CUET PG Chemical, Thermal, and Polymer Engineering 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Oct 3, 2025

The CUET PG 2025 exam for Chemical, Thermal, and Polymer Engineering will be conducted from 13th May to 3rd June 2025. Post-exam, candidates will be able to access the question paper PDF, answer key, and solved solutions online. This exam tests your knowledge of chemical reaction engineering, heat and mass transfer, fluid mechanics, thermodynamics, polymer science, material science, and process control.

The test contains 75 objective questions, all to be answered in 60 minutes, for a total of 300 marks. Each correct response earns 4 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect answer.

CUET PG Chemical, Thermal, and Polymer Engineering 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Chemical, Thermal, and Polymer Engineering Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions


CUET PG Chemical, Thermal, and Polymer Engineering 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The eigen value corresponding to the eigen vector for the matrix is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 2:

For the function \(f(x) = 2x^3 - 15x^2 + 36x + 10\), the local maxima and local minima occur respectively at:

  • (A) \(x = 3\) and \(x = 2\)
  • (B) \(x = 1\) and \(x = 3\)
  • (C) \(x = 2\) and \(x = 3\)
  • (D) \(x = 3\) and \(x = 4\)

Question 3:

For an ordinary differential equation \( y'' + y' = x^2 + 2x + 4 \), the particular integral is given by:

  • (A) \( \frac{x^2}{3} + 4x \)
  • (B) \( \frac{x^3}{3} + x \)
  • (C) \( \frac{x^3}{3} + 4 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{x^3}{3} + 2x \)

Question 4:

Bag I contains 4 red and 3 green balls and Bag II contains 3 blue and 4 green balls. One ball is drawn at random from each bag, then the probability that one of the drawn balls is red and the other is blue, is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{7} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{9}{49} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{12}{49} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{49} \)

Question 5:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Question 6:

In a constant pressure cake filtration with an incompressible cake layer, the volume of filtrate (V) is measured as a function of time, t. The plot of \( \frac{t}{V} \) versus \( V \) gives a straight line with slope \( 10^4 \, sm^{-3} \). Filter area is \( 0.005 \, m^2 \), viscosity of filtrate is \( 10^{-3} \, Pa.s \), and the overall pressure drop across filter is \( 200 \, kPa \). What is the value of filter medium resistance in \( m^{-1} \)?

  • (A) \( 1 \times 10^9 \)
  • (B) \( 1 \times 10^{10} \)
  • (C) \( 1 \times 10^{11} \)
  • (D) \( 1 \times 10^{12} \)

Question 7:

A rigid spherical particle is undergoing free settling in a liquid of density 750 \( kg/m^3 \), viscosity \( 9.81 \times 10^{-3} \, Pa.s \). Particle density is four times the liquid density. Taking the acceleration due to gravity as \( 9.81 \, m/s^2 \) and assuming Stokes' law is valid, the terminal settling velocity of the particle in \( ms^{-1} \) is:

  • (A) \( 2 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (B) \( 3 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (C) \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (D) \( 5 \times 10^{-3} \)

Question 8:

In the laminar boundary layer over a flat plate, the ratio of \( \delta/x \) varies as \( Re^k \) (Where, \( Re \) is Reynolds number). The value of \( k \) is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) -1
  • (D) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)

Question 9:

The best purpose served by the baffles used in agitated vessels is to:

  • (A) create flow patterns
  • (B) form the suspension of fine drops
  • (C) form the emulsions of fine drops
  • (D) suppress vortex formation

Question 10:

A pipe with diameter 25 cm at the entrance carries oil with specific gravity 0.9 at a velocity of 3 m/s. At the exit section the diameter of the pipe is 20 cm. The velocity at the exit section is:

  • (A) 4.5 m/s
  • (B) 4.68 m/s
  • (C) 4.8 m/s
  • (D) 4.9 m/s

Question 11:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

Question 12:

