CUET PG Chemistry Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Chemistry 2025 exam was scheduled between 13th May and 3rd June 2025. Candidates are able to download the official question paper, answer key, and solution PDF. This exam evaluates candidates on topics such as physical chemistry, inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry, analytical chemistry, quantum chemistry, spectroscopy, and environmental chemistry.

Students must answer 75 multiple-choice questions in 60 minutes. The total paper is for 300 marks, with +4 marks for each correct answer and -1 mark for every incorrect one.

CUET PG Chemistry 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Chemistry 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The reaction steps shown are:

The final product (P) is:


Question 2:

Consider the following statements with respect to citral:

(A) Geranial and Neral are geometrical isomers of citral.
(B) It forms geranic acid on heating with potassium hydrogen sulfate.
(C) It gives 6-methylhept-5-en-2-one on treating with potassium carbonate.
(D) On oxidation with silver oxide it yields Laevolic acid.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A) and (C) only
  • (4) (C) only

Question 3:

Which correct sequence of reactions are applied to achieve the following transformation? \[ Benzoyl Chloride \xrightarrow{H_2, Pd-BaSO_4} \xrightarrow{dil. NaOH} Cinnamaldehyde \]

Choose the correct sequence of reactions from the options given below:

  • (1) Bouveault-Blanc's reduction followed by Kolbe-Schmidt's reaction
  • (2) Rosenmund's reduction followed by Claisen-Schmidt's reaction
  • (3) Bouveault-Blanc's reduction followed by Claisen-Schmidt's reaction
  • (4) Rosenmund's reduction followed by Perkin's reaction

Question 4:

Above conversion is carried out using:

  • (1) (I) KOH (alc.), (II) oxymurcuration-demercuration
  • (2) (I) KOH (aq.), (II) Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (3) (I) KOH (alc.), (II) Hydroboration-oxidation
  • (4) (I) Nucleophilic addition-elimination, (II) oxymurcuration-demercuration

Question 5:

The final product (D) in the above conversion is: \[ Me - CH_3 \xrightarrow{H_2, (mol), Ni} (A) \xrightarrow{PhCO_2H, H_2O} (B) \xrightarrow{NaOEt, EtOH} (C) \xrightarrow{EtMgBr, Et_2O} \xrightarrow{H_2O} (D) \]
The options are:

  • (1) Acetone
  • (2) 2-Butanol
  • (3) 1-Butanol
  • (4) 2-Pentanol

Question 6:

The major product (P) in the following transformation is:

  • (1) Hexane-1,6-diol
  • (2) 1,6-Dihydroxyhexan-2-one
  • (3) Hexane-1,2,6-triol
  • (4) 2-Ethoxyhexane-1,6-diol

Question 7:

Which of the following compound is not formed during Kolbe's electrolysis of ethyl propionate?

  • (1) n-Butane
  • (2) Ethane
  • (3) Ethylene
  • (4) n-Propane

Question 8:

Which of the following is true for the stereochemical relationship of the given structures (A-D)?

  • (1) (A) and (C) are homomers
  • (2) (B) and (C) are enantiomers
  • (3) (B) and (D) are homomers
  • (4) (A) and (D) are diastereomers

Question 9:

The final product (D) in the above sequential reaction is:





Question 10:

Which of the following amino compound(s) CANNOT be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?

(A) n-Butylamine
(B) Alanine
(C) Aniline
(D) t-Butylamine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A) and (B) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 12:

The following transformation is carried out by:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (i) Cyclic polymerization, (ii) Gatterman-Koch's reaction, (iii) Bischler-Napieralski's reaction
  • (2) (i) Cycloaddition, (ii) Etard's reaction, (iii) Pomeranz-Fritsch's reaction
  • (3) (i) Cyclic polymerization, (ii) Etard's reaction, (iii) Doebner-Miller's synthesis
  • (4) (i) Cyclic polymerization, (ii) Gatterman-Koch's reaction, (iii) Pomeranz-Fritsch's reaction

Question 13:

Consider the following statements with respect to Benzil-Benzylic acid rearrangement and Cannizzaro's reaction:

(A) Both are base catalyzed reactions.
(B) Both reactions involve shifting of an anion in their mechanism.
(C) Both reactions can occur inter-molecularly and intra-molecularly.
(D) Both involve simultaneous redox reactions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A) and (D) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 14:

Which of the following dicarboxylic acids does not yield anhydride on heating?

