CUET PG B.Ed 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the author of the famous philosophical statement, "Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains." This quote is a cornerstone of political philosophy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

This iconic line is the opening sentence of Jean-Jacques Rousseau's influential 1762 work, The Social Contract.

Rousseau's argument is that humans in their natural state are free.

However, the development of modern society, with its complex social structures, laws, and governments, has imposed "chains" or constraints on this natural liberty.

He explores how a legitimate political authority can be formed based on a social contract that preserves freedom and justice.

The other options listed are prominent figures in education and psychology, but not known for this particular quote.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The quote is famously attributed to Jean Jacques Rousseau.
Quick Tip: For exams, it's beneficial to memorize famous quotes from key historical and philosophical figures. Associating the quote with the main theme of their work (e.g., Rousseau and the social contract) aids recall.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the ancient Indian scholar known for a foundational work on Sanskrit grammar.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Panini was an ancient Indian philologist, grammarian, and a revered scholar in ancient India.

His most famous work is the Ashtadhyayi (meaning "Eight Chapters"). This text is a comprehensive and scientific treatise on Sanskrit grammar.

It is considered a masterpiece of brevity and completeness, laying down the grammatical rules of classical Sanskrit in a highly systematic and technical manner.

Other Options:

- Patanjali: Wrote the Mahabhashya, a commentary on Panini's Ashtadhyayi.

- Sushruta: A pioneer in the field of medicine and surgery, known for the Sushruta Samhita.

- Chanakya: Also known as Kautilya, he was a statesman and philosopher, famous for the political treatise Arthashastra.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Panini is the correct answer as he authored the foundational dissertation on Sanskrit grammar, the Ashtadhyayi.
Quick Tip: When studying ancient history, create a table of important figures, their field of expertise (e.g., grammar, medicine, politics), and their major works. This helps in distinguishing their contributions.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the specific term that describes the study of mental processes like thinking, memory, and problem-solving.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Cognitive Domain (or cognitive psychology) is the scientific study of mental processes. This includes how people perceive, think, remember, learn, and solve problems. The functions mentioned in the question—remembering, problem-solving, and decision-making—are all core areas of study within this domain.

Other Options:

- Education: This is a broad field concerning the process of teaching and learning. While it involves cognitive processes, it is not the specific study of them.

- Epistemology: This is a branch of philosophy concerned with the nature and scope of knowledge.

- Pedagogy: This is the theory and practice of teaching and how it affects learning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct term is the Cognitive Domain, which specifically focuses on the construction of thought processes.
Quick Tip: In educational psychology, remember the three domains of learning: Cognitive (thinking), Affective (feeling/emotion), and Psychomotor (doing/physical skills). This question directly defines the Cognitive Domain.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a teaching method—simultaneously reading aloud and writing—and asks for the underlying learning theory. This practice aims to build a strong association between the spoken word, its sound, and its written form.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Conditioning is a theory of learning that states that behavior is the result of associations between stimuli and responses.

In this case, the child is being conditioned to associate the motor action of writing a letter or word with the auditory stimulus of saying it aloud. This repeated pairing strengthens the connection in the child's mind, making it easier to recognize and recall letters and words. This is a form of associative learning, which is a key principle of conditioning.

Other Options:

- Trial & Error: Involves attempting various solutions until the correct one is found. This method doesn't fit the structured pairing of reading and writing.

- Insight: Refers to a sudden realization of a problem's solution, often called an "aha!" moment. It's not a gradual, repetitive process like the one described.

- Imitation: Involves learning by observing and replicating others' actions. While a child might imitate a teacher writing, the specific act of pairing their own speech with their own writing is more about self-conditioning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The practice is based on the theory of Conditioning, as it creates a strong association between auditory and motor skills.
Quick Tip: Relate abstract learning theories to real-world classroom activities. For example, Pavlov's dogs are a classic example of classical conditioning, while sticker charts for good behavior are an example of operant conditioning.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The task is to arrange the listed former Union Ministers of Education/HRD of India in the correct chronological order of their tenures.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's find the tenures for each minister:

- (D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed: He served as the Minister of Education from November 14, 1966, to March 13, 1967.

- (B) Karan Singh: He served as the Minister of Education and Culture from July 30, 1979, to January 14, 1980.

- (C) K.C. Pant: He served as the Minister of Education from December 31, 1984, to September 25, 1985.

- (A) P.V. Narasimha Rao: He served as the Minister of Human Resource Development (the ministry was renamed from Ministry of Education in 1985) from September 25, 1985, to June 25, 1988.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the tenures, the correct chronological order is:

1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (1966-1967) - (D)

2. Karan Singh (1979-1980) - (B)

3. K.C. Pant (1984-1985) - (C)

4. P.V. Narasimha Rao (1985-1988) - (A)

The correct sequence is (D), (B), (C), (A).
Quick Tip: For questions involving chronological order of political figures, focus on the timeline of Prime Ministers. Knowing who was PM during a certain period can help narrow down the potential years a minister served. For instance, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed served under Indira Gandhi, Karan Singh under Charan Singh, and both K.C. Pant and P.V. Narasimha Rao served under Rajiv Gandhi.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching famous books with their respective authors.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each book from List-I to its author in List-II.

- (A) The Godfather: This famous crime novel was written by (II) Mario Puzo.

- (B) The Jungle Book: This collection of stories was authored by the English writer (I) Rudyard Kipling.

- (C) The Blue Umbrella: This novella is a well-known work by Indian author (IV) Ruskin Bond.

- (D) A tale of two cities: This historical novel about the French Revolution was written by (III) Charles Dickens.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is:

(A) -> (II)

(B) -> (I)

(C) -> (IV)

(D) -> (III)

This corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: For "match the following" questions, start with the pairs you are most certain about. This can often help eliminate incorrect options quickly, even if you are unsure about one of the pairs.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the author of the book titled 'Freedom Behind Bars'.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The book 'Freedom Behind Bars' was written by Kiran Bedi, the first woman to join the Indian Police Service (IPS).

The book is based on her experiences and reforms implemented when she served as the Inspector General of Prisons at Tihar Jail, Delhi.

Other Options:

- Jawaharlal Nehru wrote books like The Discovery of India and Glimpses of World History.

- Nelson Mandela's autobiography is titled Long Walk to Freedom.

- Mahatma Gandhi's autobiography is The Story of My Experiments with Truth.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Kiran Bedi is the author of 'Freedom Behind Bars'.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to books written by prominent public figures, especially autobiographies or works based on their professional experiences. These are common topics in general knowledge sections.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the author of the book "The Birth of New India".


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The book "The Birth of New India" was written by Annie Besant.

Annie Besant was a British socialist, theosophist, women's rights activist, writer, orator, and a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement. She also founded the Home Rule League in India in 1916. Her writings often reflected her political and spiritual views on India's future.

Other Options:

- Jawaharlal Nehru was India's first Prime Minister and author of The Discovery of India.

- John Milton was a 17th-century English poet, famous for Paradise Lost.

- Manik Bandopadhyay was a renowned Bengali novelist and short story writer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The author of "The Birth of New India" is Annie Besant.
Quick Tip: Books and authors from the Indian freedom struggle era are a frequent topic in competitive exams. Create a list of key leaders and their literary contributions (books, newspapers, etc.).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the first feature film produced in India in 3D (three-dimensional) format.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The first 3D movie made in India was My Dear Kuttichathan.

It is a Malayalam-language children's fantasy film released in 1984.

The film was directed by Jijo Punnoose. It was a commercial success and was later dubbed into Hindi as Chhota Chetan and re-released, gaining nationwide popularity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

India's first 3D film was 'My Dear Kuttichathan'.
Quick Tip: Facts about "firsts" in Indian cinema (e.g., first talkie, first color film, first 3D film) are popular general knowledge questions. It's useful to maintain a list of such cinematic milestones.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the song that won the Academy Award (Oscar) for Best Original Song at the 95th Academy Awards ceremony in 2023.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The song "Naatu Naatu" from the Indian Telugu-language film RRR won the Oscar for Best Original Song in 2023.

This was a historic win, as it was the first song from an Indian film to win in this category.

The music for the song was composed by M. M. Keeravani, and the lyrics were written by Chandrabose.

"Naacho Naacho" is the title of the Hindi version of the same song, but the award was given to the original Telugu version, "Naatu Naatu".


Step 3: Final Answer:

The song "Naatu Naatu" won the Best Original Song award at the 2023 Oscars.
Quick Tip: For current affairs questions related to awards, always remember the specific category and the year. Also, note any special significance, such as this being the first Indian film song to win this particular Oscar.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the very first full-length feature film produced in India. This is a landmark event in the history of Indian cinema.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The first full-length Indian feature film was Raja Harishchandra, a silent film released in 1913.

It was directed and produced by the legendary Dadasaheb Phalke, who is often regarded as the "father of Indian cinema."

The film is based on the story of the noble King Harishchandra from Hindu mythology.

Other Options:

- Alam Ara (1931): This was the first Indian film with sound, known as a "talkie," but not the first feature film.

- Shree 420 (1955) and Jagriti (1954) are classic films from a much later period in Indian cinema.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct answer is Raja Harishchandra, as it was India's first full-length feature film.
Quick Tip: In exams, be careful to distinguish between the "first feature film" (which was silent) and the "first talkie" (film with sound). The first feature film is Raja Harishchandra (1913), and the first talkie is Alam Ara (1931). This is a common point of confusion.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the primary target group and objective of the ICDS programme. ICDS stands for Integrated Child Development Services.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

ICDS is a flagship programme of the Government of India launched in 1975. Its primary objective is the holistic development of children.

The programme provides a package of services including supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, referral services, and pre-school non-formal education.

These services are primarily aimed at children up to the age of six years, as well as pregnant and lactating mothers.

The other options are incorrect as the scheme does not focus on teenagers, political awareness, or unemployed youth.


