parliament. Also, stay updated with recent constitutional amendments, like the 104th Amendment which ended the Anglo-Indian nomination.

Step 1: Evaluating Each Statement about Dr. Manmohan Singh:


(A) He served as the Governor of Reserve Bank of India: This is True. He was the RBI Governor from 1982 to 1985.
(B) He served as the Chairman of University Grant Commission: This is True. He served as UGC Chairman in 1991, just before becoming Finance Minister.
(C) He was first elected to Rajya Sabha in 1987: This is False. He was first elected to the Rajya Sabha from Assam in 1991.
(D) He was the author of Book "Accidental Prime Minister": This is False. The book "The Accidental Prime Minister: The Making and Unmaking of Manmohan Singh" was written by Sanjaya Baru, who was Dr. Singh's media advisor.
(E) He served as Finance Minister during P.V. Narshimha led Government: This is True. He was the Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996 and is credited with ushering in economic reforms.


Step 2: Identifying the Incorrect Statements:

The statements that are not true (false) are (C) and (D).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The option that correctly identifies the untrue statements is (D).
Quick Tip: For questions on prominent personalities, focus on key milestones in their careers, such as important positions held, major achievements, and significant dates. Be cautious about authorship of books, as biographies or analyses are often written by others.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Phillips curve is a single-equation economic model that describes a historical inverse relationship between rates of unemployment and corresponding rates of inflation that result within an economy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The original curve, proposed by A. W. Phillips, showed an inverse relationship between the rate of change of money wages and the unemployment rate in the UK. However, economists like Paul Samuelson and Robert Solow soon adapted this to show a relationship between price inflation and unemployment.

The relationship is typically stated as:

Low unemployment is associated with high inflation.
High unemployment is associated with low inflation.

Since employment is the inverse of unemployment (high employment means low unemployment), the relationship can also be described as a positive correlation between employment and inflation.

Option (D) "Wage rate and unemployment" is also historically correct as it refers to the original formulation, but option (B) "Employment and inflation" reflects the more common macroeconomic usage of the concept. In the context of the given options, both could be seen as correct, but the inflation-unemployment trade-off is the more famous interpretation. Given that high employment corresponds to low unemployment, a positive relationship between employment and inflation is equivalent to the inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation.

The Laffer Curve highlights the relationship between tax revenue and tax rate (Option C).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Phillips curve highlights the relationship between Employment and inflation (or more precisely, unemployment and inflation).
Quick Tip: Remember the key economic curves: \(\textbf{Phillips Curve}\) (Inflation vs. Unemployment), \(\textbf{Laffer Curve}\) (Tax Rate vs. Tax Revenue), and \(\textbf{Kuznets Curve}\) (Economic Growth vs. Inequality).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The "Big Push" model is a concept in development economics. It argues that a firm's decision to industrialize or not depends on its expectation of what other firms will do. It emphasizes that for an underdeveloped country to break out of poverty, it requires a large, comprehensive, and coordinated investment program (a "big push") to industrialize and create a sustainable growth path.


Step 2: Identifying the Proponent:

This theory was first proposed by Paul N. Rosenstein-Rodan in his 1943 article, "Problems of Industrialisation of Eastern and South-Eastern Europe." He argued that isolated investment projects would likely fail due to the lack of a market, whereas a large-scale, coordinated push across many sectors could create mutual demand and make industrialization profitable.

Other economists listed are associated with different theories: Harvey Leibenstein (Critical Minimum Effort Thesis), R.R. Nelson (Low-Level Equilibrium Trap), and J.H. Boeke (Dualistic Economy).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Big Push theory was formulated by Paul N. Rosenstein-Rodan.
Quick Tip: Associate key development economics theories with their main proponents: Big Push \(\rightarrow\) Rosenstein-Rodan; Vicious Circle of Poverty \(\rightarrow\) Nurkse; Critical Minimum Effort \(\rightarrow\) Leibenstein; Stages of Growth \(\rightarrow\) Rostow.

Step 1: Understanding the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

The SDGs are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all". They were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by the year 2030.


Step 2: Evaluating the Options against the SDGs:


(A) End poverty in all its forms: This is SDG 1.
(B) Ensure healthy lives and well-being: This is the core of SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being).
(C) Reduce inequality within and among countries: This is SDG 10.
(D) Make cities and human settlements exclusive and resilient for development: This statement is incorrect. The actual text of SDG 11 is "Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable." The use of the word "exclusive" is the direct opposite of the goal's intent.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement that is not a Sustainable Development Goal is (D) because it uses the word "exclusive" instead of "inclusive".
Quick Tip: Questions about the SDGs often test your knowledge by slightly altering the wording of a goal. Pay close attention to keywords like "inclusive," "sustainable," "equitable," etc. In this case, "exclusive" is a clear red flag.

Step 1: Identifying the Geographic Location:

Lakshadweep is a Union Territory of India. It is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands.


Step 2: Detailed Location:

The islands are located off the southwestern coast of the Indian mainland, specifically off the coast of Kerala. The body of water they are situated in is the Arabian Sea, which is a region of the northern Indian Ocean.

While it is technically in the Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea is the more specific and correct geographical location. Given that the Arabian Sea is an option, it is the best answer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Lakshadweep is located in the Arabian Sea.
Quick Tip: Remember the locations of India's two main island groups: The \(\textbf{Andaman and Nicobar Islands}\) are in the \(\textbf{Bay of Bengal}\), while \(\textbf{Lakshadweep}\) is in the \(\textbf{Arabian Sea}\).

Step 1: Understanding India's Economic Planning:

After gaining independence in 1947, India established the Planning Commission in 1950 to formulate plans for the country's economic and social development. The primary tool for this was the Five-Year Plans.


Step 2: Timeline of the First Plan:

The First Five-Year Plan was launched for the period from 1951 to 1956. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and focused primarily on the development of the primary sector, particularly agriculture and irrigation. The plan was presented by the first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The first Five-Year Plan was introduced in the year 1951.
Quick Tip: Remember key dates in India's post-independence history: Independence (1947), Constitution adopted (1949), Republic Day (1950), and the start of the First Five-Year Plan (1951).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept of Borders:

A country shares a border with another if they have a common land boundary. Maritime boundaries are generally considered separate from land borders.