  • (1) Glutaric acid
  • (2) Maleic acid
  • (3) Dimethyl succinic acid
  • (4) Dimethyl malonic acid

Question 15:

Which of the following compounds exhibits two \(^1\)H-NMR signals and three \(^{13}\)C-NMR signals?

  • (1) 1,2,3,5-Tetramethylbenzene
  • (2) 1,4-Diethylbenzene
  • (3) 1,2,4,5-Tetramethylbenzene
  • (4) 1,2-Diethylbenzene

Question 16:

Which of the following compounds shows a sharp band at 2150 cm\(^{-1}\) and 3300 cm\(^{-1}\) in the IR spectrum?


Question 17:

Which of the following set of peaks (m/z) appears in the mass spectrum of 2-pentanone?

  • (1) m/z = 86, 71, 43, 15
  • (2) m/z = 86, 57, 29
  • (3) m/z = 86, 71, 58, 43, 15
  • (4) m/z = 86, 57, 29, 15

Question 18:

Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their rates of hydrolysis with water.

(A) Acetamide
(B) Acetyl chloride
(C) Ethyl acetate
(D) Acetic anhydride

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (D), (B)
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (C) only
  • (4) (B), (D), (A), (C)

Question 19:

Arrange the following set of carbocations in order of decreasing stability.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (2) (D), (A), (C), (B)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 20:

The most stable conformation of the following is:


Question 21:

The reaction is carried out by:

  • (1) Diethyldimethyl mercaptol
  • (2) Propane
  • (3) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
  • (4) Propan-2-thiol

Question 22:

Which of the following is the most stable conformation of (±)-3,4-dibromo-3,4-dihydroxy hexane?


Question 23:

Identify A, B, and C in the following reaction:

  • (1) A = Propanoic Acid, B = Glutaraldehyde, C = Acetaldehyde
  • (2) A = Propanaldehyde, B = Glutaric Acid, C = Acetaldehyde
  • (3) A = Propanoic Acid, B = Glutaric Acid, C = Acetic Acid
  • (4) A = Propanoic Acid, B = Glutaric Acid, C = Acetaldehyde

Question 24:

Which of the following are aromatic?

  • (1) A, B & D
  • (2) B & C
  • (3) B, C & D
  • (4) A, B & C

Question 25:

The major product (A) is:




Question 26:

Match the name of the law given in List-1 with the relation/formula given in List-2:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Question 27:

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regards to the tangential force which is needed to keep the speeds of different layers of liquid constant?

(A) It is directly proportional to the velocity difference between the two adjacent layers.
(B) It is inversely proportional to the area of contact between the two adjacent layers.
(C) It is inversely proportional to the distance between the two adjacent layers.
(D) None of the above.

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A) and (C) only
  • (4) (A) only

Question 28:

Arrange the dissociation constant of phosphoric acid in increasing order.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( K_{a1} = K_{a2} = K_{a3} \)
  • (2) \( K_{a1} > K_{a2} > K_{a3} \)
  • (3) \( K_{a1} < K_{a2} < K_{a3} \)
  • (4) \( K_{a3} > K_{a2} > K_{a1} \)

Question 29:

An ideal gas expands isothermally from an initial volume \( V_i \) and pressure \( P_i \) to a final volume \( V_f \). If the same gas is allowed to expand adiabatically from the same initial volume and pressure to the final volume \( V_f \), then

  • (1) \( P_{adia} = 0 \)
  • (2) \( P_{iso} = 0 \)
  • (3) \( P_{adia} < P_{iso} \)
  • (4) \( P_{adia} > P_{iso} \)

Question 30:

The standard enthalpy of formation for which of the element is not zero at 1 bar pressure and specified temperature?