Step 3: Final Answer:

ICDS addresses the needs of children up to the age of six years.
Quick Tip: For questions on government schemes, memorizing the full form (e.g., ICDS -> Integrated Child Development Services) often reveals the main objective and target audience, making it easier to select the correct answer.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the field associated with the prestigious B.C. Roy Award.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Bidhan Chandra Roy Award is an institutional award in India presented by the Medical Council of India.

It is considered one of the highest recognitions for doctors in the country.

The award is named after Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy, a renowned physician and the second Chief Minister of West Bengal. His birth and death anniversary, July 1st, is celebrated as National Doctors' Day in India.

Therefore, the award is given in the field of Medicine.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The B.C. Roy Award is conferred in the field of Medicine.
Quick Tip: Associate major awards with the personalities they are named after. Dr. B.C. Roy was a celebrated physician, which is a strong clue that the award in his name is related to the field of medicine.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify India's highest military decoration awarded for valor and courage. Gallantry awards are categorized into wartime and peacetime awards.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest military decoration, awarded for displaying distinguished acts of valor during wartime. It is the highest gallantry award overall.

The wartime gallantry awards in order of precedence are: Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra.

Other Options:

- The Maha Vir Chakra: This is the second-highest wartime gallantry award.

- The Ashoka Chakra: This is the highest peacetime gallantry award, awarded for valor or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield.

- The Bharat Ratna: This is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India, not a gallantry award.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Param Vir Chakra is the highest gallantry award in India.
Quick Tip: Always differentiate between gallantry (military/bravery) awards and civilian awards. Also, remember the distinction between wartime (Param Vir Chakra) and peacetime (Ashoka Chakra) gallantry awards.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question links the Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Prize to the institution that its namesake, Prof. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar, was closely associated with.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Prof. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar (1894–1955) was an eminent Indian colloid chemist and scientist.

He is revered as the "father of research laboratories in India" and was the first Director-General of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

The Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology is awarded annually by CSIR to honor his memory and recognize outstanding Indian research.

Therefore, the institution associated with him is CSIR.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The institution associated with Prof. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar is CSIR.
Quick Tip: Remember the founding figures of major Indian scientific bodies: Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar for CSIR, Homi J. Bhabha for India's atomic energy program, and Vikram Sarabhai for the Indian space program (ISRO).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks which of the given gases is the least soluble in water under standard conditions. While all gases have some degree of solubility, one is significantly less soluble than the others.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the solubility of each gas:

- Oxygen (O\(_2\)): It is slightly soluble in water. This dissolved oxygen is crucial for the survival of aquatic life.

- Carbon dioxide (CO\(_2\)): It is fairly soluble in water, reacting to form carbonic acid (H\(_2\)CO\(_3\)). This property is used to make carbonated beverages.

- Chlorine (Cl\(_2\)): It is quite soluble in water and is used for disinfection because it reacts with water.

- Nitrogen (N\(_2\)): It is very sparingly soluble in water under standard conditions. The strong triple bond in the N\(\equiv\)N molecule makes it very inert and gives it a very low affinity for dissolving in water.

Comparing the options, nitrogen has the lowest solubility.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Nitrogen is the atmospheric gas among the options that is least soluble in water.
Quick Tip: Think about real-world examples to remember gas solubility. Fish breathe dissolved oxygen. Soda contains dissolved carbon dioxide. The air is 78% nitrogen, but lakes and oceans don't readily absorb it in large amounts.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the originator of the scientific term 'ecology'.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word 'ecology' (originally German: Ökologie) was coined in 1866 by the German scientist Ernst Haeckel.

He derived it from the Greek words oikos (meaning "house" or "dwelling") and logos (meaning "study"). He defined it as the study of the relationship of organisms with their environment.

Other Options:

- Charles Darwin is famous for his theory of evolution by natural selection.

- Gregor Mendel is known as the father of modern genetics.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The word 'ecology' was coined by Ernst Haeckel.
Quick Tip: For general science questions, creating a list of important scientific terms and the scientists who coined them can be very helpful. For example: Ecology - Haeckel, Genetics - Bateson, Vitamin - Funk.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A pyramid of biomass illustrates the total mass of all living organisms (biomass) at each successive trophic (feeding) level in an ecosystem. The question asks which level has the greatest biomass.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In most terrestrial ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is upright. This means the biomass is greatest at the bottom level and progressively decreases at higher levels.

- Primary Producers (e.g., plants, algae): They form the base of the food chain and convert solar energy into organic matter. They have the largest population and thus the highest biomass.

- Primary Consumers (herbivores): They feed on producers. Their total biomass is less than that of the producers.

- Secondary and Tertiary Consumers (carnivores/omnivores): Their biomass is successively smaller as energy is lost at each step up the food chain (the 10% rule of energy transfer).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Primary Producers have the highest biomass in a typical pyramid of biomass.
Quick Tip: Visualize an ecological pyramid (of numbers, biomass, or energy). The base is always the widest, representing the producers. It gets narrower at each step going up to the top consumers. This simple visualization helps answer such questions correctly.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the scientific reason why the sky appears blue on a clear day.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The phenomenon responsible for the blue color of the sky is Rayleigh scattering.

Sunlight is made up of a spectrum of colors. When sunlight passes through the Earth's atmosphere, it interacts with the tiny gas molecules (mostly nitrogen and oxygen).

These molecules scatter the sunlight. Rayleigh scattering is more effective for shorter wavelengths of light (blue and violet) than for longer wavelengths (red and orange).

Because the blue light is scattered much more than other colors, it reaches our eyes from all directions in the sky, making the sky appear blue.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The scattering of solar radiation by air molecules and particles is responsible for the blue color of the sky.
Quick Tip: Remember the different light phenomena:

- \(\textbf{Blue Sky:}\) Rayleigh Scattering (by small air molecules).
- \(\textbf{Red Sunset/Sunrise:}\) Also Rayleigh Scattering (blue light is scattered away, leaving red light to reach the observer).
- \(\textbf{White Clouds:}\) Mie Scattering (by larger water droplets, scatters all colors equally).
- \(\textbf{Rainbows:}\) Dispersion and Total Internal Reflection.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the specific term for microbes (like bacteria and fungi) that obtain nutrients by decomposing dead organic matter in a detritus food chain.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's define the terms:

- Autotrophs: Organisms that produce their own food, usually through photosynthesis (e.g., plants).

- Herbivores: Animals that feed on plants (primary consumers).

- Saphrophytes: Organisms that feed on dead and decaying organic matter. They are also known as decomposers. This accurately describes the role of the microbes in the question.

- Heterotrophs: A broad category for organisms that cannot make their own food and must consume other organic matter. This category includes herbivores, carnivores, and saprophytes.

While the microbes are indeed heterotrophs, the term Saphrophytes is more specific and accurately describes their exact mode of nutrition and ecological role as decomposers in a detritus food chain.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The microbes are best referred to as Saprophytes.
Quick Tip: In biology questions, always look for the most specific and accurate term. While a decomposer is a type of heterotroph, if 'decomposer' or 'saprophyte' is an option, it is usually the better answer than the broader category 'heterotroph'.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the ideal soil type for most plant growth. The suitability of soil depends on its texture, which is a mix of sand, silt, and clay particles. This mix affects water retention, drainage, and aeration.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Clayey silt / Silty Clay: These soils have a high percentage of clay and silt. They can hold a lot of water but often have poor drainage and aeration, which can suffocate plant roots.

- Sandy loam: This soil has a higher percentage of sand. It offers good drainage but may not retain enough water or nutrients for many plants.

- Loamy soil: This is considered the ideal soil for gardening and agriculture. It contains a balanced mixture of sand, silt, and clay, along with organic matter (humus). This balance provides good drainage, adequate water and nutrient retention, and sufficient air space for roots to breathe.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Loamy soil is the most suitable for plant growth due to its balanced properties.
Quick Tip: Remember the ideal soil composition: Loam is the sweet spot. Too much sand, and water drains too fast. Too much clay, and the soil gets waterlogged. Loam offers the best of both worlds.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching ecological interactions with their symbolic representation. The symbols indicate the effect on each species: '+' for benefit, '-' for harm, and '0' for no effect.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Mutualism: An interaction where both species benefit. Symbol: (II) +, +.

- (B) Commensalism: An interaction where one species benefits, and the other is unaffected. Symbol: (III) +, 0.

- (C) Competition: An interaction where both species are harmed as they compete for the same limited resources. Symbol: (IV) -, -.

- (D) Predation: An interaction where one species (the predator) benefits by hunting and killing another species (the prey), which is harmed. Symbol: (I) +, -. (This also applies to parasitism).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is:

(A) -> (II)

(B) -> (III)

(C) -> (IV)

(D) -> (I)

This corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: Create a simple chart to memorize these interactions. Associating them with real-world examples helps: Mutualism (bees and flowers), Commensalism (orchids on trees), Competition (lions and hyenas), Predation (lion and zebra).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The heat content (calorific value) of coal is directly related to its rank or stage of formation (coalification). The longer the coal has been subjected to heat and pressure, the higher its carbon content and heat content. The question asks for the order from lowest to highest heat content.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The ranks of coal from lowest to highest are:

1. (A) Peat: This is the precursor to coal. It has low carbon content, high moisture, and the lowest heat content.

2. (B) Lignite: Also known as brown coal, this is the lowest rank of coal. It has a higher heat content than peat.

3. (E) Sub-bituminous: This is the next rank up from lignite, with lower moisture and higher carbon content.

4. (D) Bituminous: This is a dense, black coal with a high heat content. It is the most abundant type of coal.