Step 2: Analyzing Each Country:


(A) Sri Lanka: India does not share a land border with Sri Lanka. The two countries are separated by the Palk Strait, a narrow strip of water. They share a maritime border.
(B) Bhutan: India shares a significant land border with Bhutan along the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, and West Bengal.
(C) Afghanistan: India shares a small land border with Afghanistan in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). This is known as the Durand Line. Officially, India claims this border.
(D) China: India shares a long and contested land border with China, known as the Line of Actual Control (LAC), running along several Indian states and Union Territories.


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The countries with which India shares a land border are Bhutan, Afghanistan (officially), and China. Sri Lanka is excluded as it does not share a land border. Therefore, the correct combination is (B), (C), and (D).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B), which includes (B), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: When asked about borders, always assume the question refers to land borders unless 'maritime' is specified. India's land neighbors are Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Sri Lanka and the Maldives are maritime neighbors.

Step 1: Understanding the Preamble:

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares the nature of the Indian State. It begins with "WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a...". The sequence of the descriptive words that follow is crucial.


Step 2: Recalling the Sequence:

The Preamble states that India is a:

SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC

This sequence is fixed. It is important to note that the words 'SOCIALIST' and 'SECULAR' were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, and were inserted between 'SOVEREIGN' and 'DEMOCRATIC'.


Step 3: Matching the Sequence with the Options:

Let's map the words to the given letters:

Sovereign \(\rightarrow\) (A)
Socialist \(\rightarrow\) (E)
Secular \(\rightarrow\) (B)
Democratic \(\rightarrow\) (D)
Republic \(\rightarrow\) (C)

The correct sequence is therefore (A), (E), (B), (D), (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The option that matches this sequence is (B).
Quick Tip: Use a mnemonic to remember the sequence: "SSSDR". Then remember that Socialist and Secular were added later, so the order is Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.

Step 1: Understanding the Scheme:

The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (Save the girl child, educate the girl child) is a campaign of the Government of India that aims to generate awareness and improve the efficiency of welfare services intended for girls in India.


Step 2: Identifying the Launch Location:

The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 22 January 2015. The location chosen for the launch was significant. It was launched from Panipat, Haryana.

Haryana was chosen because it had one of the worst Child Sex Ratios (CSR) in the country, and the scheme was initially focused on districts with low CSR. Launching it from Panipat was a symbolic move to address the issue at its heartland.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme was launched at Panipat, Haryana.
Quick Tip: For major government schemes, always remember the launch date, the launch location, the concerned ministry, and the primary objective. The launch location is often symbolic and related to the scheme's purpose.

Step 1: Understanding the Origin of May Day:

International Workers' Day, also known as Labour Day or May Day, is celebrated on May 1st in many countries. Its origin lies in the struggle for workers' rights in the 19th century, particularly the demand for an eight-hour workday.


Step 2: Connecting to the Historical Event:

The date was chosen by the Second International, a pan-national organization of socialist and communist political parties, to commemorate the Haymarket Affair.

The Haymarket Affair (or Haymarket Riot) was the aftermath of a bombing that took place at a labor demonstration on May 4, 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago, USA. The demonstration began peacefully in support of workers striking for an eight-hour workday, the day after police had killed one and injured several workers. The event became a symbol of the international struggle for workers' rights, and May 1st was chosen to mark the general strike that had begun on that day in 1886 and culminated in the Haymarket Affair.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The celebration of International Labour Day on 1st May is associated with the Haymarket Affair, Chicago.
Quick Tip: Associate May 1st (Labour Day) with the struggle for the eight-hour workday and the Haymarket Affair of 1886 in Chicago. This historical event is the cornerstone of International Workers' Day.

Step 1: Identifying the Author of a Key Psychological Work:

The question asks to identify the author of the 1971 book "Beyond Freedom and Dignity".


Step 2: Detailed Explanation of Authors:


B.F. Skinner: Burrhus Frederic Skinner was a highly influential American psychologist, behaviorist, author, inventor, and social philosopher. He was a proponent of behaviorism, which holds that behavior is determined by its consequences (reinforcements or punishments). His 1971 book, "Beyond Freedom and Dignity", argues that concepts like "freedom" and "dignity" are outdated and that human behavior can be engineered for the better through a scientific approach. This is the correct answer. (Note the typo "Skinnes" in the question).
Georg F.W. Hegel: A German philosopher and a major figure in German idealism. His work is in philosophy, not behaviorist psychology.
J. Krishnamurti: An Indian philosopher, speaker, and writer. His concerns were primarily spiritual and philosophical.
Amartya Sen: A Nobel laureate in economics and a philosopher, known for his work on welfare economics and the capability approach.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The author of "Beyond Freedom and Dignity" is B.F. Skinner.
Quick Tip: Associate B.F. Skinner with the school of psychology known as \(\textbf{behaviorism}\) and the concept of \(\textbf{operant conditioning}\). His book "Beyond Freedom and Dignity" is a key text representing his philosophical views.

Step 1: Understanding the Acronym CSR:

CSR is a widely used acronym in the context of business, ethics, and community engagement.


Step 2: Defining CSR:

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It is a business model that helps a company be socially accountable—to itself, its stakeholders, and the public. By practicing corporate social responsibility, companies can be conscious of the kind of impact they are having on all aspects of society, including economic, social, and environmental. It is considered an "extension activity" as it involves the institution engaging with the wider community beyond its core business operations.


Step 3: Final Answer:

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility.
Quick Tip: In a business or management context, the acronym CSR almost always refers to Corporate Social Responsibility. It's a key concept related to business ethics and sustainable development.

Step 1: Understanding the Structure of Indian Security Forces:

India's security forces are broadly divided into the Armed Forces and the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs). It is essential to know which ministry controls which force.


Step 2: Categorizing the Forces:


Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force: These three constitute the Indian Armed Forces. Their primary role is to defend the nation against external aggression. They operate directly under the command and control of the Ministry of Defence. So, (A), (B), and (C) are correct.
CRPF (Central Reserve Police Force) and BSF (Border Security Force): These are part of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs). Their roles include internal security, border guarding, and assisting law and order. The CAPFs (which also include CISF, ITBP, and SSB) operate under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence. So, (D) and (E) are incorrect.


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The forces that come under the Ministry of Defence are the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. This corresponds to (A), (B), and (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B).
Quick Tip: A key distinction to remember: Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, Air Force) are under the \(\textbf{Ministry of Defence}\) for external security. Central Armed Police Forces (CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, SSB) are under the \(\textbf{Ministry of Home Affairs}\) for internal security and border management.