  • (1) S (Monoclinic)
  • (2) P (White)
  • (3) Br\(_2\) (liquid)
  • (4) O\(_2\) (g)

Question 31:

For 3 mol of an ideal gas \(\left[ C_{p,m} = \frac{5}{2}R \right]\), being heated from 300 K to 600 K, the change in entropy at constant pressure is

  • (1) 48.22 J K\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 43.22 J K\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 33.22 J K\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 38.22 J K\(^{-1}\)

Question 32:

At 0 K, the molecule CO exists in two alternate arrangements (CO and OC) in the solid crystal. The value of the entropy is (where thermodynamic probability \( W = k^N \)):

  • (1) 5.76 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 7.76 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 9.76 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 11.76 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 33:

The chemical potential of one component of a mixture cannot change independently of the chemical potentials of the other components. This statement relates to:

  • (1) Raoult's law
  • (2) Gibbs–Duhem Equation
  • (3) Henry’s law
  • (4) Gibbs-Helmholtz Equation

Question 34:

For an ideal gas undergoing reversible isothermal expansion, the function \( G \) and \( A \) are given as \( G = H - TS \) and \( A = U - TS \), respectively. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) \( \Delta G = \Delta A \)
(B) \( \Delta(PV) = 0 \)
(C) \( \Delta G > \Delta A \)
(D) \( \Delta(nRT) = 0 \)

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B) and (D) only

Question 35:

In the Vibrational Raman Spectra, the value of transition energy for the first overtone \( \Delta E_{overtone} \) is:

  • (1) \( \omega_e(1 - 2\chi_e) \, cm^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 2\omega_e(1 - 3\chi_e) \, cm^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 3\omega_e(1 - 4\chi_e) \, cm^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 4\omega_e(1 - 5\chi_e) \, cm^{-1} \)

Question 36:

According to the moving boundary method, the transport number of the cation \( t_{+} \) of the principle electrolyte is calculated using the formula
Given: \( l \) is the length by which the boundary has moved. The electrolyte of concentration \( c \) is kept in a long vertical tube with area of cross section \( A \).

  • (1) \( \frac{l^2 c}{Q/F} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{l^2 c^2}{Q/F} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{l^3 c}{F/Q} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{l A c}{Q/F} \)

Question 37:

Which of the following statement is incorrect about the nature of chemisorption?

  • (1) It is endothermic in nature.
  • (2) The extent of chemisorption first increases with temperature, then decreases.
  • (3) Enthalpy of adsorption is in the range of 40-400 kJ/mol.
  • (4) It is reversible in nature.

Question 38:

The eigen value for the wave function \( \psi = A e^{ikx} + B e^{-ikx} \) of the operator \( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \) is:

  • (1) -k
  • (2) -k^2
  • (3) k^2
  • (4) k

Question 39:

What is the degeneracy of the energy level \( \frac{14h^2}{8ma^2} \) for a particle in a three-dimensional cubic box of edge length \( a \)?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 40:

Consider the concentration cell
\[ Pt | H_2 (1 \, bar) | HCl (a_1) || HCl (a_2) | H_2 (1 \, bar) | Pt \]

In concentration cells, the magnitude of liquid junction potential depends upon the transport number of cations and anions. For cells with \( a_2^+ HCl > a_1^+ HCl \), then the value of \( E_{ij} \) is negative when:

  • (1) \( t_+ > t_- \)
  • (2) \( t_+ < t_- \)
  • (3) \( t_+ = t_- \)
  • (4) \( t_+ = 0 \)

Question 41:

The pH of a solution of \( 10^{-7} \, M \, HCl \) at 25°C is:

  • (1) 7.0
  • (2) 6.79
  • (3) 7.89
  • (4) 7.69

Question 42:

For a two-component system, the degree of freedom is given by:

  • (1) \( F = 1 - P \)
  • (2) \( F = 2 - P \)
  • (3) \( F = 3 - P \)
  • (4) \( F = 4 - P \)

Question 43:

In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the plot between \( 1/v \) and \( 1/[S_0] \) yields a straight line with a y-intercept and slope value that equals to

  • (1) Intercept = \( \frac{1}{v_{max}} \); Slope = \( \frac{K_m}{v_{max}} \)
  • (2) Intercept = \( \frac{2}{v_{max}} \); Slope = \( \frac{2K_m}{v_{max}} \)
  • (3) Intercept = \( \frac{1}{2v_{max}} \); Slope = \( \frac{K_m}{v_{max}} \)
  • (4) Intercept = zero; Slope = \( \frac{K_m}{v_{max}} \)

Question 44:

Which of the following statement is true for Lindemann mechanism for the unimolecular decomposition of a molecule?