5. (C) Anthracite: This is the highest rank of coal. It has the highest carbon content, the lowest moisture, and the highest heat content.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct increasing order of heat content is Peat < Lignite < Sub-bituminous < Bituminous < Anthracite. This corresponds to the sequence (A), (B), (E), (D), (C).
Quick Tip: Remember the acronym \(\textbf{PLBAS}\) (for \(\textbf{P}\)eat, \(\textbf{L}\)ignite, \(\textbf{B}\)ituminous, \(\textbf{A}\)nthracite, \(\textbf{S}\)ub-bituminous is between L and B). The order in the acronym is from lowest quality (heat content) to highest, with Sub-bituminous fitting between Lignite and Bituminous.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the layers of the Earth's atmosphere where the temperature profile shows a decrease in temperature with an increase in altitude. This is known as a negative lapse rate.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine the temperature profile of each layer, starting from the ground up:

- (A) Troposphere (0-12 km): This is the lowest layer where we live and where most weather occurs. The temperature decreases with altitude because the air is heated from the ground up by terrestrial radiation.

- (D) Stratosphere (12-50 km): Temperature increases with altitude in this layer. This is due to the absorption of ultraviolet (UV) radiation by the ozone layer.

- (B) Mesosphere (50-80 km): Above the stratosphere, the temperature once again decreases with altitude. This is the coldest layer of the atmosphere.

- (C) Thermosphere (80+ km): Temperature increases dramatically with altitude due to the absorption of high-energy solar radiation by the sparse gas molecules.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Temperature decreases with increasing height in the Troposphere (A) and the Mesosphere (B). Therefore, the correct option is (A) and (B) only.
Quick Tip: Remember the temperature trend in the atmospheric layers from the ground up: \(\textbf{Decreases (T), Increases (S), Decreases (M), Increases (T)}\). The layers are \(\textbf{T}\)roposphere, \(\textbf{S}\)tratosphere, \(\textbf{M}\)esosphere, \(\textbf{T}\)hermosphere.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires evaluating the validity of four common statements about the physical properties of water.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Water has highest density at 4°C: This is a well-known anomalous property of water. As water cools, it becomes denser until it reaches 4°C, after which it starts to expand and become less dense. This statement is correct.

- (B) Freezing point of water is 0°C: By definition, at standard atmospheric pressure, the freezing point of pure water is 0 degrees Celsius (or 32 degrees Fahrenheit). This statement is correct.

- (C) An Ice cube ... floats on water in a glass: Ice is less dense than liquid water (due to the property described in A). According to Archimedes' principle, an object less dense than the fluid it is in will float. This statement is correct.

- (D) Addition of common salt reduces freezing point of water: This phenomenon is called freezing point depression. Dissolving a solute like salt (NaCl) in a solvent (water) lowers the temperature at which the solution freezes. This is why salt is used to de-ice roads. This statement is correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Since all four statements (A), (B), (C), and (D) are correct, the correct option includes all of them.
Quick Tip: The anomalous expansion of water (highest density at 4°C) is a crucial concept. It explains why ice floats, which is essential for aquatic life to survive in frozen lakes during winter.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the components of the Human Poverty Index (HPI). The HPI was introduced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure deprivation in a country. There were two versions: HPI-1 for developing countries and HPI-2 for developed countries. The variables listed correspond to HPI-1.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Human Poverty Index for developing countries (HPI-1) measured poverty based on three dimensions of deprivation:

1. A long and healthy life: Measured by (A) the probability at birth of not surviving to age 40.

2. Knowledge: Measured by (B) the adult illiteracy rate.

3. A decent standard of living: This was a composite variable measured by:

- The percentage of the population without sustainable access to an improved water source (C).

- The percentage of children under weight for age (D).

Therefore, all four variables listed were components of the HPI-1.


Step 3: Final Answer:

All the given variables (A), (B), (C), and (D) are included in the Human Poverty Index (HPI-1).
Quick Tip: Note that the HPI has been superseded by the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) since 2010. However, questions on HPI still appear in exams. For HPI-1, remember the three key areas: Longevity (not surviving to 40), Knowledge (illiteracy), and Living Standards (no clean water, underweight children).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the specific term in international trade that describes the types or 'nature' of goods and services being traded.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Volume of trade: This refers to the total quantity or value of goods and services traded. It measures 'how much' is being traded.

- Composition of trade: This refers to the types of goods and services that a country exports and imports. It describes the 'what' or the 'nature' of the trade, for example, whether a country primarily exports raw materials and imports manufactured goods. This matches the question's description.

- Direction of trade: This refers to the countries with which a country trades. It describes 'with whom' the trade is happening.

- Balance of trade: This is the difference between the value of a country's exports and its imports.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The nature of goods and services is denoted by the term 'Composition of trade'.
Quick Tip: To remember these terms, use simple questions:

- \(\textbf{Volume?}\) -> How much? (Value/Quantity)
- \(\textbf{Composition?}\) -> What? (Nature of goods)
- \(\textbf{Direction?}\) -> With whom? (Trading partners)
- \(\textbf{Balance?}\) -> Difference? (Exports - Imports)

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A population pyramid graphically represents the age and sex distribution of a population. The shape of the pyramid provides insights into birth rates, death rates, and life expectancy.

- The base of the pyramid represents the youngest age groups (births). A wide base indicates a high birth rate, while a narrow base indicates a low birth rate.

- The top of the pyramid represents the oldest age groups. A tapered top is normal, but a rapidly tapering top indicates a high death rate and low life expectancy. A less tapered top (more people in older age groups) suggests a low death rate and high life expectancy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The question describes a pyramid with a narrow base and a tapered top.

- Narrow base: This directly indicates a low birth rate. There are fewer young people.

- Tapered top: While all pyramids taper, in the context of a narrow base, this shape (often called a constrictive or urn-shaped pyramid) is characteristic of developed countries with an aging population. This implies a low death rate and longer life expectancy, allowing a significant portion of the population to reach old age before the pyramid tapers.

Therefore, the combination is a low birth rate and a low death rate.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A population pyramid with a narrow base and a tapered top is characteristic of a population with a low birth rate and a low death rate.
Quick Tip: Remember the three main shapes of population pyramids:

1. \(\textbf{Expansive (Triangle):}\) Wide base -> High birth rate (developing nations).
2. \(\textbf{Constrictive (Narrow Base):}\) Narrow base -> Low birth rate (developed nations).
3. \(\textbf{Stationary (Rectangular):}\) Even distribution -> Zero or slow growth.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the sociologist who introduced the concept of 'Sanskritization'.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The term 'Sanskritization' was coined and popularized by the eminent Indian sociologist M. N. Srinivas (Mysore Narasimhachar Srinivas).

He first used the concept in his D.Phil. thesis and later elaborated on it in his book Religion and Society Among the Coorgs of South India (1952).

Sanskritization describes the process by which a "low" Hindu caste, or tribal or other group, changes its customs, ritual, ideology, and way of life in the direction of a high, and frequently, "twice-born" caste. It is a form of social mobility.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The term 'Sanskritization' was coined by M. N. Srinivas.
Quick Tip: Associate key sociological concepts with the sociologists who proposed them. For Indian sociology, M.N. Srinivas is strongly linked with 'Sanskritization' and 'Dominant Caste'. G.S. Ghurye is known as one of the founding fathers of Indian sociology.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the given Indian states has a population where Christians form the majority religion.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the religious demographics of the states listed (based on the 2011 Census):

- Meghalaya: Christians constitute approximately 74.6% of the population, making it a Christian-majority state.

- Tripura: The majority religion is Hinduism (around 83%), with Christians being a small minority.

- Kerala: While Kerala has a significant Christian population (around 18%), they are a minority. Hinduism is the majority religion (around 55%), followed by Islam (around 26%).

- Sikkim: The majority religion is Hinduism, followed by Buddhism. Christians are a minority.

Other Christian-majority states in India include Nagaland and Mizoram.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Among the given options, Meghalaya is a Christian-majority state.
Quick Tip: Remember the three states in Northeast India with a Christian majority: Nagaland, Mizoram, and Meghalaya. This is a common question in Indian geography and demographics.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the specific powers and responsibilities delegated to Panchayats under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. These powers are outlined in Part IX of the Constitution.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement based on the constitutional provisions:

- (A) to prepare plans and schemes for economic development: This is a core function of Panchayats as stated in Article 243G of the Constitution. The state legislature may endow Panchayats with powers to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, which includes planning for economic development. This statement is correct.

- (B) to promote schemes that will enhance social justice: This is also a primary responsibility mentioned in Article 243G, which covers the implementation of schemes for social justice. This statement is correct.

- (C) to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees: Article 243H explicitly empowers the state legislature to authorize Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees. This statement is correct.

- (D) to help in the devolution of governmental responsibilities...: This statement describes the objective or the principle behind the Panchayati Raj system, rather than a specific power delegated to a Panchayat. The Panchayat is the recipient of this devolution, not the body responsible for carrying out the devolution. The state government and the State Finance Commission (under Article 243I) are responsible for this devolution. Therefore, this is not a direct power of the Panchayat itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The direct powers and responsibilities delegated to Panchayats are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: When answering questions about Panchayati Raj, focus on the specific articles of the 73rd Amendment. Article 243G (Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats) and Article 243H (Powers to impose taxes by, and Funds of, the Panchayats) are key. Distinguish between the functions of the Panchayat and the overall goals of the system.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A social movement is a type of group action. They are large, sometimes informal, groupings of individuals or organizations which focus on specific political or social issues. The question asks to identify what is not a defining characteristic.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Sustained collective action: This is a core feature. Social movements are not isolated, one-time events. They involve continuous and prolonged collective effort to bring about or resist change.

- Degree of organization: To sustain action, some level of organization is necessary. This can range from informal networks to formal structures, but organization is always present to coordinate activities and resources.

- Leadership and structure: Social movements typically have leaders who articulate goals and mobilize support, as well as a structure that guides their actions.

- Support of government and state: This is not a necessary feature. In fact, many social movements emerge precisely to challenge or protest against the policies, actions, or inaction of the government and the state. They often operate outside of and in opposition to established state structures. While they may eventually gain government support, it is not a prerequisite or a defining feature.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The support of the government and state is not a defining feature of a social movement.
Quick Tip: Think of famous social movements like the Indian independence movement, the Civil Rights Movement in the US, or environmental movements. They were all forms of sustained collective action with organization and leadership, and they often challenged the existing state power rather than being supported by it.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires arranging various Indian folk theatre forms in geographical order based on their region of origin, moving from the eastern part of India to the western part.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's identify the origin state/region for each art form:

- (A) Bhaona: A traditional folk theatre form from Assam (North-East India).