Step 1: Understanding the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs):

The MDGs were a set of eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000. All 191 United Nations member states at the time committed to help achieve these goals.


Step 2: Identifying the Timeframe:

The goals were set in the year 2000 with a target date for achievement set for the year 2015. Therefore, the proposed period for the MDGs was from 2000 to 2015.

After 2015, the MDGs were succeeded by the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are set for the period 2015-2030.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The MDGs were proposed for the period of 2000 - 2015.
Quick Tip: Remember the transition of global development goals: The \(\textbf{Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)}\) ran from \(\textbf{2000 to 2015}\). They were succeeded by the \(\textbf{Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)}\), which run from \(\textbf{2015 to 2030}\).

Step 1: Understanding the Acronym DSM:

DSM is a critical reference work in the field of mental health, particularly in psychiatry and clinical psychology.


Step 2: Defining DSM:

DSM stands for the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. It is published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) and provides a common language and standard criteria for the classification of mental disorders. It is used by clinicians, researchers, psychiatric drug regulation agencies, health insurance companies, pharmaceutical companies, the legal system, and policymakers. The latest version is the DSM-5.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:

Option (B) provides the correct and complete expansion of the acronym. Option (D) incorrectly uses the word "Design" instead of "Diagnostic". Options (A) and (C) are incorrect expansions.


Step 4: Final Answer:

DSM stands for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of mental disorders.
Quick Tip: In mental health, the two most important classification manuals are the \(\textbf{DSM}\) (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) from the American Psychiatric Association and the \(\textbf{ICD}\) (International Classification of Diseases) from the World Health Organization (WHO), which includes a chapter on mental and behavioral disorders.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept of Equilibrium:

In economics, equilibrium is a state where economic forces such as supply and demand are balanced and in the absence of external influences, the values of economic variables will not change. It is the point where the quantity of a good that buyers are willing and able to buy exactly equals the quantity that sellers are willing and able to sell.


Step 2: Analyzing the Options:


(A) No supply against demand and (B) No demand against supply: These describe states of extreme shortage or surplus, respectively, which are states of disequilibrium.
(C) Both demand and supply stand independent: This is incorrect. The concept of equilibrium is precisely about the interaction of demand and supply to determine price and quantity.
(D) Supply equals the demand: This is the definition of market equilibrium. At the equilibrium price, the quantity supplied is equal to the quantity demanded. There is no shortage or surplus.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A state of equilibrium indicates that Supply equals the demand.
Quick Tip: Visualize the standard supply and demand graph. The equilibrium is the single point where the supply curve and the demand curve intersect. At this point, quantity supplied = quantity demanded.

Step 1: Understanding Labour Law Terminology:

The terms 'lay-off' and 'retrenchment' have specific legal meanings under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and refer to different types of termination of employment.


Step 2: Defining Lay-off and Retrenchment:


Lay-off: This refers to the failure, refusal, or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman whose name is on the muster rolls, due to reasons like shortage of coal, power, raw materials, or breakdown of machinery. It is a temporary situation. The employer-employee relationship does not cease; it is merely suspended. The employee is expected to be recalled to work once the situation normalizes. Therefore, statement (A) is true and statement (C) is false.
Retrenchment: This is defined as the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action. It generally happens due to surplus labor or economic reasons. Retrenchment is a permanent termination of the employment contract. Therefore, statement (D) is true and statement (B) is false.


Step 3: Identifying the True Statements:

The true statements are (A) "Lay-off is temporary" and (D) "Retrenchment is permanent".


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D), which includes (A) and (D).
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: \(\textbf{Lay-off}\) is like a temporary pause in employment with the expectation of being called back. \(\textbf{Retrenchment}\) is a permanent end to the employment contract, often due to redundancy.

Step 1: Understanding the Acronym ASSOCHAM:

ASSOCHAM is one of the apex trade associations of India. The organization represents the interests of trade and commerce in India and acts as an interface between industry, government, and other relevant stakeholders.


Step 2: Expanding the Acronym:

The full form of ASSOCHAM is The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India. It was established in 1920.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:

Option (A) correctly spells out the full form. The other options use incorrect words like "Chamber" (singular), "Management," or "Association."


Step 4: Final Answer:

ASSOCHAM stands for The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India.
Quick Tip: Memorize the full forms of major Indian industry bodies: \(\textbf{FICCI}\) (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry), \(\textbf{CII}\) (Confederation of Indian Industry), and \(\textbf{ASSOCHAM}\) (Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India).

Step 1: Understanding the National Commission on Labour:

The Government of India has constituted National Commissions on Labour to review the labour laws and suggest improvements.


Step 2: Identifying the Year of the First Commission:

The First National Commission on Labour was set up on 24th December 1966 under the chairmanship of Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar. The commission submitted its report in 1969, providing a comprehensive review of the labour situation and making numerous recommendations on wages, social security, industrial relations, and working conditions.

The Second National Commission on Labour was set up in 1999 under the chairmanship of Ravindra Varma and submitted its report in 2002.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The First National Commission on Labour was appointed in 1966.
Quick Tip: Remember the years for the two National Commissions on Labour: The \(\textbf{First NCL}\) was in \(\textbf{1966}\) (Gajendragadkar Commission), and the \(\textbf{Second NCL}\) was in \(\textbf{1999}\) (Ravindra Varma Commission).

Step 1: Understanding the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:

The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, is the primary legislation in India for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes. It provides a formal legal framework and establishes various bodies for this purpose.


Step 2: Analyzing the Options:


(A) Labour Court: This is a statutory body established under the Act for adjudicating industrial disputes relating to matters specified in the Second Schedule of the Act (e.g., dismissal of workmen, legality of strikes). So, it is a part of the machinery.
(B) Collective Bargaining: This is a process or a method of negotiation between employers and a group of employees aimed at reaching agreements to regulate working conditions. While it is a crucial mechanism for preventing and resolving disputes, it is not a formal statutory 'machinery' created by the Act in the same way as courts or officers are.
(C) Conciliation Officer: This is an authority appointed under the Act to mediate in and promote the settlement of industrial disputes. So, it is a part of the machinery.
(D) Board of Conciliation: This is a body constituted under the Act, comprising a chairman and two or four other members, to promote the settlement of a dispute. So, it is a part of the machinery.


