CUET PG Botany 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Oct 3, 2025

The CUET PG Botany exam 2025 will be conducted between 13th May and 3rd June 2025, as part of the National Testing Agency’s CUET PG entrance exam series. After the exam, candidates will be able to download the Botany question paper, official answer key, and detailed solution PDF for reference. The exam tests a candidate’s grasp of plant physiology, genetics, taxonomy, cell biology, ecology, and biotechnology, along with current advancements in botanical research.

Students must attempt 75 questions in 60 minutes. The total paper carries 300 marks, with +4 for every correct answer and -1 for each incorrect response.

CUET PG Botany 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Botany Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

 


CUET PG Botany 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

Transformation in bacteria was discovered by:

  • (A) F. Griffith
  • (B) Lederberg and Tatum
  • (C) Avery
  • (D) McCarty

Question 2:

In angiosperms, which process involves the fusion of male gamete with the egg cell?

  • (A) Double fertilization
  • (B) Syngamy
  • (C) Fragmentation
  • (D) Pollination

Question 3:

Which of the following is used to stain endospores?

  • (A) Safranin
  • (B) Malachite green
  • (C) Crystal violet
  • (D) Brilliant green

Question 4:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 5:

Which of the following bacteria belong to the coliform group ?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Streptococcus faecalis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Bacillus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 6:

To increase the amount of mugineic acid, rice plants were transformed (using Agrobacterium) with a fragment of barley genomic DNA containing two naat genes; naat-A and naat-B, encoding the subunits of the enzyme

  • (A) S-adenosylmethionine synthetase
  • (B) Nicotinamine aminotransferase
  • (C) Nicotinamine synthase
  • (D) Deoxymugineic acid synthase

Question 7:

Guttation occurs when:

  • (A) Transpiration rate is very high
  • (B) Transpiration rate is very low
  • (C) Cell sap is pure water
  • (D) Temperature is high

Question 8:

A flower is hypogynous with axile placentation and swollen placenta. Which family does this flower belong to?

  • (A) Asteraceae
  • (B) Lamiaceae
  • (C) Solanaceae
  • (D) Malvaceae

Question 9:

Flooding stress is also known as:

  • (A) Chilling stress
  • (B) Reactive oxygen species
  • (C) Oxygen deficient stress
  • (D) Drought stress

Question 10:

What is the role of NAD(P)H as a component of Nitrate reductase in Nitrogen fixation?

  • (A) As a prosthetic group
  • (B) As a cofactor
  • (C) As an electron donor
  • (D) As an electron accepter

Question 11:

White jute is obtained from:

  • (A) Corchorus olitorius
  • (B) Corchorus capsularis
  • (C) Cocus nucifera
  • (D) Crotalaria juncea

Question 12:

The major phytochemicals present in leaves of Camellia sinensis are:

A. Epicatechin gallate
B. Caffeine
C. Theobromine
D. Epigallocatechin gallate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, and C only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A, B and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 13:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 14:

The botanical name of Fenugreek (methi):

  • (A) Papaver somniferum
  • (B) Trigonella foenum-graecum
  • (C) Nigella sativa
  • (D) Elettaria cardamomum

Question 15:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A- III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 16:

A specimen cited in the protologue is neither the holotype nor an isotype, nor one of the syntypes. This specimen is known as:

  • (A) Topotype
  • (B) Paratype
  • (C) Neotype
  • (D) Epitype

Question 17:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C - III, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C - IV, D - III

Question 18:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 19:

In which of the following molecular markers, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is required?

A. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
B. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNAs (RAPD)
C. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP)
D. Sequence-Tagged Sites (STSs)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C, D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 20:

The genera which belongs to the family Characeae are:

A. Tolypella
B. Nitella
C. Nigella
D. Chara

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 21:

The elements of the xylem are:

A. Tracheids
B. Vessels
C. Xylem parenchyma
D. Sclereids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 22:

The role of Bulliform cells in monocotyledonous leaves is :

  • (A) to prevent excessive transpiration by rolling of leaves
  • (B) to protect the mesophyll cells of the leaf
  • (C) in exchange of gases with the surrounding environment.
  • (D) in storage

Question 23:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 24:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding protein synthesis in eukaryotes?