  • (1) It follows second order kinetics at high pressure.
  • (2) It follows second order kinetics at low pressure.
  • (3) The kinetics of the reaction does not depend on the gaseous pressure.
  • (4) It follows first order kinetics at low pressure.

Question 45:

In very high electric field \( E > 10^5 \),

(A) Asymmetric affect disappears
(B) Electrophoretic affect disappears
(C) The ion moves so rapidly that it loses its ionic atmosphere.
(D) The weak electrolyte is completely ionised at all dilutions.

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 46:

For the calculation of activation energy using the Arrhenius equation, a graph of \( \ln k \) versus \( \frac{1}{T} \) graph was plotted. The slope of the straight line was found to be \( -2.55 \times 10^4 \, K \). The activation energy in \( J/mol \) is:

  • (1) \( 2.12 \times 10^5 \)
  • (2) \( 4.88 \times 10^5 \)
  • (3) \( 2.12 \times 10^4 \)
  • (4) \( 0.212 \times 10^4 \)

Question 47:

Which of the following reactions correctly represents a Daniell Cell?

  • (1) \( Zn(aq) + CuSO_4(aq) \rightarrow ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu(aq) \)
  • (2) \( ZnSO_4(s) + Cu \rightarrow CuSO_4(aq) + Zn(aq) \)
  • (3) \( Zn(s) + CuSO_4(aq) \rightarrow ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu(s) \)
  • (4) \( ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu \rightarrow CuSO_4(aq) + Zn(s) \)

Question 48:

10g of a nonvolatile solute, when dissolved in 100g of benzene, raises its boiling point by \(1^\circ C\). The molecular mass of the solute in g/mol is (K_b for benzene = 2.53 K·kg/mol):

  • (1) 25.3
  • (2) 253
  • (3) 250
  • (4) 25.0

Question 49:

The number of atoms per unit cell in simple cubic, face-centered cubic, and body-centered cubic are:

  • (1) 1, 4, 2
  • (2) 4, 1, 2
  • (3) 2, 4, 1
  • (4) 4, 8, 2

Question 50:

Arrange the following spectral ranges in order of their increasing wavelength.

(A) Radio
(B) Visible
(C) Infrared
(D) Ultraviolet

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (D), (B), (C), (A)
  • (3) (B), (A), (C)
  • (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Question 51:

Which of the following is not true for 'Borazines'?

  • (1) Borazine is more reactive than benzene
  • (2) \( B_3N_3H_6 + 3HCl \rightarrow B_3N_3H_6Cl_3 \)
  • (3) Borazine reacts with water to form ammonium chloride
  • (4) Borazine forms \( \pi \) complexes

Question 52:

Match the molecule/ion (List-I) with their number of bond pair (BP) and lone pair (LP) on the central metal atom (List-II).

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 53:

The effective nuclear charge (\( Z_{eff} \)) experienced by 4s electrons of Cu(29) is:

  • (1) 3.70
  • (2) 2.70
  • (3) 1.70
  • (4) 0.70

Question 54:

Minamata disease is caused by .......... poisoning.

  • (1) Pb
  • (2) Cd
  • (3) As
  • (4) Hg

Question 55:

Arrange the following in increasing order of covalent character:

(A) LiF
(B) LiBr
(C) LiCl
(D) LiI

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (A), (D)

Question 56:

The number of radial nodes present in 4f orbital is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 57:

From the following atoms, which will show the lowest first ionization energy (\( IE_1 \))?

  • (1) C
  • (2) N
  • (3) O
  • (4) F

Question 58:

The electronegativity of the Silicon (Si) atom using Allred-Rochow scale of electronegativity is. Given: The covalent radius for Si atom = 1.175 Angstrom.