Step 3: Identifying the Correct Machinery:

The formal machinery established under the Act includes Conciliation Officers, Boards of Conciliation, Courts of Inquiry, Labour Courts, Industrial Tribunals, and National Tribunals. Therefore, (A), (C), and (D) are correct. Collective Bargaining is a process, not a statutory body under the Act.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct combination of machinery for settlement of industrial disputes under the Act is (A), (C), and (D). This corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: Distinguish between statutory machinery (bodies like courts and boards created by a law) and non-statutory methods (processes like collective bargaining and arbitration) for dispute resolution. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, primarily establishes the statutory machinery.

Step 1: Verifying the Enactment Year of Labour Laws:

The question asks to identify the incorrectly stated year of enactment for the given labour laws.


Step 2: Checking Each Act:


Minimum Wages Act: This is a very important piece of labour legislation in India. It was enacted in the year 1948, not 1972. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Equal Remuneration Act: This Act provides for the payment of equal remuneration to men and women workers for the same work or work of a similar nature. It was enacted in 1976. This statement is correct.
Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act: This Act was enacted to regulate the employment of inter-state migrant workmen and to provide for their conditions of service. It was enacted in 1979. This statement is correct.
Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act: This Act was enacted to regulate the employment of contract labour in certain establishments and to provide for its abolition in certain circumstances. It was enacted in 1970. This statement is correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement that is not correct is "Minimum Wage Act 1972", as the correct year is 1948.
Quick Tip: The years of enactment for major labour laws are frequently asked. It's helpful to remember key ones, especially those from the early post-independence era like the Factories Act (1948), Minimum Wages Act (1948), and Industrial Disputes Act (1947).

Step 1: Verifying the Enactment Year of Labour Laws:

The question asks to identify the incorrectly matched Act and its year of enactment.


Step 2: Checking Each Match:


Maternity Benefit Act - 1961: This is a correct match. The Act regulates the employment of women in certain establishments for a certain period before and after child-birth and provides for maternity benefit.
Trade Union Act - 1926: This is a correct match. This Act provides for the registration of Trade Unions and in certain respects to define the law relating to registered Trade Unions.
Minimum Wages Act - 1948: This is a correct match. This Act provides for fixing minimum rates of wages in certain employments.
Payment of Bonus Act - 1971: This is an incorrect match. The Payment of Bonus Act, which provides for the payment of bonus to persons employed in certain establishments, was enacted in the year 1965, not 1971.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The incorrect match is the Payment of Bonus Act- 1971.
Quick Tip: Creating a timeline or flashcards for important Indian legislation, especially in areas like Labour Law, Environmental Law, and Economic Reforms, can be a very effective study method for exams.

Step 1: Understanding Rostow's Model:

Walt Whitman Rostow was an American economist and political theorist who proposed a model of economic growth that outlines five distinct stages through which countries pass as they develop. It is one of the major historical models of economic growth.


Step 2: Listing the Five Stages:

The five stages, in their correct sequence, are:

(A) Traditional Society: Characterized by a subsistence, agricultural-based economy with intensive labor and low levels of trading.
(B) Preconditions for Take-off: A region begins to develop, with the emergence of manufacturing and a more national/international, rather than regional, outlook.
(C) Take-off: A short period of intensive growth, in which industrialization begins to occur, and workers and institutions become concentrated around a new industry.
(D) Drive to Maturity: Takes place over a long period of time, as standards of living rise, use of technology increases, and the national economy grows and diversifies.
(E) Age of High Mass Consumption: The economy is geared towards mass consumption, with a flourishing consumer goods sector.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:


Option (A) includes incorrect terms like "learning curve" and "least consumption."
Option (B) includes incorrect terms like "pre conditions for consumption" and "replication."
Option (C) lists all five stages correctly and in the proper order.
Option (D) incorrectly includes "age of creative destruction," which is a concept associated with Joseph Schumpeter, not Rostow.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct sequence of Rostow's stages of Economic growth is given in option (C).
Quick Tip: Remember the five stages of Rostow's model with keywords: 1. \(\textbf{Traditional}\), 2. \(\textbf{Preconditions}\), 3. \(\textbf{Take-off}\), 4. \(\textbf{Maturity}\), 5. \(\textbf{Mass Consumption}\). This sequence is fundamental to the theory.

Step 1: Understanding the Acronym SCOPE:

SCOPE is an apex professional organization representing the Central Government Public Enterprises of India. It has also been granted the status of a member of the International Organisation of Employees (IOE).


Step 2: Expanding the Acronym:

The full form of SCOPE is Standing Conference of Public Enterprises. It was established in 1973 as a representative body of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). It aims to promote excellence in the functioning of Public Sector Enterprises and to serve as a forum for them to interact with the government and other stakeholders.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:

The other options use incorrect terms like "Committee" instead of "Conference" and "Employees/Employer" instead of "Enterprises". The correct expansion refers to the enterprises (the organizations themselves), not their employees or employers in a general sense.


Step 4: Final Answer:

SCOPE stands for Standing Conference of Public Enterprises.
Quick Tip: When dealing with acronyms of large organizations, focus on the keywords. For SCOPE, 'Conference' and 'Enterprises' are the key distinguishing terms. It represents the public sector companies themselves.

Step 1: Understanding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy. These are ideals which are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country. This question requires matching specific principles with their corresponding articles.


Step 2: Analyzing and Matching Each Principle:


(A) Equal pay for equal work for man and woman: This is a key socialist principle enshrined in Article 39(d) of the Constitution. This matches with (III).
(B) Just and human condition for work and maternity relief: The state is directed to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief under Article 42. This matches with (IV).
(C) Living wage and decent standard of life of labour: The state shall endeavor to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organization or in any other way, to all workers a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life, etc. This is stated in Article 43. This matches with (I).
(D) High level of nutrition and standard of living and improving public health: The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties. This is the mandate of Article 47. This matches with (II).


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) IV, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) II.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (C) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: Memorizing key articles of Fundamental Rights and DPSP is crucial for polity questions. Create flashcards or use mnemonic devices. For example, remember Art 39(d) for 'd' for 'dhan' (wealth/pay), Art 42 for maternity relief, Art 43 for living wage, and Art 47 for health.