A. 3'-Cap of mRNA present.
B. Ribosomes of 80S type dissociate into 40S and 60S subunits.
C. Translation is not simultaneous with transcription.
D. Initiation codon of mRNA is recognised by anticodon of Met-tRNA.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B, C, D

Question 25:

Paracytic type of stomata are distinctive feature of:

  • (A) Ranunculaceae
  • (B) Brassicaceae
  • (C) Rubiaceae
  • (D) Caryophyllaceae

Question 26:

Selaginella is also known as:

  • (A) Resurrection plant
  • (B) Peat moss
  • (C) Club moss
  • (D) Horsetail

Question 27:

Specialised cells are generally found in the plant leaves which contain outgrowths of epidermal cell wall, made of calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide in a cellulose matrix are called as:

  • (A) Raphides
  • (B) Cystolith
  • (C) Druses
  • (D) Lithocysts

Question 28:

Which of the following amino acid is basic in nature?

  • (A) Alanine
  • (B) Lysine
  • (C) Threonine
  • (D) Methionine

Question 29:

The example of facultative CAM plant which carries on C₃ metabolism under unstressed conditions is:

  • (A) Mesembryanthemum crystallinum
  • (B) Opuntia
  • (C) Chrysanthemum
  • (D) Amaranthus edulis

Question 30:

Arrange the following substrates of the glycolysis pathway in a chronological order of their occurrence in the pathway, starting from Glucose.

A. Fructose-6-phosphate
B. Pyruvic acid
C. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. 2- Phosphoglycerate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B, A, D, C
  • (B) C, A, D, B
  • (C) A, D, B, C
  • (D) D, B, C, A

Question 31:

Identify the plants from the following which do not exhibit Kranz anatomy:

A. Aloe
B. Zea mays
C. Agave
D. Opuntia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 32:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A-I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 33:

What is the correct general scheme of the fungal succession on herbivore dung:

A. Basidiomycetes
B. Discomycetes
C. Phycomycetes
D. Pyrenomycetes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 34:

Which of the following is a macrophyte?

  • (A) Spirogyra
  • (B) Diatoms
  • (C) Azolla
  • (D) Eudorina

Question 35:

The common inter-cellular parasitic algae among the following is:

  • (A) Cladophora
  • (B) Chlamydomonas chrenbergii
  • (C) Cephaleuros
  • (D) Protoderma

Question 36:

The requirement of sunlight for the germination of seeds, is known as:

  • (A) Phototropism
  • (B) Photoblasty
  • (C) Photonasty
  • (D) Nyctinasty

Question 37:

Among the following ecosystems, which has the least Net Primary Production (NPP)?

  • (A) Savanna
  • (B) Estuaries
  • (C) Open ocean
  • (D) Agricultural land

Question 38:

Which of the following is NOT the characteristic feature of xerophytic plants?

  • (A) Lacks Aerenchyma
  • (B) Chlorophyll mostly in stem and leaves
  • (C) Palisade generally on both sides of leaves
  • (D) Thin walled epidermal cells

Question 39:

'Aconite', a drug used for nasal problems and sore throat, is obtained from tuberous roots of:

  • (A) Ocimum sanctum
  • (B) Aconitum ferox
  • (C) Withania somnifera
  • (D) Azadirachta indica

Question 40:

If the number of chromosomes in the egg cell of a plant is 8, then what would be the number of chromosomes in its endosperm?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 12

Question 41:

Which of the following mutations is most likely to contribute to the development of cancer?

  • (A) Loss-of-function mutation in a tumor suppressor gene.
  • (B) Gain-of function in a DNA repair enzyme.
  • (C) Silent mutation in a proto-oncogene.
  • (D) Deletion of non-coding intronic regions in a tumor suppressor gene.

Question 42:

What is the correct sequence of Transmembrane multiprotein complexes of the electron transport chain during respiration?

A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. NADH dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome c oxidase
D. Cytochrome bc1 complex

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 43:

Which nitrogen fixing symbiont is associated with sugarcane as a host plant?

  • (A) Frankia
  • (B) Acetobacter
  • (C) Anabaena
  • (D) Nostoc

Question 44:

Cytokinin treatment extends the life span of detached Xanthium leaves by delaying chlorophyll and protein degradation. This experiment is called:

  • (A) Richmond-Lang effect
  • (B) Nyctinastic effect
  • (C) Epinasty
  • (D) Depot effect

Question 45:

Which among the following is responsible for imparting blue and purple colour in some type of berries?

  • (A) Carotenoids
  • (B) Anthocyanins
  • (C) Isoflavanoids
  • (D) Aurones

Question 46:

Synchytrium is __________ fungi.

