CUET PG Dairy Technology Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Dairy Technology exam 2025 was held on 25 March 2025. After the exam, students can access the question paper, answer key, and PDF solutions. The exam tests understanding of core areas such as dairy engineering, dairy microbiology, milk processing, quality control, dairy chemistry, packaging, and storage technologies.

The question paper includes 75 questions to be answered in 60 minutes. Each correct answer awards 4 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.

CUET PG Dairy Technology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Dairy Technology Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Dairy Technology 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

NDDB at Anand (Gujarat) was set up in ___________

  • (A) 1987
  • (B) 1990
  • (C) 1980
  • (D) 1982

Question 2:

Jamunapari breed is a breed of-

  • (A) Buffalo
  • (B) Sheep
  • (C) Cow
  • (D) Goat

Question 3:

The approximate yield of ghee in kg from 100 kg buffalo milk is

  • (A) 9.0
  • (B) 4.0
  • (C) 6.5
  • (D) 5.0

Question 4:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D-I

Question 5:

Caring of new born calf includes -

A. Immediately after the calf is born, make sure that all mucous is removed from the nose and mouth.

B. Apply tincture of iodine to the navel at birth, and dust with boric acid powder.

C. Under most conditions, the calf will be on its feet and ready for suckling with in an hour.

D. Be sure the calf gets first milk (colostrum) at least for 48 hours.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 6:

Butyro Refracto meter is used to measure

A. Purity of ghee

B. B R reading of ghee

C. Fat content in milk

D. Vitamin content in milk

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and C are correct
  • (B) A, B, C, D are wrong
  • (C) A, B, C, D are correct
  • (D) A and B are correct

Question 7:

___________ is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland and is must for the ejection (milk let-down) of milk.

  • (A) Somatotropin
  • (B) Parathyroid
  • (C) Adrenals
  • (D) Oxytocin

Question 8:

100 kg of buffalo milk will yield ___________ kg of Khoa

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 22
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 30

Question 9:

The over run in butter generally ranges between

  • (A) 16-18%
  • (B) 10-12%
  • (C) 21-23%
  • (D) 13-15%

Question 10:

The major challenges of Indian dairy and livestock farming are -

A. Deficient animal health care service

B. Insufficient trained manpower

C. Government policies and lack of resources

D. Increased adoption level and more skilled persons are available

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 11:

The BR reading of ghee normally varies from ___________

  • (A) 50-56
  • (B) 41-43
  • (C) 38-40
  • (D) 28-30

Question 12:

In buffalo milk the percentage of water is -

  • (A) 86.5%
  • (B) 84.2%
  • (C) 75.4%
  • (D) 86.6%

Question 13:

The titrable acidity of cow milk varies from -

  • (A) 0.13 to 0.14 Percent LA
  • (B) 0.08 to 0.1 Percent LA
  • (C) 0.17 to 0.18 Percent LA
  • (D) 0.18 to 0.19 Percent LA

Question 14:

The specific gravity of milk is lowered by the addition of -

  • (A) Skim milk
  • (B) Water and cream
  • (C) Sugar
  • (D) Salt

Question 15:

The process of removing 99% of the bacteria in milk by centrifugal force is known as -

  • (A) Standardization
  • (B) Regeneration
  • (C) Bactofugation
  • (D) Gravity separation

Question 16:

High Temperature Short Time (HTST) pasteurization gives a continuous flow of milk which is heated to -

  • (A) 72°C for 15 seconds
  • (B) 63°C for 30 minutes
  • (C) 44°C for 44 seconds
  • (D) 34°C for 34 seconds

Question 17:

Barny defect of milk is due to -

  • (A) Intake of bitter weeds
  • (B) Using late lactation milk
  • (C) Overheating of milk
  • (D) Improper ventilation of milking byre / barn

Question 18:

The products that are obtained by evaporating part of water of whole milk or fully or partly skimmed milk with or without addition of sugar are -

  • (A) Condensed milk
  • (B) A value milk
  • (C) Z value milk
  • (D) F\(_0\) value milk

Question 19:

Sweetened condensed milk is the product obtained from cow or buffalo milk or combination thereof or from standardized milk by partial removal of water and ___________

  • (A) Addition of cane sugar
  • (B) Addition of salt
  • (C) Addition of milk powder
  • (D) Addition of citric acid

Question 20:

The product obtained from cow or buffalo milk or from standardized milk by partial removal of water is-

  • (A) Sweetened condensed milk
  • (B) Sweetened condensed skim milk
  • (C) Full cream Sweetened condensed skim milk
  • (D) Evaporated milk

Question 21:

Basundi is a popular product of

  • (A) Rajasthan and Haryana
  • (B) Haryana and Assam
  • (C) Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala
  • (D) Bengal and Odissa

Question 22:

Generally ___________ kg of common salt is added to 100 kg table butter during manufacturing

  • (A) 1.2
  • (B) 1.6
  • (C) 2.5
  • (D) 1.0

Question 23:

According to the PFA rules, 1976, milk powder should contain not more than-

  • (A) 5% of moisture
  • (B) 10% of moisture
  • (C) 15% of moisture
  • (D) 20% of moisture

Question 24:

Rancid flavour in dried milk is due to -

  • (A) Low pre-heating temperature
  • (B) Drum surface has pits
  • (C) Storage at high temperature
  • (D) High moisture during storage

Question 25:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Bloats is microbial defect of condensed milk.