- (B) Jatra: A popular folk theatre form of West Bengal and neighbouring states (Eastern India).

- (C) Ramlila: A dramatic folk re-enactment of the life of Rama, widely performed across North India, especially Uttar Pradesh (North/Central India).

- (E) Maach: The traditional theatre form of Madhya Pradesh (Central India).

- (D) Dashavatar: A folk theatre form from the Konkan region, particularly Maharashtra and Goa (Western India).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Arranging these regions geographically from East to West gives the following sequence:

1. Assam (Bhaona - A)

2. West Bengal (Jatra - B)

3. Uttar Pradesh (Ramlila - C)

4. Madhya Pradesh (Maach - E)

5. Maharashtra/Goa (Dashavatar - D)

The correct sequence of art forms is (A), (B), (C), (E), (D).
Quick Tip: For geography-based art and culture questions, having a mental map of India and associating key cultural elements (dances, festivals, art forms) with their states is crucial. Creating a state-wise list of cultural heritage can be an effective study method.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The concept of sustainability, particularly in the context of human development, refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It is about inter-generational equity.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Continuity in the availability of opportunities: This is a core tenet of sustainability. It means that the opportunities for a good life available to the current generation should not diminish for future generations. This statement is correct.

- (B) Each future generation must have higher opportunities (At least double)...: This is an incorrect interpretation. Sustainability is about ensuring non-declining opportunities. While development aims for growth, sustainability itself does not mandate a specific rate of increase like "doubling." It is about maintaining at least the same level of opportunities. This statement is incorrect.

- (C) All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future: This statement accurately reflects the principle of prudent resource management inherent in sustainability. It implies that current consumption should not deplete the capital stock (natural, financial, human) available for the future. This statement is correct.

- (D) Each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations: This is another way of expressing the core idea of inter-generational equity, similar to statement (A). It is a fundamental aspect of sustainability. This statement is correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ideas correctly representing sustainability are (A), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: The key idea behind sustainability is "equity over time" or "inter-generational equity." Any statement that reflects the idea of not harming the future for the benefit of the present is likely correct. Be wary of statements that set extreme or specific quantitative targets (like "doubling"), as sustainability is more of a qualitative principle.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a factual question asking for the key individual behind the establishment of the Indian National Congress (INC).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Indian National Congress was founded in December 1885. The initiative for its formation was taken by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired Scottish civil servant. He served as the first General Secretary of the INC. While early Indian leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, and Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee (who was the first president) were crucial, A. O. Hume is widely regarded as the founder of the organization.

The other options were prominent leaders of the INC at later stages but were not involved in its founding in 1885.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A. O. Hume was the founder of the Indian National Congress.
Quick Tip: Remember key dates and personalities for major historical organizations. For the INC, remember: Founder - A.O. Hume; Year - 1885; First President - W.C. Bonnerjee. This helps avoid confusion with other important leaders.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem requires setting up and solving a system of two linear equations based on the given conditions.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Let the larger number be L and the smaller number be S.

From the problem statement, we can form two equations:

1. \( L - S = 16 \)

2. \( \frac{1}{3}S = \frac{1}{7}L + 4 \)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

From Equation 1, we can express L in terms of S:
\[ L = S + 16 \]
Now, substitute this expression for L into Equation 2:
\[ \frac{1}{3}S = \frac{1}{7}(S + 16) + 4 \]
To eliminate the fractions, we can multiply the entire equation by the least common multiple of 3 and 7, which is 21:
\[ 21 \times \left(\frac{1}{3}S\right) = 21 \times \left(\frac{1}{7}(S + 16)\right) + 21 \times 4 \] \[ 7S = 3(S + 16) + 84 \] \[ 7S = 3S + 48 + 84 \] \[ 7S = 3S + 132 \]
Now, solve for S:
\[ 7S - 3S = 132 \] \[ 4S = 132 \] \[ S = \frac{132}{4} = 33 \]
The smaller number is 33.

Now, find the larger number (L) using Equation 1:
\[ L = S + 16 = 33 + 16 = 49 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The larger number is 49. We can verify the conditions: The difference is \( 49 - 33 = 16 \). One-third of the smaller is \( \frac{33}{3} = 11 \). One-seventh of the larger is \( \frac{49}{7} = 7 \). The difference is \( 11 - 7 = 4 \). Both conditions are satisfied.
Quick Tip: After solving, always plug your results back into the original problem statement to verify that they meet all the given conditions. This helps catch any calculation errors.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a work and time problem. We first need to find the total time required to complete the job and then find the remaining time.

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
If a fraction of work is done in a certain time, we can calculate the time needed for the remaining fraction of work.

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Method 1: Find total time first
The man completes \( \frac{5}{8} \) of the job in 10 days.
To find the time to complete the whole job (1 job), we can set up a proportion:
\[ Time for whole job = \frac{Days taken}{Fraction of work done} = \frac{10}{\frac{5}{8}} = 10 \times \frac{8}{5} = 2 \times 8 = 16 days \]
The total time to complete the job is 16 days.

He has already worked for 10 days.
\[ More days needed = Total time - Time worked = 16 - 10 = 6 days \]

Method 2: Calculate remaining work
Fraction of work completed = \( \frac{5}{8} \)
Fraction of work remaining = \( 1 - \frac{5}{8} = \frac{3}{8} \)
We know that \( \frac{5}{8} \) of the work takes 10 days.

Let's find the time taken for \( \frac{1}{8} \) of the work:
\[ Time for \frac{1}{8} work = \frac{10 days}{5} = 2 days \]
Now, calculate the time for the remaining \( \frac{3}{8} \) of the work:
\[ Time for \frac{3}{8} work = 3 \times (Time for \frac{1}{8} work) = 3 \times 2 = 6 days \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The man will take 6 more days to complete the job.
Quick Tip: Pay close attention to the wording. The question asks for "how many more days," not the "total number of days." This is a common trap in competitive exams.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Average speed is calculated as the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. It is not the simple arithmetic average of the speeds.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Average Speed = \frac{Total Distance}{Total Time} \]
Where Total Time is the sum of the time taken for each stretch, and \( Time = \frac{Distance}{Speed} \).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The car travels 4 stretches, each of 3 km.

Total Distance = \( 4 \times 3 km = 12 km \).


Now, let's calculate the time taken for each stretch:

- Time for 1st stretch (\(t_1\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{10 kmph} = 0.3 hours \)

- Time for 2nd stretch (\(t_2\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{20 kmph} = 0.15 hours \)

- Time for 3rd stretch (\(t_3\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{30 kmph} = 0.1 hours \)

- Time for 4th stretch (\(t_4\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{60 kmph} = 0.05 hours \)


Total Time = \( t_1 + t_2 + t_3 + t_4 \)
\[ Total Time = 0.3 + 0.15 + 0.1 + 0.05 = 0.6 hours \]

Now, calculate the average speed:
\[ Average Speed = \frac{12 km}{0.6 hours} = \frac{120}{6} = 20 kmph \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The average speed of the car for the entire journey is 20 kmph.
Quick Tip: When the distance covered is the same for different speeds, the average speed is the Harmonic Mean of the individual speeds. For speeds \(s_1, s_2, ..., s_n\), the average speed is \( \frac{n}{\frac{1}{s_1} + \frac{1}{s_2} + ... + \frac{1}{s_n}} \). Here, it would be \( \frac{4}{\frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{60}} = \frac{4}{12/60} = 20 \).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the time when the traffic lights will change simultaneously again, we need to find the least common multiple (LCM) of their individual time intervals. The LCM gives the smallest amount of time after which all events will coincide.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Calculate the LCM of 48, 72, and 108.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

First, find the prime factorization of each number:
\[ 48 = 2 \times 24 = 2 \times 2 \times 12 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 6 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 3 = 2^4 \times 3^1 \] \[ 72 = 2 \times 36 = 2 \times 2 \times 18 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 9 = 2^3 \times 3^2 \] \[ 108 = 2 \times 54 = 2 \times 2 \times 27 = 2^2 \times 3^3 \]
The LCM is the product of the highest power of each prime factor present in the numbers.
\[ LCM(48, 72, 108) = 2^4 \times 3^3 \] \[ LCM = 16 \times 27 = 432 seconds \]
This means the lights will change together every 432 seconds.

Now, convert 432 seconds into minutes and seconds:
\[ \frac{432}{60} = 7 with a remainder of 12 \]
So, 432 seconds = 7 minutes and 12 seconds.

The initial simultaneous change was at 8:20:00 hours.

The next simultaneous change will be after 7 minutes and 12 seconds.

New time = 8 hours : 20 minutes : 00 seconds + 7 minutes : 12 seconds

New time = 8:27:12 hours.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The traffic lights will again change simultaneously at 8:27:12 hours.
Quick Tip: For problems involving events that repeat at different intervals (like bells ringing, lights flashing, or runners on a circular track), the key to finding when they coincide is always to calculate the LCM of their time intervals.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A multiplier is a factor that we can multiply a number by to get a new value after a percentage change. To increase a number, the multiplier must be greater than 1.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The multiplier for an increase of P% is given by the formula:
\[ Multiplier = 1 + \frac{P}{100} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let the original number be N.

The increase is 25.3% of N, which can be written as:
\[ Increase = \frac{25.3}{100} \times N = 0.253 \times N \]
The new number is the original number plus the increase:
\[ New Number = N + (0.253 \times N) \]
Factoring out N, we get:
\[ New Number = N \times (1 + 0.253) \] \[ New Number = N \times 1.253 \]
The multiplier is the value in the parenthesis.