Step 1: Understanding NCLP in the Context of Indian Labour Law:

The Government of India has taken several measures to eradicate child labour. The acronym NCLP is central to these efforts and encompasses both the guiding policy and the scheme for its implementation.


Step 2: Defining the Components of NCLP:


(A) National Child Labour Policy: The Government announced the National Policy on Child Labour in 1987. This policy provides a comprehensive framework for tackling the problem of child labour. This is a correct term associated with NCLP.
(B) National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme: To implement the policy, the NCLP Scheme was started in 1988. This is the major central sector scheme for the rehabilitation of child labour. It focuses on withdrawing children from hazardous work and mainstreaming them into the formal education system. This is also a correct term, and the scheme is widely referred to as the "NCLP Scheme".
(C) National Child Labour Prevention and (D) National Child Labour Protection: These are objectives of the policy and project, but they are not what the acronym NCLP stands for.

Since the overall initiative involves both the policy and the project, and both are commonly referred to within the NCLP framework, both (A) and (B) are correct in this context.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Both the National Child Labour Policy and the National Child Labour Project are correct terms under the NCLP framework. Therefore, the correct option is (C), which includes both (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Remember that in government initiatives, there is often a 'Policy' that sets the goals and a 'Project' or 'Scheme' that implements it. For NCLP, the Policy (1987) came first, followed by the Project (1988).

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Labour Act with its Enactment Year:


(A) Minimum Wage Act: This Act provides for fixing minimum rates of wages in certain employments. It was enacted in 1948. This matches with (II).
(B) Payment of Gratuity Act: This Act provides for a scheme for the payment of gratuity to employees engaged in factories, mines, oilfields, plantations, ports, railway companies, shops or other establishments. It was enacted in 1972. This matches with (I).
(C) Industrial Dispute Act: This is a key legislation for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes. It was enacted in 1947. This matches with (IV).
(D) Payment of Wages Act: This Act regulates the payment of wages to certain classes of employed persons. It was enacted in 1936, during the British era. This matches with (III).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: Remembering the enactment years of major labour laws is crucial. Group them chronologically: Payment of Wages Act (1936) is a pre-independence law. Industrial Disputes Act (1947) and Minimum Wages Act (1948) are key post-independence foundational laws. Payment of Gratuity Act (1972) came much later.

Step 1: Understanding Auguste Comte's Law of Three Stages:

Auguste Comte, a French philosopher and the founder of sociology, proposed the "Law of Three Stages" to describe the evolution of human thought and society. He argued that society as a whole, and each particular science, develops through three mentally conceived stages.


Step 2: Identifying the Stages and their Order:

The three stages in their correct chronological order are:

(A) The Theological Stage: In this stage, humans explain natural and social phenomena as the work of supernatural beings or gods. This is the earliest stage. This corresponds to (B).
(B) The Metaphysical Stage: This is a transitional stage. Explanations are based on abstract concepts and forces (like 'nature') rather than personal gods. This corresponds to (E).
(C) The Positive (or Scientific) Stage: In this final stage, explanations are based on scientific observation, experimentation, and logical proof. This corresponds to (A).

The correct order is (B) \(\rightarrow\) (E) \(\rightarrow\) (A). The terms 'Industrial' (C) and 'Primitive' (D) are not part of Comte's three stages.


Step 3: Analyzing the Options:

The question asks to tick the correct order, but none of the options list the stages in the correct order (B, E, A). However, option (C) is the only one that contains all three correct stages: (A) Positive, (B) Theological, and (E) Metaphysical. The question is likely flawed and is asking to identify the three stages rather than ordering them. Based on the options provided, the only choice containing the correct set of stages is (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The option containing the three correct stages as proposed by Auguste Comte is (C). The correct order of these stages is Theological, Metaphysical, and Positive.
Quick Tip: Remember Comte's three stages with the acronym TMP: \(\textbf{T}\)heological (God), \(\textbf{M}\)etaphysical (Abstract forces), \(\textbf{P}\)ositive (Science). This helps recall both the stages and their correct sequence.

Step 1: Understanding the Core Principles of the International Labour Organisation (ILO):

The question's statements are closely related to the founding principles of the ILO, particularly those outlined in the Declaration of Philadelphia (1944), which is now an annex to the ILO Constitution. These principles guide the understanding of economic development from a labour rights perspective.


Step 2: Evaluating Each Statement:


(A) Labour is a commodity: This statement is False. The very first principle of the Declaration of Philadelphia explicitly states, "labour is not a commodity." This means that workers should not be treated as mere factors of production whose price is determined by supply and demand, but as human beings with rights and dignity.
(B) Freedom of expression is essential to sustained progress: This statement is True. The Declaration of Philadelphia affirms that "freedom of expression and of association are essential to sustained progress."
(C) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger of poverty everywhere: This statement is True. This is one of the most famous and fundamental mottos of the ILO, also from the Declaration of Philadelphia. It underscores the interconnectedness of global prosperity and social justice.
(D) India is a founder member of ILO: This statement is True. The ILO was founded in 1919 as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I. India was a founding member, even before its independence.


Step 3: Identifying the True Statements:

The true statements are (B), (C), and (D).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B), which includes all the true statements.
Quick Tip: Remember the three key declarations of the ILO's Declaration of Philadelphia: 1) Labour is NOT a commodity, 2) Freedom of expression is essential, and 3) Poverty anywhere is a danger to prosperity everywhere.

Step 1: Understanding the IT Act:

The Information Technology Act, commonly known as the IT Act, is the primary law in India dealing with cybercrime and electronic commerce. It provides legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication.


Step 2: Identifying the Year of Enactment:

The Indian Parliament passed the Information Technology Act, 2000, in May 2000. It was notified and came into effect on 17 October 2000. This Act was later amended by the IT (Amendment) Act of 2008.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The IT Act came into existence in the year 2000.
Quick Tip: For key Indian legislations, the year is often included in the official title, like the "Information Technology Act, 2000". This is a useful clue in many questions.

Step 1: Understanding Keynesian Economics:

Keynesian economics, developed by John Maynard Keynes in the 1930s, represents a significant departure from classical economic thought. Its central tenet is that aggregate demand (total spending in the economy) is the most important driving force in an economy and is often volatile and inadequate, leading to recessions and unemployment.