  • (1) 2.40
  • (2) 2.50
  • (3) 2.20
  • (4) 2.10

Question 59:

Using the VSEPR model, the shape of \( PCl_4^+ \) ion is:

  • (1) Tetrahedral
  • (2) Square planar
  • (3) Trigonal pyramidal
  • (4) Bent

Question 60:

Arrange the following in increasing order of bond order:

(A) He\(_2^+\)
(B) O\(_2^-\)
(C) HF
(D) NO\(^-\)

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (C), (D), (A), (B)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (A), (C), (B), (D)

Question 61:

Superconductors are a special class of materials that have zero ...................... below a critical temperature.

  • (1) electrical resistance
  • (2) magnetic resistance
  • (3) pressure
  • (4) band gap

Question 62:

An alloy of Cu and Au will show complete miscibility as per Hume-Rothery if:

(A) The metallic radii of the Cu and Au differs only by 12.5%.
(B) Cu and Au have the same crystal structure.
(C) The chemical properties of both the metals are similar.
(D) The number of valence electrons is different in both.

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 63:

In an Ellingham-diagram, if the C/C\(_2\)O line lies below the metal oxide line, then the carbon is used to reduce the metal oxide and itself is oxidized to:

  • (1) CO
  • (2) CO\(_2\)
  • (3) C
  • (4) O\(_2\)

Question 64:

Match the metals (List-I) with their ores (List-II)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 65:

On descending the alkali metal group, the lattice enthalpies of both the oxide and peroxide (or superoxide) decreased, because:

  • (1) Radii of the cations increased
  • (2) Charges on the cations increased
  • (3) Charges on the cations decreased
  • (4) It depends on the charges of the oxides

Question 66:

Which of the following is used in vehicles for the inflation of airbags?

  • (1) Li\(_3\)N
  • (2) Na\(_3\)N
  • (3) Ca\(_3\)N
  • (4) Pb(N\(_3\))\(_2\)

Question 67:

Match the xenon compounds (List-I) with structures (List-II)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Question 68:

The magnitude of CFSE depends on:

(A) The nature of the ligand
(B) The charge on the metal ion
(C) Position of the metal ion in transition series
(D) Geometry of the complex

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (A) and (D) only

Question 69:

The CFSE for the \( d^8 \) octahedral ion is:

  • (1) -0.4 \( \Delta_o \)
  • (2) -0.6 \( \Delta_o \)
  • (3) 1.2 \( \Delta_o \)
  • (4) -1.2 \( \Delta_o \)

Question 70:

The IUPAC name of the coordination compound is: \[ [Rh(CO)_2I_2]^- \]

  • (1) dicarbonylidiodidohorodate(I)
  • (2) dicarbonylidiodidohorodate(I)
  • (3) carbonylbisiodidorhodium(I)
  • (4) carbonylidiodiderhodium(I)

Question 71:

Arrange the following ligands in their increasing d-orbital splitting:

(A) NH\(_3\)
(B) C\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\)
(C) OH\(^-\)
(D) CN\(^-\)

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (A), (D)

Question 72:

For the second and third row of transition elements, which statement is not true?

  • (1) The metals commonly show lower coordination number.
  • (2) The metals form binuclear carboxylate complexes.
  • (3) The halides of many elements are called cluster compounds.
  • (4) They form carbonyl with M-M bonds.

Question 73:

Find the ground state term symbol for Pr\(^{3+}\) (Pr = 59).

  • (1) \( ^3H_4 \)
  • (2) \( ^3H_6 \)
  • (3) \( ^3H_5 \)
  • (4) \( ^4F_{5/2} \)

Question 74:

The biomedical applications of polyphosphazene polymers are:

(A) As structural materials for the construction of heart valves and blood vessels.
(B) They are used in drug delivery systems.
(C) Biodegradable support for in vivo bone regeneration.

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C)
  • (4) (A) and (C) only

Question 75:

Match the following organometallic compounds (List-I) with their Characteristics (List-II)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General800
sc550

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