  • (A) Holocarpic and polycentric
  • (B) Holocarpic and endobiotic
  • (C) Eucarpic and polycentric
  • (D) Eucarpic and monocentric

Question 47:

During sexual reproduction in Rhizopus, projections from two compatible hyphae are attracted towards each other. These hyphae are called -

  • (A) Chlamydospores
  • (B) Azygospores
  • (C) Progametangia
  • (D) Zygophores

Question 48:

Arrange the stages in the life cycle of "Puccinia graminis" in correct order of their occurrence, starting from Triticum aestivum

A. Teliospores appear as black raised streaks along leaf sheaths and stems of infected plants.
B. Basidiospores are discharged by an explosive mechanism and disseminated by wind.
C. Uredinospores germinate on wheat and spread the disease rapidly, under favorable conditions.
D. Basidiospores germinate on the leaves of the alternate host.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B, A, C, D
  • (B) D, B, C, A
  • (C) C, A, B, D
  • (D) D, B, A, C

Question 49:

Which one of the following is a correct example of Fruticose Lichen?

  • (A) Rhizocarpon
  • (B) Parmelia
  • (C) Cladonia
  • (D) Graphis

Question 50:

In Sphagnum, the sporogonium is elevated by a special gametophytic structure known as:

  • (A) Pseudopodium
  • (B) Perichaetium
  • (C) Antheridium
  • (D) Amphithecium

Question 51:

Censer mechanism for spore dispersal from the capsule occurs in __________________.

  • (A) Pellia
  • (B) Funaria
  • (C) Pogonatum
  • (D) Polytrichum

Question 52:

Circinate vernation in ferns refers to -

  • (A) Uncoiling of new leaves from the base towards the apex
  • (B) System of leaf gaps in the stem
  • (C) Arrangement of sori on the leaf surface
  • (D) Presence of adventitious roots on the rhizome

Question 53:

The characteristic of Cleistogamous flowers is :

  • (A) They are pollinated by wind.
  • (B) They never open and are self-pollinated
  • (C) They are exclusively pollinated by insects.
  • (D) They are always open and cross pollinated

Question 54:

What is the role of Gibberellic acid in plants?

  • (A) It promotes cell division and elongation in stem tissues.
  • (B) It increases the levels of anti-oxidants
  • (C) It decreases the levels of plant growth hormones.
  • (D) It inhibits the synthesis of plant secondary metabolites.

Question 55:

Which of the following hormones is synthesized from methionine?

  • (A) Auxin
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) Cytokinin
  • (D) Ethylene

Question 56:

The early development of monocot and dicot embryo is similar up to which stage?

  • (A) Octant stage
  • (B) Diad stage
  • (C) Globular stage
  • (D) Quadrant stage

Question 57:

Mesosome is a specialized and differentiated form of __________.

  • (A) Ribosomes
  • (B) Mitochondria
  • (C) Cell membrane
  • (D) Cell wall

Question 58:

In which specific region of the chloroplast, does Calvin cycle occurs?

  • (A) Thylakoid membranes
  • (B) Stroma
  • (C) Grana
  • (D) Inner membrane

Question 59:

A eukaryotic cell is exposed to a chemical that inhibits the 5' capping of pre-mRNA. What is the most likely effect on translation?

  • (A) Translation will initiate but elongation will be impaired.
  • (B) Translation will fail to initiate due to improper ribosome binding.
  • (C) The polyadenylation will not occur.
  • (D) Splicing of introns will be unaffected.

Question 60:

What effect does the hypermethylation of promoter regions typically have on gene expression?

  • (A) Activation of transcription.
  • (B) Silencing of transcription.
  • (C) No effect on transcription.
  • (D) Increased translational efficiency.

Question 61:

Treating chromatin with a non specific nuclease yields a segment of about 168 bp which is bound to 9 histone molecules (H2A, H2B, H3, H4 and H1). This whole structure is known as:

  • (A) Histone Octamer
  • (B) Nucleosome
  • (C) Chromatosome
  • (D) Histosome

Question 62:

The correct karyotype description of Patau Syndrome is ____________.

  • (A) 47, +21
  • (B) 47, +18
  • (C) 47, +13
  • (D) 45, XO

Question 63:

What is the primary function of Bt toxin in genetically modified crops like Bt Cotton?

  • (A) Enhancing nutrient content.
  • (B) Providing resistance to fungal infections.
  • (C) Acting as a natural insecticide.
  • (D) Increasing drought tolerance.

Question 64:

A plasmid vector contains a multiple cloning site (MCS) within the lac-Z gene. If foreign DNA is inserted into the MCS, what happens when competent cells are transformed with this plasmid and allowed to grow on a nutrient medium plate with X-gal and IPTG?

  • (A) Transformed cells with recombinant plasmids will appear blue.
  • (B) Transformed cells with recombinant plasmids will appear white.
  • (C) All transformed cells will appear blue.
  • (D) Non-transformed cells will appear white.

Question 65:

Sequentially arrange the steps involved in cryopreservation of plant cells in order of their occurrence.