Step 2: Analyzing the Concepts:


(A) Laissez-Faire: This is the belief that economies function best when there is no government interference. This is a core concept of classical economics, which Keynesian economics directly challenges.
(B) Invisible hand: This is a metaphor used by Adam Smith to describe the unintended social benefits of individual self-interested actions. It is a cornerstone of classical, laissez-faire economics.
(C) Aggregate demand management: This is the central idea of Keynesian economics. Keynes argued that during economic downturns, the government should actively intervene to stimulate the economy by increasing government spending or cutting taxes to boost aggregate demand.
(D) Comparative advantage: This is a theory of international trade, most famously associated with David Ricardo. It argues that countries should specialize in producing goods where they have a lower opportunity cost. While important, it is not a central concept of Keynesian macroeconomic theory.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The concept most directly associated with Keynesian economics is Aggregate demand management.
Quick Tip: Associate economists with their big ideas: Adam Smith \(\rightarrow\) Invisible Hand; David Ricardo \(\rightarrow\) Comparative Advantage; John Maynard Keynes \(\rightarrow\) Aggregate Demand Management. Keynesianism is about government intervention to manage the economy, which is the opposite of Laissez-Faire.

Step 1: Understanding Modern Approaches to Development Administration:

Modern approaches to development administration, particularly since the 1970s and 80s, have shifted away from top-down, state-centric models towards more people-centric, participatory, and sustainable paradigms. Thinkers like David Korten have been influential in promoting these alternative development strategies.


Step 2: Evaluating Each Element:


(A) Self reliance and independence: This is a core tenet of modern development thinking. It emphasizes building local capacity and reducing dependency on external aid, aligning with bottom-up development. This is a key element.
(B) Focus on secrecy and non-involvement of the State: This is the opposite of modern approaches. Modern development administration stresses transparency, accountability, and appropriate, facilitative involvement of the state, not secrecy or non-involvement.
(C) People's participation and empowerment: This is arguably the most crucial feature of modern development administration. It prioritizes involving communities in the planning and implementation of development projects to ensure their relevance and sustainability. This is a key element.
(D) Capitalization and foreign dependence: This describes the older, modernization-theory approach to development, which modern paradigms critique. Modern approaches aim to reduce, not increase, foreign dependence.
(E) Emphasizes the local resource mobilization and use: This is directly linked to self-reliance. Modern approaches advocate for identifying and utilizing local resources (both human and material) as the primary engine for development. This is a key element.


Step 3: Identifying the Correct Combination:

The key elements of modern approaches are (A), (C), and (E).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option that includes these three elements is (C).
Quick Tip: When thinking about 'modern' vs. 'traditional' development administration, associate 'modern' with keywords like \(\textbf{participation, empowerment, sustainability, self-reliance, and bottom-up}\). Associate 'traditional' with \(\textbf{top-down, state-centric, bureaucracy, and foreign aid dependency}\).

Step 1: Understanding the Role of NITI Aayog:

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.


Step 2: Identifying the Predecessor Institution:

The NITI Aayog was established by the NDA government on January 1, 2015. It was created to replace the Planning Commission, which had been responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans since 1950. The shift from the Planning Commission to NITI Aayog was intended to move from a centralized planning model to one that fosters cooperative federalism, involving the states more as equal partners in the development process.


Step 3: Analyzing Other Options:


Finance Commission: This is a constitutional body (under Article 280) that is constituted every five years to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments. It continues to exist and function independently.
Commerce and Industry Commission and Labour Commission: These are not standing bodies in the same vein as the Planning or Finance Commissions. Commissions for these sectors are typically formed for specific purposes and timeframes.


Step 4: Final Answer:

NITI Aayog came into functioning as a substitute for the Planning Commission.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference in approach: The \(\textbf{Planning Commission}\) had a top-down, centralized planning approach and the power to allocate funds. \(\textbf{NITI Aayog}\) is a bottom-up, advisory 'Think Tank' with no power to allocate funds, focusing on cooperative federalism.

Step 1: Understanding the Human Development Report (HDR):

The Human Development Report is an annual report that measures and analyzes development trends from a human-centric perspective. It is famous for introducing and publishing the Human Development Index (HDI), which ranks countries based on a combination of health, education, and standard of living.


Step 2: Identifying the Publishing Organization:

The Human Development Report is published by the Human Development Report Office for the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.


Step 3: Analyzing Other Options:


World Bank: Publishes the World Development Report.
IMF (International Monetary Fund): Publishes the World Economic Outlook.
WHO (World Health Organization): Publishes the World Health Statistics report.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Human Development Report is published by the UNDP.
Quick Tip: Associate major international reports with their publishers: \(\textbf{Human Development Report (HDR)}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\textbf{UNDP}\); \(\textbf{World Development Report}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\textbf{World Bank}\); \(\textbf{World Economic Outlook}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\textbf{IMF}\); \(\textbf{Global Competitiveness Report}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\textbf{World Economic Forum (WEF)}\).

Step 1: Understanding the Issue:

The question asks for the international agreement that deals with the phasing out of ozone-depleting substances, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).


Step 2: Identifying the Correct Protocol:

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a landmark international environmental treaty designed to protect the Earth's ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances. It was agreed upon on 16 September 1987 and entered into force on 1 January 1989. The protocol provides a timetable for the phase-out of substances like CFCs, halons, and carbon tetrachloride. It is considered one of the most successful international environmental agreements in history.


Step 3: Analyzing Other Options:

The other options are either not real treaties or are related to different issues (e.g., the Geneva Conventions relate to the laws of war). The correct and specific agreement for banning CFCs and protecting the ozone layer is the Montreal Protocol.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Montreal Protocol mandates the banning of CFCs and other ozone-depleting chemicals.
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction between the two major climate-related protocols: The \(\textbf{Montreal Protocol (1987)}\) is about protecting the \(\textbf{Ozone Layer}\) by banning CFCs. The \(\textbf{Kyoto Protocol (1997)}\) is about combating \(\textbf{Global Warming}\) by reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Step 1: Understanding the Significance of the Book:

"The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money" is one of the most influential books in the history of economics. Published in 1936, it challenged the classical economic thought that prevailed at the time and laid the foundation for modern macroeconomics, especially in the context of the Great Depression.


Step 2: Identifying the Author:

The book was written by the British economist John Maynard Keynes. His ideas, collectively known as Keynesian economics, advocate for active government intervention in the economy, particularly through fiscal policy (government spending and taxation), to mitigate the adverse effects of economic recessions and depressions.