Alternatively, using the formula with P = 25.3:
\[ Multiplier = 1 + \frac{25.3}{100} = 1 + 0.253 = 1.253 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The multiplier to increase a given number by 25.3% is 1.253.
Quick Tip: To quickly find the multiplier for any percentage change:

- For a P% \(\textbf{increase}\), the multiplier is \(1 + \frac{P}{100}\).
- For a P% \(\textbf{decrease}\), the multiplier is \(1 - \frac{P}{100}\). For example, a 15% decrease would have a multiplier of \(1 - 0.15 = 0.85\).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the specific powers and responsibilities delegated to Panchayats under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. These powers are outlined in Part IX of the Constitution.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement based on the constitutional provisions:

- (A) to prepare plans and schemes for economic development: This is a core function of Panchayats as stated in Article 243G of the Constitution. The state legislature may endow Panchayats with powers to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, which includes planning for economic development. This statement is correct.

- (B) to promote schemes that will enhance social justice: This is also a primary responsibility mentioned in Article 243G, which covers the implementation of schemes for social justice. This statement is correct.

- (C) to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees: Article 243H explicitly empowers the state legislature to authorize Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees. This statement is correct.

- (D) to help in the devolution of governmental responsibilities...: This statement describes the objective or the principle behind the Panchayati Raj system, rather than a specific power delegated to a Panchayat. The Panchayat is the recipient of this devolution, not the body responsible for carrying out the devolution. The state government and the State Finance Commission (under Article 243I) are responsible for this devolution. Therefore, this is not a direct power of the Panchayat itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The direct powers and responsibilities delegated to Panchayats are (A), (B), and (C).
Quick Tip: When answering questions about Panchayati Raj, focus on the specific articles of the 73rd Amendment. Article 243G (Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats) and Article 243H (Powers to impose taxes by, and Funds of, the Panchayats) are key. Distinguish between the functions of the Panchayat and the overall goals of the system.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A social movement is a type of group action. They are large, sometimes informal, groupings of individuals or organizations which focus on specific political or social issues. The question asks to identify what is not a defining characteristic.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Sustained collective action: This is a core feature. Social movements are not isolated, one-time events. They involve continuous and prolonged collective effort to bring about or resist change.

- Degree of organization: To sustain action, some level of organization is necessary. This can range from informal networks to formal structures, but organization is always present to coordinate activities and resources.

- Leadership and structure: Social movements typically have leaders who articulate goals and mobilize support, as well as a structure that guides their actions.

- Support of government and state: This is not a necessary feature. In fact, many social movements emerge precisely to challenge or protest against the policies, actions, or inaction of the government and the state. They often operate outside of and in opposition to established state structures. While they may eventually gain government support, it is not a prerequisite or a defining feature.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The support of the government and state is not a defining feature of a social movement.
Quick Tip: Think of famous social movements like the Indian independence movement, the Civil Rights Movement in the US, or environmental movements. They were all forms of sustained collective action with organization and leadership, and they often challenged the existing state power rather than being supported by it.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires arranging various Indian folk theatre forms in geographical order based on their region of origin, moving from the eastern part of India to the western part.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's identify the origin state/region for each art form:

- (A) Bhaona: A traditional folk theatre form from Assam (North-East India).

- (B) Jatra: A popular folk theatre form of West Bengal and neighbouring states (Eastern India).

- (C) Ramlila: A dramatic folk re-enactment of the life of Rama, widely performed across North India, especially Uttar Pradesh (North/Central India).

- (E) Maach: The traditional theatre form of Madhya Pradesh (Central India).

- (D) Dashavatar: A folk theatre form from the Konkan region, particularly Maharashtra and Goa (Western India).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Arranging these regions geographically from East to West gives the following sequence:

1. Assam (Bhaona - A)

2. West Bengal (Jatra - B)

3. Uttar Pradesh (Ramlila - C)

4. Madhya Pradesh (Maach - E)

5. Maharashtra/Goa (Dashavatar - D)

The correct sequence of art forms is (A), (B), (C), (E), (D).
Quick Tip: For geography-based art and culture questions, having a mental map of India and associating key cultural elements (dances, festivals, art forms) with their states is crucial. Creating a state-wise list of cultural heritage can be an effective study method.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The concept of sustainability, particularly in the context of human development, refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It is about inter-generational equity.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Continuity in the availability of opportunities: This is a core tenet of sustainability. It means that the opportunities for a good life available to the current generation should not diminish for future generations. This statement is correct.

- (B) Each future generation must have higher opportunities (At least double)...: This is an incorrect interpretation. Sustainability is about ensuring non-declining opportunities. While development aims for growth, sustainability itself does not mandate a specific rate of increase like "doubling." It is about maintaining at least the same level of opportunities. This statement is incorrect.

- (C) All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future: This statement accurately reflects the principle of prudent resource management inherent in sustainability. It implies that current consumption should not deplete the capital stock (natural, financial, human) available for the future. This statement is correct.

- (D) Each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations: This is another way of expressing the core idea of inter-generational equity, similar to statement (A). It is a fundamental aspect of sustainability. This statement is correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ideas correctly representing sustainability are (A), (C), and (D).
Quick Tip: The key idea behind sustainability is "equity over time" or "inter-generational equity." Any statement that reflects the idea of not harming the future for the benefit of the present is likely correct. Be wary of statements that set extreme or specific quantitative targets (like "doubling"), as sustainability is more of a qualitative principle.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a factual question asking for the key individual behind the establishment of the Indian National Congress (INC).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Indian National Congress was founded in December 1885. The initiative for its formation was taken by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired Scottish civil servant. He served as the first General Secretary of the INC. While early Indian leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, and Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee (who was the first president) were crucial, A. O. Hume is widely regarded as the founder of the organization.

The other options were prominent leaders of the INC at later stages but were not involved in its founding in 1885.


Step 3: Final Answer:

A. O. Hume was the founder of the Indian National Congress.
Quick Tip: Remember key dates and personalities for major historical organizations. For the INC, remember: Founder - A.O. Hume; Year - 1885; First President - W.C. Bonnerjee. This helps avoid confusion with other important leaders.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem requires setting up and solving a system of two linear equations based on the given conditions.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Let the larger number be L and the smaller number be S.

From the problem statement, we can form two equations:

1. \( L - S = 16 \)

2. \( \frac{1}{3}S = \frac{1}{7}L + 4 \)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

From Equation 1, we can express S in terms of L:
\[ S = L - 16 \]
Now, substitute this expression for S into Equation 2:
\[ \frac{1}{3}(L - 16) = \frac{1}{7}L + 4 \]
To eliminate the fractions, we can multiply the entire equation by the least common multiple of 3 and 7, which is 21:
\[ 21 \times \left(\frac{1}{3}(L - 16)\right) = 21 \times \left(\frac{1}{7}L\right) + 21 \times 4 \] \[ 7(L - 16) = 3L + 84 \] \[ 7L - 112 = 3L + 84 \]
Now, solve for L:
\[ 7L - 3L = 84 + 112 \] \[ 4L = 196 \] \[ L = \frac{196}{4} = 49 \]
The larger number is 49.

We can find the smaller number: \( S = 49 - 16 = 33 \).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The larger number is 49. We can verify the conditions: The difference is \( 49 - 33 = 16 \). One-third of the smaller is \( \frac{33}{3} = 11 \). One-seventh of the larger is \( \frac{49}{7} = 7 \). The difference is \( 11 - 7 = 4 \). Both conditions are satisfied.
Quick Tip: After solving, always plug your results back into the original problem statement to verify that they meet all the given conditions. This helps catch any calculation errors.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a work and time problem. We first need to find the total time required to complete the job and then find the remaining time.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

If a fraction of work is done in a certain time, we can calculate the time needed for the remaining fraction of work.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Method 1: Find total time first

The man completes \( \frac{5}{8} \) of the job in 10 days.

To find the time to complete the whole job (1 job), we can set up a proportion:
\[ Time for whole job = \frac{Days taken}{Fraction of work done} = \frac{10}{\frac{5}{8}} = 10 \times \frac{8}{5} = 2 \times 8 = 16 days \]
The total time to complete the job is 16 days.

He has already worked for 10 days.
\[ More days needed = Total time - Time worked = 16 - 10 = 6 days \]

Method 2: Calculate remaining work

Fraction of work completed = \( \frac{5}{8} \)

Fraction of work remaining = \( 1 - \frac{5}{8} = \frac{3}{8} \)

We know that \( \frac{5}{8} \) of the work takes 10 days.

Let's find the time taken for \( \frac{1}{8} \) of the work:
\[ Time for \frac{1}{8} work = \frac{10 days}{5} = 2 days \]
Now, calculate the time for the remaining \( \frac{3}{8} \) of the work:
\[ Time for \frac{3}{8} work = 3 \times (Time for \frac{1}{8} work) = 3 \times 2 = 6 days \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The man will take 6 more days to complete the job.
Quick Tip: Pay close attention to the wording. The question asks for "how many more days," not the "total number of days." This is a common trap in competitive exams.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Average speed is calculated as the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. It is not the simple arithmetic average of the speeds.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Average Speed = \frac{Total Distance}{Total Time} \]
Where Total Time is the sum of the time taken for each stretch, and \( Time = \frac{Distance}{Speed} \).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The car travels 4 stretches, each of 3 km.

Total Distance = \( 4 \times 3 km = 12 km \).


Now, let's calculate the time taken for each stretch:

- Time for 1st stretch (\(t_1\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{10 kmph} = \frac{3}{10} hours \)

- Time for 2nd stretch (\(t_2\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{20 kmph} = \frac{3}{20} hours \)

- Time for 3rd stretch (\(t_3\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{30 kmph} = \frac{3}{30} hours \)

- Time for 4th stretch (\(t_4\)) = \( \frac{3 km}{60 kmph} = \frac{3}{60} hours \)


Total Time = \( t_1 + t_2 + t_3 + t_4 \)
\[ Total Time = \frac{3}{10} + \frac{3}{20} + \frac{3}{30} + \frac{3}{60} \]
Find a common denominator, which is 60:
\[ Total Time = \frac{3 \times 6}{60} + \frac{3 \times 3}{60} + \frac{3 \times 2}{60} + \frac{3}{60} = \frac{18 + 9 + 6 + 3}{60} = \frac{36}{60} hours \] \( \frac{36}{60} \) hours = 0.6 hours.