Reason (R): Contamination with and growth of yeast Torula lactis condensi at high temperature.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 26:

COB test is used for detection of

  • (A) Urea in milk
  • (B) Developed acidity of milk
  • (C) Sugar in Milk
  • (D) Bicarbonate in milk

Question 27:

P\(_{H}\) of normal fresh milk is between

  • (A) 6.1 to 6.3
  • (B) 7.1 to 7.3
  • (C) 6.0 to 6.1
  • (D) 6.6 to 6.8

Question 28:

Triple effect evaporator is utilised for

  • (A) Separation of milk
  • (B) Condensing of milk
  • (C) Whey separation
  • (D) Fermentation of milk

Question 29:

The function of clarifiers is

  • (A) Removal of dense foreign matter, dirt, cellular debris
  • (B) Separation of fat and skim milk
  • (C) Removal of fat
  • (D) Recovery of whey protein soilds

Question 30:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Single stage homogenization increases viscosity considerably.

Reason (R): It produces clusters in which the membranes of individual fat globules join each other, although the fat itself is not in contact.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 31:

In pasteurization process, if the product has been properly pasteurized, it is forwarded through unit,while that which is unpasteurized is diverted into the balance tank for reprocessing.The valve used for this purpose is

  • (A) Q\(_{10}\) valve
  • (B) F\(_{0}\) valve
  • (C) Flow dispersion valve
  • (D) Flow diversion valve

Question 32:

Kalakand is a

  • (A) Fermented product
  • (B) Acid coagulated product
  • (C) Sweetened heat coagulated product
  • (D) Dried milk product

Question 33:

___________ is not a sterilizing agent used in Dairy Industry

  • (A) Chlorine
  • (B) Quaternary ammonium compounds
  • (C) Hydrogen peroxide
  • (D) Sulphuric acid

Question 34:

The process in which the sterilizer is emptied and refilled between each process cycle are-

  • (A) Direct sterilization
  • (B) Conductive heating
  • (C) Concentric heating
  • (D) Batch sterilization

Question 35:

Sandiness in milk powders is due to

  • (A) Proteins
  • (B) Fats
  • (C) Calcium
  • (D) Lactose

Question 36:

___________ is the nutritious food containing fat, denatured protein, burnt lactose and minerals.

  • (A) Plain condensed whey
  • (B) Ghee-residue
  • (C) Sweetened condensed whey
  • (D) Whey paste

Question 37:

In ultra high temperature (UHT) treatment, milk is heated at temperature of -

  • (A) 120°C to 125°C
  • (B) 145°C to 150°C
  • (C) 100°C to 105°C
  • (D) 80°C to 85°C

Question 38:

Ice-cream may contain permitted stabilizers and emulsifiers not exceeding ___________ percent by weight.

  • (A) 0.5
  • (B) 0.10
  • (C) 0.15
  • (D) 0.20

Question 39:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D-I

Question 40:

Defects in ice cream are -

A. Rancid flavour

B. Soggy body

C. Fluffy texture

D. Foamy meltdown quality

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) B, A and D only
  • (D) A, B, C, and D

Question 41:

Slow melting quality of ice cream is due to -

A. Excessive stabilizer content.

B. Inadequate homogenization.

C. Excessive overrun

D. Excessive emulsifier content.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) C and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A and D only
  • (D) B and C only

Question 42:

The yield of acid casein ranges between ___________ to ___________ from skim milk

  • (A) 2.2 to 2.4%
  • (B) 2.0 to 2.2%
  • (C) 4.0 to 4.5%
  • (D) 2.8 to 3.2%

Question 43:

A stabilizer used in ice cream is -

  • (A) Mono - glycerides
  • (B) Sodium alginate
  • (C) Di - glycerides
  • (D) Glycol esters

Question 44:

The sugar percentage of Shrikhand is generally

  • (A) 60%
  • (B) 40%
  • (C) 42%
  • (D) 30%

Question 45:

The RM value of ghee generally varies between

  • (A) 20-25
  • (B) 28-32
  • (C) 13-18
  • (D) 9-12

Question 46:

Phosphatase test is used for checking

  • (A) Efficiency of sterilization
  • (B) Efficiency of separation of milk
  • (C) Detection of sugar in milk
  • (D) Efficiency of pasteurization

Question 47:

Commercial uses of lactose are -

A. In infant food.

B. In caramel or fudges.

C. In solid pharmaceutical preparations such as pills and tablets.

D. In manufacturing whey proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 48:

In which of the following product edible casein is not used?