The other economists listed are known for different contributions:

Manmohan Singh: An Indian politician and economist, known for implementing economic reforms in India in 1991.
Adam Smith: The father of modern economics, known for "The Wealth of Nations" (1776).
Amartya Sen: A Nobel laureate known for his work on welfare economics and the capability approach.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The author of "The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money" is John Maynard Keynes.
Quick Tip: Associate John Maynard Keynes with Keynesian economics, macroeconomics, the Great Depression, and his magnum opus, "The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money" (1936).

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Item:


(A) Make in India: This is a major national initiative launched by the Government of India to encourage companies to manufacture their products in India. It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in September 2014. This matches with (IV).
(B) New Economic Policy (NEP): This refers to the landmark economic reforms of liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG) introduced in India to deal with a severe economic crisis. These reforms were initiated in 1991. This matches with (I).
(C) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT): GATT was a multilateral agreement regulating international trade. Its purpose was the "substantial reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers and the elimination of preferences." It was signed in 1947 and came into effect in 1948. It was later replaced by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995. This matches with (II). (Note: The question has a typo "Traffic" instead of "Tariffs").
(D) NITI Aayog: The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India. It was established on January 1, 2015, to replace the Planning Commission. This matches with (III).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) IV, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) II, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (A) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: Creating a timeline of major post-independence economic events in India is a very useful study tool. Key dates like the establishment of the Planning Commission (1950), NEP (1991), and the formation of NITI Aayog (2015) are frequently tested.

Step 1: Understanding Classical Theories of Economic Growth:

Classical economists had varying views on the long-term prospects of economic growth. These views can be broadly categorized as optimistic, pessimistic, and moderate.


Step 2: Analyzing and Matching Each Theory:


(A) The Optimistic Theory of Economic Growth: Adam Smith is considered an optimist. In "The Wealth of Nations," he argued that the division of labor, capital accumulation, and free markets would lead to continuous economic progress and prosperity. This matches with (II).
(B) The Pessimistic Theory of Economic Growth: David Ricardo and Thomas Malthus are considered pessimists. Malthus argued that population growth would outstrip food supply, leading to subsistence-level wages. Ricardo's theory of diminishing returns on land and the eventual arrival of a "stationary state" where growth ceases also presented a pessimistic long-run view. This matches with (IV).
(C) The Moderate Theory of Economic Growth: J.S. Mill, while building on Ricardo's ideas, had a more moderate or nuanced view. He accepted the idea of a stationary state but viewed it not as a bleak end but as a desirable state where society could focus on social and moral progress rather than just material accumulation. This matches with (I).
(D) The Dependency Theory: This is a modern theory of development, not a classical one. It argues that resources flow from a "periphery" of poor and underdeveloped states to a "core" of wealthy states, enriching the latter at the expense of the former. A key proponent of this theory is Andre Gunder Frank. This matches with (III).


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) IV, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For classical growth theories, remember the core outlook: Adam Smith = Optimist (division of labor, free markets); Malthus/Ricardo = Pessimists (population growth, diminishing returns); J.S. Mill = Moderate (stationary state as a positive outcome).

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Book/Work with its Author:


(A) Political Economy of growth: This is a seminal work in Marxist development theory, written by Paul Baran in 1957. It explores the dynamics of underdevelopment and the role of imperialism. This matches with (IV).
(B) The Wealth of Nations: Fully titled "An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations," this 1776 book is the magnum opus of Adam Smith and a foundational text of classical economics. This matches with (I).
(C) The Theory of Economic growth: This influential 1955 book on development economics, which introduced the dual-sector model, was written by Nobel laureate W. Arthur Lewis. This matches with (II).
(D) Resources, Values and Development: This is a collection of essays by Nobel laureate Amartya Sen, published in 1984. It covers themes like resource allocation, welfare economics, and moral philosophy. This matches with (III).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) IV, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) II, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For "Books and Authors" questions in economics, create a list of Nobel laureates (like Lewis and Sen) and their major works. Also, be familiar with the foundational texts of different economic schools of thought (e.g., Adam Smith for Classical, Paul Baran for Marxist).

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each UN Body with its Headquarters:


(A) United Nations Security Council: This is one of the six principal organs of the UN. Its headquarters, along with the General Assembly and the Secretariat, is in the UN Headquarters complex in New York, USA. This matches with (II).
(B) International Court of Justice (ICJ): Also known as the World Court, it is the principal judicial organ of the UN. It is located in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands. This matches with (III).
(C) International Labour Organisation (ILO): This is a UN specialized agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice through setting international labour standards. Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland. This matches with (I).
(D) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO): This is a specialized agency of the UN aimed at promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, arts, sciences, and culture. Its headquarters is in Paris, France. This matches with (IV).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) III, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (A) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For UN bodies, remember the key locations: New York (HQ, Security Council, General Assembly), Geneva (WHO, ILO, UNHCR), The Hague (ICJ, ICC), and Paris (UNESCO). Knowing these main hubs will help you answer most headquarters-related questions.

Step 1: Understanding Welfare Models:

These are different theoretical approaches to how social welfare should be provided in a society. The question links these models to certain concepts or tools.


Step 2: Analyzing and Matching Each Model:


(A) Residual welfare model: This model views social welfare as a safety net. It comes into play only when the normal structures of supply, the family and the market, break down. It provides a limited range of welfare services to the most needy. This matches with (II).
(B) Institutional welfare model: This model sees welfare services as a normal, 'first line' function of modern industrial society. It is a broader, universal approach. A key tool to fund such a comprehensive system is through income redistribution, achieved via progressive taxation. This matches with (I).
(C) Achievement performance model: Also known as the industrial achievement-performance model, this approach links welfare provisions to merit, work performance, and productivity. Social needs are met on the basis of merit, work performance, and productivity. This is closely related to the idea of incentives and reward. This matches with (IV).
(D) Sustainable development model: This model emphasizes development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. A core principle is the efficient and responsible management of natural and economic capital, i.e., the optimal use of resources. This matches with (III).


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For welfare models, remember the core idea: \(\textbf{Residual}\) = safety net for the few; \(\textbf{Institutional}\) = universal service for all; \(\textbf{Achievement}\) = welfare based on work/merit. This can help you link them to associated concepts.