Now, calculate the average speed:
\[ Average Speed = \frac{12 km}{0.6 hours} = \frac{120}{6} = 20 kmph \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The average speed of the car for the entire journey is 20 kmph.
Quick Tip: When the distance covered is the same for different speeds, the average speed is the Harmonic Mean of the individual speeds. For speeds \(s_1, s_2, ..., s_n\), the average speed is \( \frac{n}{\frac{1}{s_1} + \frac{1}{s_2} + ... + \frac{1}{s_n}} \). Here, it would be \( \frac{4}{\frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{60}} = \frac{4}{(6+3+2+1)/60} = \frac{4}{12/60} = \frac{4 \times 60}{12} = 20 \).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the time when the traffic lights will change simultaneously again, we need to find the least common multiple (LCM) of their individual time intervals. The LCM gives the smallest amount of time after which all events will coincide.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Calculate the LCM of 48, 72, and 108.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

First, find the prime factorization of each number:
\[ 48 = 2 \times 24 = 2 \times 2 \times 12 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 6 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 3 = 2^4 \times 3^1 \] \[ 72 = 2 \times 36 = 2 \times 2 \times 18 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 9 = 2^3 \times 3^2 \] \[ 108 = 2 \times 54 = 2 \times 2 \times 27 = 2^2 \times 3^3 \]
The LCM is the product of the highest power of each prime factor present in the numbers.
\[ LCM(48, 72, 108) = 2^4 \times 3^3 \] \[ LCM = 16 \times 27 = 432 seconds \]
This means the lights will change together every 432 seconds.

Now, convert 432 seconds into minutes and seconds:
\[ \frac{432}{60} = 7 with a remainder of 12 \]
So, 432 seconds = 7 minutes and 12 seconds.

The initial simultaneous change was at 8:20:00 hours.

The next simultaneous change will be after 7 minutes and 12 seconds.

New time = 8 hours : 20 minutes : 00 seconds + 7 minutes : 12 seconds

New time = 8:27:12 hours.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The traffic lights will again change simultaneously at 8:27:12 hours.
Quick Tip: For problems involving events that repeat at different intervals (like bells ringing, lights flashing, or runners on a circular track), the key to finding when they coincide is always to calculate the LCM of their time intervals.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A multiplier is a factor that we can multiply a number by to get a new value after a percentage change. To increase a number, the multiplier must be greater than 1.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The multiplier for an increase of P% is given by the formula:
\[ Multiplier = 1 + \frac{P}{100} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let the original number be N.

The increase is 25.3% of N, which can be written as:
\[ Increase = \frac{25.3}{100} \times N = 0.253 \times N \]
The new number is the original number plus the increase:
\[ New Number = N + (0.253 \times N) \]
Factoring out N, we get:
\[ New Number = N \times (1 + 0.253) \] \[ New Number = N \times 1.253 \]
The multiplier is the value in the parenthesis.

Alternatively, using the formula with P = 25.3:
\[ Multiplier = 1 + \frac{25.3}{100} = 1 + 0.253 = 1.253 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The multiplier to increase a given number by 25.3% is 1.253.
Quick Tip: To quickly find the multiplier for any percentage change:

- For a P% \(\textbf{increase}\), the multiplier is \(1 + \frac{P}{100}\).
- For a P% \(\textbf{decrease}\), the multiplier is \(1 - \frac{P}{100}\). For example, a 15% decrease would have a multiplier of \(1 - 0.15 = 0.85\).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the originator of the Kindergarten system of education. This is a foundational concept in the history of early childhood education.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Friedrich Froebel (1782-1852): He was a German pedagogue who laid the foundation for modern education based on the recognition that children have unique needs and capabilities. He created the concept of "Kindergarten," which translates to "children's garden," in 1837. His approach emphasized play, creativity, social interaction, and hands-on learning as the primary means for children's development.

- Maria Montessori: She was an Italian physician and educator known for the Montessori method of education, which is a different, child-centered educational approach.

- Herbert Spencer and T.P. Nunn: They were influential philosophers of education but are not associated with the creation of the Kindergarten system.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Kindergarten system was contributed by Friedrich Froebel.
Quick Tip: Associate key educational philosophies with their founders. Remember "Froebel = Kindergarten" (play-based learning) and "Montessori = Montessori Method" (child-directed activity with specialized educational materials).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about a key recommendation of India's National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. NEP 2020 is a comprehensive framework for transforming education in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Multilingualism: NEP 2020 strongly promotes multilingualism and the power of language in education. It emphasizes the use of the mother tongue or local/regional language as the medium of instruction, at least until Grade 5, and encourages students to learn multiple languages. This is seen as a way to enhance cognitive skills and preserve cultural heritage.

- Monolingualism: This is the opposite of what NEP 2020 recommends.

- Standardization of Curriculum and Assessment: NEP 2020 moves away from rigid standardization. It advocates for a flexible, holistic, multidisciplinary, and competency-based curriculum and assessment system that focuses on critical thinking and conceptual understanding rather than rote learning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The National Education Policy 2020 recommends Multilingualism.
Quick Tip: The core principles of NEP 2020 are Flexibility, Multidisciplinarity, and Multilingualism. Any option that reflects these principles is likely to be a key recommendation of the policy.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires an understanding of the psychological definition of learning. Learning is a fundamental concept in educational psychology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In psychology, learning is defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior, knowledge, capability, or attitude that is acquired through experience. Let's analyze the statements based on this definition:

- (A) Learning modifies behaviour: This is correct. The change acquired through learning is manifested through a modification in the organism's behavior or potential for behavior.

- (B) Learning is permanent change: This is also considered correct in the context of the definition. The change is "relatively permanent," meaning it is not fleeting or temporary like changes due to fatigue or mood. It lasts for a considerable period.

- (C) Learning is temporary: This is incorrect. It contradicts the 'permanent' aspect of the definition.

- (D) Learning does not change behaviour: This is incorrect as it contradicts the very essence of learning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct statements are (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Remember the standard definition of learning: a \(\textbf{relatively permanent change}\) in \(\textbf{behavior}\) resulting from \(\textbf{experience}\). This definition helps to quickly evaluate statements about the nature of learning.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the full form of the acronym OMR, which is a common term associated with multiple-choice question (MCQ) examinations.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

OMR stands for Optical Mark Recognition (sometimes also called Optical Mark Reading). It is the technology of capturing human-marked data from document forms such as surveys and tests. An OMR scanner detects the presence or absence of a mark in a predefined position (like a bubble or a square) on a paper sheet. This technology allows for the rapid and accurate processing of large volumes of answer sheets.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct full form of OMR is Optical Mark Recognition.
Quick Tip: Think of the process: A machine uses an optical sensor (\(\textbf{Optical}\)) to read the marks you make (\(\textbf{Mark}\)) and understands or identifies them (\(\textbf{Recognition}\)). This helps in remembering the full form.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question pertains to Bloom's Taxonomy, which categorizes learning objectives into three domains. Understanding these domains is crucial in educational psychology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Cognitive domain: Involves mental skills and knowledge. It deals with thinking, knowing, understanding, and problem-solving.

- Psychomotor domain: Involves physical movement, coordination, and motor skills. It deals with the physical 'doing' aspect of learning.

- Affective domain: Involves feelings, emotions, values, appreciation, motivations, and attitudes. It represents the emotional and value-based aspect of learning. Attitudes, values, and interests are the core components of this domain.

- Functional domain: This is not one of the three primary domains of learning in Bloom's Taxonomy.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Attitudes, values, and interests are reflected by the Affective domain.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the three domains is the "KSA" model or "Head, Hands, Heart":

- \(\textbf{Cognitive}\) = Knowledge (Head)
- \(\textbf{Psychomotor}\) = Skills (Hands)
- \(\textbf{Affective}\) = Attitude (Heart)

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching different teaching methods with their key requirement or defining characteristic for successful implementation.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Lecturing: The primary goal of a lecture is to convey information effectively. This requires the content to be presented clearly and in an easy-to-understand manner. This matches with (III) Content delivery in a lucid language.

- (B) Discussion in group: This method thrives on active participation and interaction among students, typically focused on a specific topic or theme. This matches with (IV) Theme based interaction among participants.

- (C) Brainstorming: The essence of brainstorming is to generate a high volume of ideas freely, without immediate judgment or criticism. This matches with (II) Production of large number of ideas.

- (D) Programmed instructional procedure: This is a self-instructional method where subject matter is broken down into small, sequential steps (frames). The learner proceeds through these steps and receives immediate feedback. This matches with (I) Small step presentation with feedback provided.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I).
Quick Tip: For matching questions, focus on the core purpose of each item in the first list. What is the single most important thing for a lecture to succeed? Clarity. For brainstorming? Idea quantity. This helps in making the correct connections.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the incorrect statement among the given options about the qualities of a good communicator and their relation to teaching.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statements A, B, and C describe positive attributes that contribute to effective communication. A good sense of humour can make communication more engaging, wide reading knowledge provides depth and context, and command over language is fundamental for clarity and precision. These are all plausible characteristics of a good communicator.

- Statement D claims that a good communicator cannot be a good teacher. This is a strong, negative, and absolute statement. Effective communication is one of the most essential skills for a teacher. A teacher needs to clearly explain complex concepts, engage students, provide feedback, and create a positive learning environment, all of which rely heavily on good communication skills. Therefore, being a good communicator is a prerequisite for being a good teacher, not a barrier. The statement is logically false.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The statement "A good communicator cannot be a good teacher" is not correct.
Quick Tip: In "which is NOT correct" questions, be highly skeptical of statements that use absolute words like "cannot," "always," "never," or "all." Such sweeping generalizations are often incorrect because exceptions usually exist.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the factor from the given options that does not have a direct impact on the process and effectiveness of teaching.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the impact of each factor:

- (B) Class room activities that encourage teaching and learning: These are at the heart of the teaching process. The choice and implementation of activities directly determine how well students learn. This strongly impacts teaching.