Two rods, one of length L and the other of length 2L, are made of the same material and have the same diameter. The two ends of the longer rod are maintained at 100°C. One end of the shorter rod is maintained at 100°C while the other end is insulated. Both the rods are exposed to the same environment at 40°C. The temperature at the insulated end of the shorter rod is measured to be 55°C. The temperature at the mid point of the longer rod would be:

  • (A) 40°C
  • (B) 50°C
  • (C) 55°C
  • (D) 100°C

Question 13:

For steady flow and constant value of conductivity, the temperature distribution for a plane wall is:

  • (A) parabolic
  • (B) linear
  • (C) logarithmic
  • (D) cubic

Question 14:

Baffles are provided in heat exchangers to:

  • (A) decrease heat transfer area
  • (B) decrease pressure drop
  • (C) increase rate of heat transfer
  • (D) decrease vibrations

Question 15:

A furnace wall of thickness 1m and surface area 2m² is made of a material whose thermal conductivity is 1 kJ/hr.m°C. The temperature of the inner surface of the wall is 1000°C and of outer surface is 200°C. Heat flow through the wall in kJ/hr will be:

  • (A) 1200
  • (B) 1600
  • (C) 2000
  • (D) 800

Question 16:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4
  • (B) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
  • (C) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
  • (D) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

Question 17:

The McCabe-Thiele method used to find the number of theoretical stages required in a distillation operation is based on the assumption(s) that:

  • (A) liquid/vapour loading in each section of the tower remains constant
  • (B) Trouton's rule is applicable
  • (C) sensible heat differences are small because the temperature change from tray to tray is small
  • (D) liquid mixture forms an azeotrope

Question 18:

Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid evaporating into a large amount of unsaturated vapour-gas mixture is:

  • (A) dry-bulb temperature
  • (B) wet-bulb temperature
  • (C) dew point
  • (D) boiling point

Question 19:

For economical operation in gas absorption, the operating line approximately:

  • (A) lies parallel above the equilibrium line
  • (B) lies parallel to the equilibrium line
  • (C) coincides with the equilibrium curve
  • (D) is tangential to the equilibrium curve

Question 20:

Which of the following is used as an 'entrainer' in the separation of acetic acid-water mixture by distillation?

  • (A) Furfural
  • (B) Benzol
  • (C) Butyl acetate
  • (D) Hexane

Question 21:

Compared to saturated oils, unsaturated oils have:

  • (A) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
  • (B) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
  • (C) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
  • (D) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen

Question 22:

A production equipment costs ₹200000. Its salvage value is ₹25000. The expected return is ₹50000 per annum. The corporate taxes are taken as 30%. The payback period will be:

  • (A) 2 years
  • (B) 5 years
  • (C) 3 years
  • (D) 10 years

Question 23:

For a typical project, the cumulative cash flow is zero at the:

  • (A) end of the project life
  • (B) break even point
  • (C) start-up
  • (D) end of the design stage

Question 24:

When the interest is compounded monthly, the effective interest rate will be:

  • (A) 26.8%
  • (B) 24.8%
  • (C) 12.6%
  • (D) 40.8%

Question 25:

For a shell and tube heat exchanger, the clean overall heat transfer coefficient is calculated as 250 Wm\(^2\)K\(^{-1}\) for a specific process condition. It is expected that the heat exchanger may be fouled during the operation and a fouling resistance of 0.001 m\(^2\)KW\(^{-1}\) is prescribed. The dirt overall heat transfer coefficient is ------------ Wm\(^2\)K\(^{-1}\).

  • (A) 300
  • (B) 200
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 50

Question 26:

In the industrial production of nitric acid, oxidation of ammonia with air in the presence of 90% platinum, 10% rhodium catalyst in the converter constitutes the first step, the feed gas to the converter contains around:

  • (A) 1 to 2% ammonia in air
  • (B) 10 to 12% ammonia in air
  • (C) 40 to 50% ammonia in air
  • (D) 70 to 80% ammonia in air

Question 27:

In forced convection, the Nusselt number (Nu) is a function of:

  • (A) Re and Pr
  • (B) Re and Gr
  • (C) Pr and Gr
  • (D) Re and Sc

Question 28:

If a mass of solid particles is packed by tapping, the bulk density of the mass:

  • (A) decreases
  • (B) increases
  • (C) remains unchanged
  • (D) can not be predicted, more information is required

Question 29:

Consider separation of dust particles from gases in a cyclone separator. For a given particle size, the terminal velocity is maximum:

  • (A) at a location near the wall of the cyclone
  • (B) at an intermediate location between the centre and the wall of the cyclone
  • (C) at a location near the center of the cyclone
  • (D) at the wall of the cyclone

Question 30:

When a ball mill rotates at a speed higher than the critical speed, its efficiency is:

  • (A) minimum
  • (B) maximum
  • (C) optimum
  • (D) hundred percent

Question 31:

Which of the following is a coarse crusher?

  • (A) Dire crusher
  • (B) Conical crusher
  • (C) Single roll crusher
  • (D) Jaw crusher

Question 32:

Separation of particles of various sizes, shapes, and densities by allowing them to settle in a fluid is called:

  • (A) classification
  • (B) froth flotation
  • (C) thickening
  • (D) sedimentation

Question 33:

Break-even point increases with:

  • (A) decrease in fixed cost
  • (B) decrease in variable cost for a given value of price
  • (C) decrease in unit contribution
  • (D) decrease in manufacturing cost

Question 34:

Cost of instrumentation in a modern chemical plant as compared to the total plant cost, ranges from:

  • (A) 1.5 to 10%
  • (B) 20 to 30%
  • (C) 40 to 50%
  • (D) 60 to 70%

Question 35:

The rate of corrosion of mild steel by sulphuric acid is unacceptably high for:

  • (A) dilute acid
  • (B) acid at concentrations above 70%
  • (C) acid of intermediate concentrations
  • (D) for both dilute as well as concentrated acid (>70%)

Question 36:

Karbate is:

  • (A) an alloy of copper and nickel
  • (B) chemically impregnated carbon
  • (C) high silicon iron
  • (D) an alloy of copper, tin, and zinc

Question 37:

Bracket supports are most suitable for:

  • (A) thick walled vertical vessels
  • (B) horizontal vessels
  • (C) thin spherical vessels
  • (D) thin walled vertical vessels

Question 38:

Consider a piston-cylinder arrangement containing a gas. This system is heated by placing it on the top of a burner. The system undergoes:

  • (A) a constant pressure process
  • (B) a constant volume process
  • (C) an adiabatic process
  • (D) an isothermal process

Question 39:

Consider the manufacturing of Linear Alkyl Benzene Sulphonates (LABS). The alkylbenzenes are sulphonated with:

  • (A) 50% sulphuric acid
  • (B) 98% sulphuric acid
  • (C) 20% oleum
  • (D) sulphur trioxide gas

Question 40:

In petrochemical industry, any petroleum fraction having an approximate boiling point range between 20°C and 200°C which is used as a feed stock is called:

  • (A) kerosene
  • (B) gas oil
  • (C) naphtha
  • (D) LPG

Question 41:

As pressure approaches zero, the ratio of fugacity to pressure (f/P) for a gas approaches:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) unity
  • (C) infinity
  • (D) an indeterminate value

Question 42:

Secondary nutrients in fertilizers are:

  • (A) boron, copper, manganese
  • (B) calcium, molybdenum, zinc
  • (C) iron, sulphur, molybdenum
  • (D) calcium, magnesium, sulphur

Question 43:

The process involved in converting rubber into a thin sheet or coating it on fabric is called:

  • (A) extrusion
  • (B) mastication
  • (C) calendering
  • (D) vulcanisation

Question 44:

Mixed fertilizer having its grade designated by 5-25-10, means:

  • (A) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight elemental nitrogen, 25% by weight P\(_2\)O\(_5\), and 10% by weight K\(_2\)O
  • (B) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight ammonia, 25% by weight phosphoric acid, and 10% by weight potassium chloride
  • (C) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight K\(_2\)O, 25% by weight NH\(_3\), and 10% by weight P\(_2\)O\(_5\)
  • (D) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight P\(_2\)O\(_5\), 25% by weight NH\(_4\)Cl, and 10% by weight K\(_2\)O