A. Raising sterile tissue culture
B. Determination of viability
C. Freezing, Storage
D. Addition of cryoprotectants.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, D, C, B
  • (B) A, B, C, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 66:

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC) vector?

  • (A) They can carry large DNA inserts.
  • (B) They use eukaryotic cells as hosts.
  • (C) They lack selectable markers.
  • (D) They do not replicate autonomously.

Question 67:

Which sequence of steps is correct in the development of a genetically modified (GM) crop?

A. Insertion of the gene into the vector.
B. Identification of a desired gene.
C. Selection and screening of transformed plants.
D. Transfer of the vector into a plant cell.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) B, A, D, C
  • (C) A, C, B, D
  • (D) D, A, C, B

Question 68:

Which of the following order is not included in Stachyospermae?

  • (A) Cordaitales
  • (B) Ginkgoales
  • (C) Cycadales
  • (D) Coniferales

Question 69:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C - I, D - IV
  • (C) A-IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (D) A-III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 70:

Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

  • (A) Amino acids - Proteins
  • (B) Fatty acids - Deoxynucleotides
  • (C) Glucose - Polysaccharides
  • (D) Nucleoside triphosphate - Nucleic acids

Question 71:

The enzyme responsible for synthesizing RNA primers during DNA replication is -

  • (A) DNA polymerase
  • (B) Primase
  • (C) Topoisomerase
  • (D) Helicase

Question 72:

Which of the following best explains the fluidity of the plasma membrane ?

  • (A) The presence of phospholipids in a rigid bilayer.
  • (B) The movement of proteins and lipids within the bilayer.
  • (C) The fixed positions of membrane proteins.
  • (D) The attachment of cholesterol to membrane proteins.

Question 73:

Sequence the following events involved in a point mutation in DNA.

A. Alteration in the amino acid sequence of a protein.
B. Change in mRNA codon during transcription.
C. Substitution of a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence.
D. Possible disruption of protein function or structure.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) B, A, C, D
  • (C) A, C, B, D
  • (D) C, B, A, D

Question 74:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in a dihybrid cross to test Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment

A. Selection of two traits in the parent generation.
B. Crossing of pure - breeding parents.
C. Analysis of phenotypic ratios in the F₂ generation.
D. Observations of gamete combinations in the F₁ generation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) B, C, A, D

Question 75:

Select the phases which are included in the 'Interphase'.

A. S phase
B. M phase
C. G₁ phase
D. G₂ phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only

CUET PG Questions

  • 1.
    Arrange the following artists in order (oldest to youngest)
    (A) Mansimran Singh
    (B) P.V. Daroz
    (C) Kripal Singh Shekhawat
    (D) Mrinalini Mukherjee
    (E) Gurcharan Singh
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

      • (E), (C), (A), (B), (D)
      • (E), (A), (B), (C), (D)
      • (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)
      • (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

    • 2.
      'Bottle' and 'Growing Stones' are pottery by artists.
      (A) Gurcharan Singh
      (B) Ramchandra Shukla
      (C) K. V. Jena
      (D) P. Daroz
      Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

        • (B) and (D) only
        • (A), (B), and (D) only
        • (C) and (D) only
        • (A) and (D) only

      • 3.
        Identify the famous pottery artist.
        (A) K. V. Jena
        (B) D. P. Roy Choudhary
        (C) Mansimran Singh
        (D) Kawal Krishna
        Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

          • (C), (B) and (D) only
          • (B) and (D) only
          • (C) and (D) only
          • (A) and (C) only

        • 4.
          Which of the following is a famous historical site that features terracotta statues?
          1. Machu Picchu
          2. Stonehenge
          3. Black Sun
          4. Terracotta Army
          Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

            • Machu Picchu
            • Stonehenge
            • Black Sun
            • Terracotta Army

          • 5.
            Which method is not used in making ceramic pots?
            (A) Pinching
            (B) Throwing
            (C) Fusion
            (D) Slip Casting
            (E) Frit
            Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

              • (A), (B), (E) and (D) only
              • (B) and (D) only
              • (C) and (D) only
              • (B), (C) and (D) only

            • 6.
              The famous examples of the terracotta Temple
              (A) Vishnupur Temple (West Bengal)
              (B) Devgarh Dasavatar Temple (Uttar Pradesh)
              (C) Prasurameshwar Temple (Odisha)
              (D) Bhitargaon Temple (Uttar Pradesh)
              Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

                • (A), (B) and (D) only
                • (B) and (D) only
                • (C) and (D) only
                • (B), (C) and (D) only

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General800
              sc550

              In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

              Comments


              No Comments To Show