  • (A) Ice cream
  • (B) Coffee whiteners
  • (C) Imitation milk
  • (D) Whevit

Question 49:

All dairy fermentations use lactic acid bacteria for -

  • (A) Acidification and flavour production
  • (B) Salting
  • (C) Sweetening
  • (D) Bitterness

Question 50:

The selective criteria for Cheddar cheese cultures are-

A. Rapid acid production

B. Bacteriophage resistance

C. Salt senstivity

D. Ripening activity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 51:

Rose-Gotteleib method is used for extraction of

  • (A) Milk Fat
  • (B) Milk Sugar
  • (C) Milk Protein
  • (D) Vitamin

Question 52:

Culture for Mozzarella cheese is -

  • (A) S.thermophillus and L.delbrueckii subsp.bulgaricus
  • (B) S.thermophillus and L.helveticus and P. frudenreichii sub sp. shermanii
  • (C) Leuc. mesenteroides subsp. cremoris
  • (D) Propionibacterim

Question 53:

MBRT of properly pasteurized milk shall not be less than

  • (A) 5 hours
  • (B) 3 hours
  • (C) 2 hours
  • (D) 1 hour

Question 54:

Microbiologically induced defect in cheese is

A. Mold Growth

B. Yeast Growth

C. Gassy defect in cheese

D. Discoloration in cheese

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 55:

Manufacture of yoghurt involves following chronological steps-

A. Standadization of mix and homogenization

B. Heat treatment and cooling to inoculation temperature

C. Inoculation with yoghurt cultures and incubation

D. Cooling and Packaging

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B and D only
  • (D) A. B. C and D

Question 56:

According to optimum growth temperature, bacteria associated with milk are not included in following group -

  • (A) Psychrotropic
  • (B) Mesophilic
  • (C) Thermophilic
  • (D) Endophilic

Question 57:

The source of contamination of mastitis milk is -

  • (A) Interior of udder
  • (B) The milker
  • (C) Utensils
  • (D) Flies and other vermin

Question 58:

The common milk microorganisms grow best between the temperature -

  • (A) 5°C to 10°C
  • (B) 20°C to 40°C
  • (C) 3°C to 4°C
  • (D) -5°C to 0°C

Question 59:

Lactometer reading test is used to test milk for detection of adulteration of -

  • (A) Odour
  • (B) Appearence
  • (C) Water
  • (D) Temperature

Question 60:

Milk collection operation includes-

A. Unloading and Grading

B. Sampling

C. Weighing

D. Packaging

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 61:

Is not a platform test?

  • (A) Sediment test
  • (B) Turbidity test
  • (C) Alcohol test
  • (D) Smell and colour

Question 62:

Food poisoning caused due to milk by causal organism present in milk is -

  • (A) Micrococcus pyrogenes
  • (B) Bacillus anthracis
  • (C) Borrehota varidae
  • (D) Brucella abortus

Question 63:

For the neutralization of cream, neutralizers to be added are -

  • (A) Gelatin
  • (B) Sucrose
  • (C) Sodium bicarbonate and Calcium hydroxide
  • (D) Lactose

Question 64:

A fat concentrate which is obtained by churning cream ,gathering the fat into a compact mass is -

  • (A) Butter
  • (B) Khoa
  • (C) Dried milk
  • (D) Condensed Milk

Question 65:

Tests for the quality of butter are -

A. Coliform count

B. Lipolytic count

C. Yeast and mold count

D. Sediment test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 66:

Composition of butter oil is -

A. Butter fat - 99.5 to 99.8%

B. Moisture - 0.1 to 0.3%

C. Acidity (oleic) - 0.2 to 0.5%

D. Peroxide value - 0.0 to 0.1%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 67:

Cheesy flavour in butter is due to -

  • (A) Growth of proteolytic bacteria in cream
  • (B) Over heating of cream
  • (C) Over neutralization of cream
  • (D) Use of sour cream

Question 68:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 69:

A concentrated and sweetened whole milk product containing several layers of clotted cream is -

  • (A) Paneer
  • (B) Rabri
  • (C) Channa
  • (D) Gulabjamun

Question 70:

Which of the following agencies does prescribe the level of treatment needed for a dairy plant?

  • (A) FDA
  • (B) IDF
  • (C) EPA
  • (D) WHO

Question 71:

Sweetened Dahi is also known as -

  • (A) Misti dahi
  • (B) Blue dahi
  • (C) Rasmalai
  • (D) Kheer

Question 72:

HACCP stands for -

  • (A) HAZARD ANALYSIS AND CRITICAL CONTROL POINT
  • (B) HAZARD ANALYSIS AND CONTROL CRITICAL POINT
  • (C) HAZARD ANALYSIS AND CHEMICAL CONTROL POINT
  • (D) HAZARD ANALYST AND CONTROL CRITICAL POINT

Question 73:

For keeping liaison with CAC and to coordinate Codex activities in India, Food Safety and Standards Authority of India constitutes -

  • (A) Export Quality Control
  • (B) National Codex Contact Point
  • (C) Export Inspection Council
  • (D) Export Inspection Agencies

Question 74:

The sugar content of flavoured milk ranges between

  • (A) 4-5%
  • (B) 2-3%
  • (C) 5-7%
  • (D) 12-14%

Question 75:

Frequently used packaging materials in dairy industry are -

A. Polythene(PE)

B. LDPE

C. HDPE

D. Polypropylene(PP)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

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