Question 45:

Sulfa drugs are derivatives of:

  • (A) benzoic acid
  • (B) sulphanilic acid
  • (C) sulphanilamide
  • (D) p-aminobenzoic acid

Question 46:

A multiple effect evaporator has a capacity to process 4000 kg of solid caustic soda per day when it is concentrating from 10% to 35% solids. The water evaporated in kg per day is:

  • (A) 28571
  • (B) 24571
  • (C) 16000
  • (D) 48571

Question 47:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

  • (A) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (B) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
  • (D) A - IV, B - I, C - D, D - II

Question 48:

ABS is a:

  • (A) Homopolymer
  • (B) Copolymer
  • (C) Thermo setting polymer
  • (D) Liquid crystal polymer

Question 49:

The unit step response of the transfer function \( G(s) = \frac{1}{s^2 + 2s + 3} \)
has:

  • (A) a damped oscillatory characteristic
  • (B) is overdamped
  • (C) has a non-zero slope at the origin
  • (D) is unstable

Question 50:

10 ml of 0.5 M HCl is mixed with 30 ml of 0.3 M HCl, the molarity of the solution is:

  • (A) 0.40 M
  • (B) 0.25 M
  • (C) 0.35 M
  • (D) 0.68 M

Question 51:

A first-order system with unity gain and time constant \( \tau \) is subjected to sinusoidal input having a frequency \( \omega \) of \( \frac{1}{\tau} \). The amplitude ratio for such system is:

  • (A) 0.25
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) 1
  • (D) \( \infty \)

Question 52:

Carothers equation may define gel formation for the:

  • (A) condensation polymerization
  • (B) free radical polymerization
  • (C) co-ordination polymerization
  • (D) ionic polymerization

Question 53:

A step change of magnitude is introduced to a system having the transfer function \[ G(s) = \frac{2}{s^2 + 2s + 4} \]
The percent overshoot is:

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 33.6
  • (C) 16.3
  • (D) 0

Question 54:

The Bode diagram stability criterion is applicable when:

  • (A) gain and phase curves both decrease with frequency
  • (B) gain curve increases and phase curve decreases with frequency
  • (C) gain curve decreases and phase curve increases with frequency
  • (D) gain and phase curves both increase with frequency

Question 55:

In an internal combustion engine, during the compression strokes, the heat rejected to the cooling water is 75 J/g and the work input is 120 J/g. The change in internal energy of the working fluid is:

  • (A) -45 J/g
  • (B) +45 J/g
  • (C) -195 J/g
  • (D) +195 J/g

Question 56:

The functionality of the Phenol in the preparation of phenol-formaldehyde resin is :

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 57:

The characteristic equation for the system is \[ s^3 + 9s^2 + 26s + 12(2 + K_c) = 0 \]
Using Routh test, the value of Kc that will keep the system stable is:

  • (A) 17.5
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 13.5
  • (D) 3.5

Question 58:

Which one is an example of branched polymer?

  • (A) HDPE
  • (B) LDPE
  • (C) Nylon-66
  • (D) PET

Question 59:

The transfer function of a PID controller is:

  • (A) \(K_c(1 + \tau_I s + \tau_D s)\)
  • (B) \(K_c(1 + \frac{1}{\tau_I s} + \tau_D s)\)
  • (C) \(K_c(1 + \tau_I s + \frac{1}{\tau_D s})\)
  • (D) \(K_c(1 + \frac{1}{\tau_I s} + \frac{1}{\tau_D s})\)

Question 60:

The liquid used in hydraulic transmission is:

  • (A) oil
  • (B) water
  • (C) steam
  • (D) any volatile liquid

Question 61:

Bode diagram is a plot of (AR is amplitude ratio; \(\omega\) is frequency factor and \(\phi\) is phase angle):

  • (A) log AR vs log \(\omega\) and \(\phi\) vs log \(\omega\)
  • (B) log AR vs \(\omega\) and log \(\phi\) vs log \(\omega\)
  • (C) AR vs log \(\omega\) and log \(\phi\) vs log
  • (D) AR vs \(\omega\) and \(\phi\) vs \(\omega\)

Question 62:

Which one is appropriate for the poly-ethyleneterephthalate?