- (C) Teacher's subject knowledge: A teacher's deep understanding of the subject matter is a fundamental prerequisite for effective teaching. Without it, a teacher cannot explain concepts clearly or answer student questions accurately. This strongly impacts teaching.

- (D) Learning through experience: This is a pedagogical principle (experiential learning) that a teacher can adopt. The methods a teacher uses, based on principles like this, directly impact the teaching style and its effectiveness. This impacts teaching.

- (A) Socio-economic background of teachers: While a teacher's background shapes their personal experiences and perspectives, it is not a direct pedagogical factor that determines teaching quality. In an ideal and professional setting, a teacher's effectiveness should depend on their skills, knowledge, and methods, not their socio-economic status. Among the given options, this is the factor that is least directly related to the act of teaching and should not, in principle, impact it.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The socio-economic background of teachers is the factor that does not directly impact teaching, unlike the other pedagogical factors listed.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between direct pedagogical factors (what a teacher knows and does in the classroom) and indirect or personal factors. Subject knowledge, teaching methods, and classroom activities are direct pedagogical factors. A teacher's personal background is an indirect factor.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks which teaching method is most effective in ensuring active student participation. This requires comparing teacher-centric and student-centric methods.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Lecture method: This is a classic teacher-centric method where the teacher talks and students listen. It generally involves passive learning with minimal student participation.

- Textbook method: This method relies on students reading from a textbook. While it can be an individual activity, it is not inherently interactive or participatory in a group sense.

- Deductive method: This is a teacher-led approach where the teacher presents a general rule and students apply it to specific examples. It can involve some participation, but it is still highly structured by the teacher.

- Discussion and Demonstration method: This combination is highly student-centric. The discussion component requires students to actively voice their opinions, ask questions, and interact with peers and the teacher. The demonstration component, when done interactively, allows students to observe, question, and even participate in the demonstration. This method promotes active learning and ensures maximum involvement.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Maximum participation of students is possible through the Discussion and Demonstration method.
Quick Tip: To assess student participation, ask yourself: "Who is doing most of the talking and acting?" In a lecture, it's the teacher. In a discussion, it's the students. Methods that shift the focus from the teacher to the students tend to maximize participation.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange a set of steps for a problem-solving or research process in a logical sequence. Although labeled "Deductive Method," the steps provided more closely resemble the general scientific method of inquiry.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The logical flow of a scientific or systematic inquiry proceeds as follows:

1. (B) Identification and perception of problem: The very first step in any inquiry is to recognize and clearly identify the problem or question that needs to be addressed.

2. (A) Definition of technical terms and making assumptions: Once the problem is identified, the next step is to clarify the scope and language. This involves defining key terms to ensure everyone has a common understanding and stating any assumptions that frame the inquiry.

3. (C) Formulation of hypothesis: Based on the understanding of the problem and the defined terms, a tentative explanation or a testable prediction, known as a hypothesis, is formulated.

4. (D) Testing and Verification of Hypothesis: The final step is to design and conduct an experiment or gather evidence to test the hypothesis and determine whether it is supported or refuted.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct logical order of the steps is (B), (A), (C), (D).
Quick Tip: Think of any scientific investigation as a story. It always starts with a question or a problem (Identification). Then, you set the rules of the story (Definitions/Assumptions). Next, you make a guess about the ending (Hypothesis). Finally, you find out if your guess was right (Testing).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to match educational activities/concepts in List-I with their most appropriate description or characteristic in List-II.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Homework: This is a task assigned to students to be completed outside the classroom. It is a form of learning that the student undertakes on their own. This matches well with (III) Individual Learning.

- (B) Project: A project is a more extensive task that often requires students to investigate a topic or solve a problem on their own or in small groups, applying their knowledge and skills. This promotes self-directed learning and aligns with (II) Independent Learning.

- (C) Examination: The primary purpose of an examination is to measure a student's knowledge and understanding of a subject. This is a form of formal evaluation. This matches with (IV) Assessment and Evaluation.

- (D) Punishment: This is a disciplinary tool used to control behavior, often involving a top-down imposition of a penalty. This approach is characteristic of an (I) Authoritarian style of classroom management.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is: (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I).
Quick Tip: Distinguish between related terms. 'Individual Learning' (like homework) can be a part of a teacher-directed curriculum, while 'Independent Learning' (like projects) implies more learner autonomy in planning and execution.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the educational philosopher who viewed schools as microcosms of society and education as a process of social and philosophical growth.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- John Dewey (1859-1952): He was a leading American philosopher, psychologist, and educational reformer. A key tenet of his philosophy, known as pragmatism or progressivism, was that education is not merely preparation for life, but is life itself. He argued that schools should be organized as "miniature communities" or social institutions where students learn through experience and interaction. For Dewey, education was inherently a philosophical process of inquiry, growth, and democratic living.

- Sigmund Freud was the founder of psychoanalysis.

- Jean Piaget was a developmental psychologist known for his theory of cognitive development.

- Howard Gardner is known for his theory of multiple intelligences.

While Piaget and Gardner are influential in education, Dewey is the one who most famously conceptualized the school as a social institution.


Step 3: Final Answer:

John Dewey explained school as a social institution and education as a philosophical process.
Quick Tip: Associate key thinkers with their "big ideas": Dewey = Learning by doing, Education for democracy; Piaget = Stages of cognitive development; Gardner = Multiple Intelligences; Freud = Psychoanalysis.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the most comprehensive and modern definition of teaching. It contrasts traditional views with contemporary pedagogical principles.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Options (A), (C), and (D) describe specific activities within the broader process of teaching. Delivering lectures, assessing students, and giving assignments are all parts of what a teacher does.

- Option (B), facilitating students to construct knowledge, represents the modern, constructivist view of teaching. In this view, the teacher is not just a dispenser of information but a guide or facilitator who creates an environment where students can actively build their own understanding. This is a more holistic and encompassing definition of the purpose of teaching. It implies that the other activities (lecturing, assessing, etc.) are tools used in service of this larger goal.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most accurate and modern conception of teaching is facilitating students to construct knowledge.
Quick Tip: Modern educational theory emphasizes a shift from "teacher-as-sage-on-the-stage" to "teacher-as-guide-on-the-side." Look for answers that reflect this student-centered, constructivist approach.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for which type of thinking language (in the form of words) is not an essential component.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Conceptual Thinking: This involves understanding and manipulating abstract ideas or concepts, which are almost always defined and represented by words (e.g., 'justice', 'democracy'). Language is crucial here.

- Associative thinking: This involves making connections between ideas. While associations can be visual or sensory, they are often linked and processed through language (e.g., 'cold' is associated with 'ice', 'winter').

- Perceptual thinking: This is the process of interpreting sensory information. While we often label our perceptions with words ('that is a red ball'), the initial act of perceiving (seeing the color and shape) is a direct sensory experience and does not strictly require language.

- Imaginative thinking: This is the ability to form new mental images and sensations that are not perceived through the senses. Imagination can be highly visual, auditory, or kinesthetic, operating without the need for words. For example, a musician can imagine a melody without thinking of its name, or an artist can visualize a painting. While language can be a tool for imagination (as in writing fiction), it is not a necessary component for all forms of it.

Between perceptual and imaginative thinking, imagination is more fundamentally independent of words. Perception is often quickly followed by linguistic labeling, but imagination can operate purely in the realm of images and feelings. Therefore, it is the best fit for the question.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The language of words is not necessary for imaginative thinking.
Quick Tip: Think about thinking without words. Can you picture a beach in your mind? That's imagination. Can you see the color of the screen you are reading? That's perception. Can you think about the concept of 'freedom'? That requires language. This helps differentiate the types of thinking.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the educationally sound and correct statement(s) among the given options. This requires evaluating each statement based on modern pedagogical principles.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Reward-Punishment is to maintain discipline: While rewards and punishments can be used for discipline, their primary goal in education should be to shape and motivate behavior towards learning, not just maintain control. Viewing it solely as a disciplinary tool is a narrow, behaviorist perspective that is often criticized. This statement is debatable and not the best pedagogical view.

- (B) Homework- is to keep students busy at home: This is an incorrect and poor justification for homework. The true purpose of homework should be to reinforce learning, practice skills, and encourage independent study, not simply to occupy a student's time.

- (C) Teaching aids - ease the teachers' work: This is another incorrect statement about the primary purpose. The main goal of teaching aids is to enhance student learning, make abstract concepts concrete, and cater to different learning styles. While they might make teaching more effective and sometimes easier, their primary purpose is learner-focused, not teacher-focused.

- (D) Project method is learner centric: This is a correct statement. The project method, advocated by thinkers like W. H. Kilpatrick (a follower of John Dewey), is a prime example of a learner-centric approach. It puts the student at the center of the learning process, encouraging them to actively explore, investigate, and construct knowledge based on their interests.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Only statement (D) is pedagogically correct.
Quick Tip: When evaluating educational statements, always prioritize the learner's perspective. The best pedagogical practices are those that focus on enhancing student learning and engagement (learner-centric) rather than on teacher convenience or simple classroom control.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching famous Indian literary works with their respective authors.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Ramayana: The ancient Sanskrit epic is traditionally attributed to the sage (IV) Valmiki.

- (B) Geetanjali: This is a collection of poems, "Gitanjali: Song Offerings," for which (I) Rabindranath Tagore won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.

- (C) Mahabharata: The other major Sanskrit epic of ancient India is traditionally attributed to (II) Vyasa.