Step 1: Understanding Different Economic Systems:

Economic systems are the means by which countries and governments distribute resources and trade goods and services. They are used to control the five factors of production, including labor, capital, entrepreneurs, physical resources, and information resources.


Step 2: Analyzing and Matching Each System:


(A) Traditional Economic System: This system is based on customs, history, and time-honored beliefs. It depends on agriculture, fishing, hunting, and gathering. It is the most basic and ancient type of economy. This matches with (II).
(B) Command Economic System: In this system, a central governmental authority makes all major economic decisions regarding production and distribution. A large part of the economic system is controlled by a centralized power. This is also known as a planned economy. This matches with (III).
(C) Market Economic System: This system is based on supply and demand with little or no government control. Decisions are made by individuals and private firms. It is similar to a free market. This is also known as capitalism. This matches with (IV).
(D) Mixed Economic System: This system combines elements of both market and command economies. It features private ownership and control of most of the means of production, but often with government regulation. Many developing countries exhibit a dual economy, with a modern, market-based sector existing alongside a traditional, subsistence sector, a key feature of a mixed system in that context. This matches with (I).


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) III, C \(\rightarrow\) IV, D \(\rightarrow\) I.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (B) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: Remember the core control mechanism for each system: \(\textbf{Traditional}\) = Customs; \(\textbf{Command}\) = Government; \(\textbf{Market}\) = Individuals/Firms; \(\textbf{Mixed}\) = Government + Individuals.

Step 1: Understanding Different Sources of Power:

This question requires matching different types of power generation with their correct description or characteristic.


Step 2: Analyzing and Matching Each Power Source:


(A) Green power and Bio-fuels: Bio-fuels are fuels derived from biomass (plant or algae material or animal waste). Ethanol, produced from sugarcane or jatropha, is a prominent example used to power vehicles. This is a form of green power. This correctly matches with (IV).
(B) Hydro-electric power: This is generated by using the gravitational force of falling or flowing water. Water is a renewable natural resource. This correctly matches with (III).
(C) Thermal Power: This is the most common source of power generation. It is produced by burning fossil fuels like coal, oil, or natural gas to heat water and produce steam, which then drives a turbine. This correctly matches with (I).
(D) Nuclear Power: This uses nuclear fission to generate heat and produce electricity. In India, it is of relatively recent origin compared to hydro and thermal power. As of recent data, its contribution to the total installed capacity is relatively small, typically around 2-3%. This correctly matches with (II).


Step 3: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) IV, B \(\rightarrow\) III, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) II.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (D) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: Categorize power sources into two main groups: \(\textbf{Renewable}\) (Hydro, Solar, Wind, Bio-fuels) and \(\textbf{Non-renewable}\) (Thermal - Coal/Oil/Gas, Nuclear). This initial classification helps in quickly eliminating incorrect options.

Step 1: Understanding the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002:

The 86th Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 2002, was a landmark amendment focusing on the right to education. It introduced significant changes to the Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties.


Step 2: Analyzing the Changes Introduced:


It inserted Article 21-A into the Constitution, making the Right to Education a Fundamental Right for children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
It modified the Directive Principle in Article 45 to direct the state to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
It added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51-A(k). This new duty states: "It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years."


Step 3: Evaluating the Options:


Option (A) and (B) are not listed as Fundamental Duties.
Option (C) directly corresponds to the new Fundamental Duty added by the 86th Amendment under Article 51-A(k).
Option (D) is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51-A(a), but it was part of the original set of duties, not added by the 86th Amendment.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Fundamental Duty inserted by the 86th Amendment is the responsibility of parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to a child between the ages of 6-14.
Quick Tip: The 86th Amendment (2002) is exclusively about education for children. Remember its three-pronged impact: a Fundamental Right (Art 21-A), a modified Directive Principle (Art 45), and a new Fundamental Duty (Art 51-A(k)).

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Government Scheme:


(A) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP): Launched in 1980, this program aimed to generate employment in rural areas through the creation of durable community assets that would strengthen rural infrastructure. This matches with (II).
(B) Million Wells Scheme (MWS): Started in 1988-89, this was a specific scheme with the objective of constructing one million open irrigation wells for small and marginal farmers, free of cost, to boost agricultural productivity. This perfectly matches with (I).
(C) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY): Launched in 1985, this was a flagship rural housing scheme by the Government of India. Its primary objective was to provide financial assistance for the construction of houses for the poor in rural areas. This clearly matches with (III).
(D) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP): Launched in 1983, this programme's objective was to guarantee employment for at least one member of every rural landless household for up to 100 days a year. It focused on generating gainful employment and creating productive assets in rural areas. This matches with (IV).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) II, B \(\rightarrow\) I, C \(\rightarrow\) III, D \(\rightarrow\) IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (C) matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: For questions on older government schemes, focus on the keywords in their names. "Awas" means housing, "Employment Guarantee" points to generating employment, and "Wells Scheme" points to irrigation. This helps in quick and accurate matching.

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Economic Theory/Concept:


(A) Theory of Big Push: This theory in development economics suggests that a large, coordinated investment across multiple industries is necessary for a developing country to industrialize. This theory was proposed by Paul Rosenstein-Rodan. This matches with (III).
(B) Theory of unbalanced growth: This theory argues that to stimulate development, investment should be concentrated in specific key sectors rather than being spread thinly across all sectors. This concept is strongly associated with Albert Hirschman. This matches with (II).
(C) Division of Labour: This is the concept of specialization of labor in specific, circumscribed tasks and roles, intended to increase efficiency. It is a cornerstone of classical economics, famously articulated by Adam Smith in "The Wealth of Nations". This matches with (I).
(D) Reserve Army of Labour: This is a central concept in the economic theory of Karl Marx. It refers to the structural unemployment and underemployment inherent in capitalist economies, which keeps wages down and workers disciplined. This matches with (IV).


Step 2: Forming the Correct Combination:

The correct pairings are: A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) II, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) IV.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Looking at the options, option (A) perfectly matches our derived sequence.
Quick Tip: Create a small table associating major economists with their key theories: Adam Smith (Division of Labour, Invisible Hand), Karl Marx (Class Struggle, Reserve Army of Labour), Rosenstein-Rodan (Big Push), Hirschman (Unbalanced Growth). This is very helpful for matching-type questions.