  • (A) Softening temperature in the range of 30°C - 45°C
  • (B) \(T_g\) is about 80°C
  • (C) Melting point is in the range of 400°C - 450°C
  • (D) \(T_g\) of the crystalline zone is 80°C

Question 63:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
  • (C) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 64:

Unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is:

  • (A) mol/m\(^2\)·s\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) mol·s/m\(^2\)
  • (C) s\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) mol/m\(^3\)·s\(^{-1}\)

Question 65:

If the temperature of a saturated water is increased infinitesimally at constant entropy, the resulting state of water is:

  • (A) Liquid
  • (B) Liquid–vapor co-existence
  • (C) Saturated vapor
  • (D) Solid

Question 66:

Buna-S is a polymer of:

  • (A) Iso-butadiene
  • (B) Styrene and butane
  • (C) Butadiene and styrene
  • (D) Acrylonitrile, butadiene and styrene

Question 67:

Accuracy is specified as 0.5% of the true value. At 5% of full scale, error of the instrument will be:

  • (A) \(\pm 0.025%\)
  • (B) \(\pm 0.5%\)
  • (C) \(\pm 0.05%\)
  • (D) \(\pm 2.5%\)

Question 68:

Water enters a storage tank at a temperature, \( T_0 \) and flow rate, \( Q_0 \) and leaving at a flow rate, \( Q \) and temperature, \( T \). There are negligible heat losses in the tank. The area of cross-section of the tank is \( A_c \). The model equation that describes the water temperature variation in the tank is given by:

  • (A) \( Q(T_0 - T) = A_c h \frac{dT}{dt} \)
  • (B) \( Q T_0 - Q T = A_c h \frac{dT}{dt} \)
  • (C) \( Q(T_0 - T) = A_c h \frac{dT}{dt} \)
  • (D) \( Q(T_0 - T) = A_c h \frac{d(T_h)}{dt} \)

Question 69:

HDPE water storage tank is an example of:

  • (A) extrusion process
  • (B) injection moulding
  • (C) rotational moulding
  • (D) thermoforming

Question 70:

The Block diagram for a control system is shown below:

  • (A) 0.2
  • (B) 0.3
  • (C) 0.4
  • (D) 0.5

Question 71:

A gaseous system contains \( H_1 \), \( H_2 \), and \( I_2 \) which participate in the gas phase reaction: \[ 2H_1 \rightleftharpoons H_2 + I_2 \]
At a state of reaction equilibrium, the number of thermodynamic degrees of freedom is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 72:

From the following list, identify the properties which are equal in both vapor and liquid phases at equilibrium:

(A) Temperature
(B) Density
(C) Enthalpy
(D) Chemical potential

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B
  • (2) A and C
  • (3) C and D
  • (4) A and D

Question 73:

For a pure substance, the Maxwell's relation obtained from the fundamental property relation \( dU = T dS - P dV \) is:

  • (A) \( \left(\frac{\partial T}{\partial V}\right)_S = - \left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial S}\right)_V \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial T}\right)_V = \left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial V}\right)_T \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{\partial T}{\partial P}\right)_S = \left(\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}\right)_P \)
  • (D) \( \left(\frac{\partial V}{\partial T}\right)_P = \left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial P}\right)_T \)

Question 74:

For a pure substance, which of the following does not change during condensation?

  • (A) Specific volume
  • (B) Specific enthalpy
  • (C) Specific internal energy
  • (D) Specific Gibbs energy

Question 75:

Which of the following conditions is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

  • (A) \( \Delta H_{mixing} = 0 \)
  • (B) \( \Delta V_{mixing} = 0 \)
  • (C) \( \Delta S_{mixing} = 0 \)
  • (D) Raoult's Law is obeyed

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