- (D) Astapadi: The term 'Astapadi' refers to the lyrical compositions in the Gita Govinda, a 12th-century work composed by the poet (III) Jayadev.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is: (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III).
Quick Tip: For literature matching questions, start with the most famous pairs you know for certain (e.g., Ramayana-Valmiki, Mahabharata-Vyasa, Geetanjali-Tagore). This will often eliminate most incorrect options immediately.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to arrange the key stages of creating a theatrical play in the correct chronological order.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the logical flow of a production:

1. (A) Script: Everything begins with the written text of the play. The script is the foundation.

2. (B) Actors: Once there is a script, actors are cast to play the roles. They begin the rehearsal process.

3. (E) Composition: In a theatrical context, 'composition' can refer to the overall design and blocking (staging of actors, set design, lighting design, etc.). This creative and design phase happens after the script is available and actors are rehearsing.

4. (D) Technical Run through: This is one of the final stages of rehearsal. It's a full run of the show specifically to practice and integrate all the technical elements like lights, sound, set changes, and costumes with the actors' performance. It happens just before the final performances.

5. (C) Performance: This is the final step, where the fully rehearsed and technically prepared play is presented to an audience.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct logical sequence is: Script \(\rightarrow\) Actors\(\rightarrow\) Composition \(\rightarrow\) Technical Run through \(\rightarrow\) Performance. This corresponds to (A), (B), (E), (D), (C).
Quick Tip: Think of making a play like building a house. You start with the blueprint (\(\textbf{Script}\)), then bring in the workers (\(\textbf{Actors}\)), design the interior (\(\textbf{Composition}\)), check the plumbing and electricity (\(\textbf{Technical Run-through}\)), and finally, have the housewarming party (\(\textbf{Performance}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the correct starting sequence of the 12 poses (asanas) that constitute the Surya Namaskar (Sun Salutation) sequence in yoga.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The standard sequence of the first four poses in Surya Namaskar is as follows:

1. Pranamasana (Prayer Pose): The sequence begins by standing with palms joined in front of the chest in a prayer position. This is (D).

2. Hasta Uttanasana (Raised Arms Pose): From the prayer pose, the arms are raised overhead, and the body is stretched and slightly arched backward. This is (B).

3. Hasta Padasana (Hand to Foot Pose): From the raised arms pose, one bends forward from the waist, bringing the hands down to touch the feet or the floor. This is (C).

4. Ashwa Sanchalanasana (Equestrian Pose): From the hand-to-foot pose, one leg is pushed back, and the other knee is bent, resembling a rider on a horse. This is (A).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence of the given poses is Prayer Pose -> Raised Arms Pose -> Hand to Foot Pose -> Equestrian Pose. This corresponds to the order (D), (B), (C), (A).
Quick Tip: To remember the beginning of Surya Namaskar, think of a salutation: You start with a prayer (\(\textbf{Prayer Pose}\)), reach up to the sun (\(\textbf{Raised Arms Pose}\)), bow down to the earth (\(\textbf{Hand to Foot Pose}\)), and then step back into a lunge (\(\textbf{Equestrian Pose}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Agility is a component of physical fitness. The question asks to identify the primary abilities that combine to create agility. Agility is defined as the ability to change the body's position or direction quickly and efficiently, while maintaining control.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the components:

- (A) Speed: This is essential for agility. The change in direction must be rapid.

- (B) Balance: To change direction without falling or losing control, the body must maintain its center of gravity. Dynamic balance is crucial.

- (D) Co-ordination: This is the ability to use different parts of the body together smoothly and efficiently. Agility requires the coordinated action of limbs and core muscles to produce a fluid change of direction.

- (C) Endurance: This is the ability to sustain physical activity over a long period. While important for overall fitness and performance in sports, it is not a direct component of the definition of a single agile movement. A single quick change of direction does not primarily depend on endurance.

Therefore, agility is a combination of speed, balance, and co-ordination.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The abilities that combine to form agility are Speed (A), Balance (B), and Co-ordination (D).
Quick Tip: Think of an athlete dodging an opponent in a sport like football or basketball. They need to move \(\textbf{fast}\) (Speed), stay upright while turning (\(\textbf{Balance}\)), and have their feet and body work together seamlessly (\(\textbf{Co-ordination}\)).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the most accurate and holistic definition of Yoga.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Options A and B describe specific components of Yoga. Asanas (physical postures) and pranayama (breathing exercises) are important parts of Yoga practice, but they do not represent the entire philosophy. Defining Yoga by only one of its components is incomplete.

- Option C describes a potential esoteric aspect or a misconception about Yoga. While advanced practitioners (yogis) are sometimes associated with supernatural abilities (siddhis), this is not the goal or the essence of Yoga for the vast majority of practitioners. The primary purpose is self-realization and inner peace.

- Option D provides the most comprehensive and philosophically correct definition. The word "Yoga" itself is derived from the Sanskrit root "yuj," which means "to unite" or "to join." This refers to the union or integration of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness, and on a practical level, it means achieving a harmonious balance between the body, mind, and soul.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct conception about Yoga is that it is the harmony of body, mind, and soul.
Quick Tip: When asked for the 'correct conception' of a broad philosophical term like Yoga, look for the most holistic and encompassing definition. Avoid answers that focus on just one specific practice (like asanas) or a sensationalized aspect (like supernatural powers).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the current official international organization that governs the sport of badminton. Organizations for sports often have acronyms, and sometimes their names change over time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- BWF stands for the Badminton World Federation. It is the international governing body for the sport of badminton, recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

- FIBA is the International Basketball Federation.

- IBA is the International Boxing Association.

- IBF stands for the International Badminton Federation. This was the former name of the governing body. In 2006, the organization was rebranded as the Badminton World Federation (BWF).

Since the question asks for the current governing body, BWF is the correct answer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The current international governing body for Badminton is the BWF (Badminton World Federation).
Quick Tip: In questions about organizations, pay close attention to keywords like "current" or "former." The IBF was the correct name before 2006, which makes it a common distractor in exams. Always stay updated with the current names of major international bodies.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the renowned musician who was honored with the title "Aftab-e-Mausiki," which translates to "Sun of Music."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The title "Aftab-e-Mausiki" was conferred upon Ustad Faiyaz Khan (1886–1950), an outstanding Indian classical vocalist of the Agra gharana.

- He received this prestigious title from the Maharaja of Mysore, Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV, in 1938 in recognition of his immense contribution to Indian classical music.

- Tansen was a legendary musician in Emperor Akbar's court and was given the title "Miyan."

- Bade Ghulam Ali Khan and Haridas were also celebrated musicians but are not associated with this specific title.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Ustad Faiyaz Khan was the recipient of the title "Aftab-e-Mausiki".
Quick Tip: For questions on art and culture, creating a list of prominent artists and the titles or honors they received can be very useful. These titles often reflect the artist's stature and are frequently asked in exams.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a technical question from the theory of Indian classical music. It asks about the relationship between two fundamental concepts: 'Grama' and 'Murchhana'.

- A Grama is an ancient parent scale or tuning system, consisting of seven 'swaras' (notes).

- A Murchhana is a melodic scale or mode that is derived from a Grama by shifting the tonic note ('Sa') to each of the other notes of that Grama in succession.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Since a Grama is defined as having seven notes, we can create a new scale starting from each of these seven notes.

By shifting the starting point (the tonic) through all seven notes of the parent scale (Grama), we can produce exactly seven Murchhanas.

For example, if the notes of a Grama are S, R, G, M, P, D, N, the Murchhanas will be:

1. S R G M P D N

2. R G M P D N S

3. G M P D N S R

... and so on, for all seven notes.

The number 21 refers to the total number of Murchhanas from the three ancient Gramas combined (7 from Shadja Grama, 7 from Madhyama Grama, and 7 from Gandhara Grama), but the question asks for the number produced from each Grama.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The number of Murchhanas produced from each Grama is 7.
Quick Tip: In music theory questions, carefully read what is being asked. "From each" is different from "in total." The number of Murchhanas is directly tied to the number of notes in the parent Grama, which is seven.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the string instruments from the given list. Musical instruments are classified based on how they produce sound. String instruments, or chordophones, produce sound through the vibration of strings.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's classify each instrument:

- (A) Guitar: This is a popular instrument that produces sound by plucking its strings. It is a string instrument.

- (B) Mridangam: This is a classical South Indian double-headed drum. It is a percussion instrument (specifically, a membranophone, where sound is produced by a vibrating membrane).

- (C) Sitar: This is a well-known Indian classical instrument. It produces sound from plucked strings. It is a string instrument.

- (D) Cymbal: This consists of two brass plates that are struck together. It is a percussion instrument (specifically, an idiophone, where the body of the instrument itself vibrates to produce sound).


Step 3: Final Answer:

From the list, the Guitar and the Sitar are string instruments. Therefore, the correct option is (A) and (C) only.
Quick Tip: To easily classify instruments, think about the primary source of sound:

- \(\textbf{Strings:}\) Sitar, Violin, Guitar
- \(\textbf{Air/Wind:}\) Flute, Shehnai
- \(\textbf{Membrane/Skin:}\) Tabla, Mridangam, Dholak
- \(\textbf{Solid Body:}\) Ghatam, Cymbal, Manjira

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the primary reason or significance behind the establishment of the International Day of Yoga.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The International Day of Yoga was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2014, following a proposal by India.

- The primary objective of this day is to raise worldwide awareness about the numerous benefits of practicing yoga. This includes its positive impact on physical, mental, and spiritual well-being. The day aims to encourage people around the world to adopt yoga into their lives. Therefore, its significance is to promote Yoga globally.

- The other options are incorrect as they are too narrow and restrictive. The day is not exclusively for launching equipment, conducting competitions, or honoring instructors. While these activities may take place on Yoga Day, they are not its core significance. The main goal is the global promotion of yoga as a practice for holistic health.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The significance of International Yoga Day is to promote Yoga globally.
Quick Tip: When answering questions about the significance of international days or initiatives, look for the broadest and most inclusive answer. Options containing restrictive words like "only" are often incorrect because these events usually have a wide-ranging purpose.