CUET PG Atmospheric Science 2025 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Atmospheric Science 2025 exam was conducted between 13th May and 3rd June. Post-exam, candidates can download the question paper, answer key, and detailed solution PDFs. The test focuses on topics like meteorology, climatology, atmospheric physics, weather forecasting, climate change, and remote sensing.

There will be 75 questions, to be solved in 60 minutes, for a total of 300 marks. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for each incorrect one.

CUET PG Atmospheric Science 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Atmospheric Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Atmospheric Science 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

If are two matrices, then which one of the following is incorrect:

  • (A) AB is defined
  • (B) BA is not defined
  • (C) A + B is not defined
  • (D) A - B is defined

Question 2:

If \(f(t)\) is the inverse Laplace transform of \( F(s) = \frac{s+1+s^{-2}}{s^2-1} \), then \(f(t)\) is

  • (A) \(e^t + \sinh t + t\)
  • (B) \(e^t + \sinh t - t\)
  • (C) \(e^t - \sinh t + t\)
  • (D) \(e^t + \cosh t - t\)

Question 3:

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. In a skew-symmetric matrix, all diagonal elements are zero.
B. A square matrix is called a diagonal matrix if all its non-diagonal elements are one.
C. If the determinant of the matrix is zero, then the matrix is known as non-singular matrix.
D. The product of a matrix A and its adjoint is equal to unit matrix multiplied by the determinant A.

  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A, B and D only
  • (D) C and D only

Question 4:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (C) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 5:

Let \(y(t)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(y''+4y=0\), \(y(0)=1\), \(y'(0)=-6\), then the Laplace transformation \(Y(s)\) of the solution is equal to

  • (A) \( \frac{s}{s^2+4} + \frac{2}{s^2+4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{s-6}{s^2-4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{s+6}{s^2+4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{s-6}{s^2+4} \)

Question 6:

Let \( g(x) = x^2 \), \( -\pi \le x \le \pi \). The coefficient of \( \cos(3x) \) in the Fourier series expansion of \(g(x)\) is:

  • (A) \( -4/9 \)
  • (B) \( -1/4 \)
  • (C) \( 1/16 \)
  • (D) \( 9/16 \)

Question 7:

The imaginary part of the complex number \( \log(1+i) \) is

  • (A) \(\pi/4\)
  • (B) \(\pi/2\)
  • (C) \(3\pi/2\)
  • (D) \(3\pi/4\)

Question 8:

In a sports event of football and basketball, 132 students registered to play football and 93 students registered in basketball. If the total number of students registered in the event is 200, then the number of students registered in both the games is:

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 32
  • (D) 27

Question 9:

Let \((\alpha, \beta)\) be the centre and \(\gamma\) be the radius of the circle \(x^2+y^2-6x-2y-15=0\), then the value of \((\alpha^2+\beta^2+\gamma^2)\) is:

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 35
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 42

Question 10:

The differential equation \( (1+3x^2y^2+\beta x^2y^4)dx + (2x^3y+2x^3y^3)dy = 0 \) will be exact differential equation if (assuming typos in original question are corrected as shown):

  • (A) \(\beta = -1/2\)
  • (B) \(\beta = 3\)
  • (C) \(\beta = 2\)
  • (D) \(\beta = 3/2\)

Question 11:

For two correlated data series X and Y, which formula for \( Var(X-Y) \) is correct?

  • (A) \( Var(X)+Var(Y) \)
  • (B) \( Var(X)-Var(Y) \)
  • (C) \( Var(X)+Var(Y) - 2Cov(X,Y) \)
  • (D) \( Var(X)-Var(Y) - 2Cov(X,Y) \)

Question 12:

Identify the median class for the following grouped data:

  • (A) 20-25
  • (B) 25-30
  • (C) 5-10
  • (D) 15-20

Question 13:

The arithmetic mean of 10 items is 5. If 5 is added to each of the first seven items and 3 is subtracted from each of the last three items, then the mean of the new data series is:

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 7.6
  • (D) 6.7

Question 14:

The coefficient of correlation of the above two data series will be equal to _____

  • (A) +1
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) -0.5

Question 15:

While writing a computer programming code, it was found that Team A incurred 250 errors in a code of 1000 lines while Team B incurred 300 errors in a code of 800 lines. In order to determine whether Team A has performed better than Team B, a statistical hypothesis was set and tested. Then the value of the test statistic is:

  • (A) -5.72
  • (B) -2.96
  • (C) 1.99
  • (D) 3.42

Question 16:

Process (in Operating System) is a:

  • (A) reusable resource
  • (B) variable timer
  • (C) program in execution
  • (D) allocation and de-allocation of memory

Question 17:

In an operating system, the "deadlock" occurs when:

  • (A) Two or more processes are waiting for each other to release resources
  • (B) A process is executed beyond its allocated time slice
  • (C) System runs out of physical memory
  • (D) When a process entered into running state

Question 18:

Which type of memory is used to store the BIOS (BASIC INPUT OUTPUT SYSTEM) in a computer?

  • (A) ROM
  • (B) DRAM
  • (C) Flash Memory
  • (D) SRAM

Question 19:

In the context of programming the term 'debugging' refers to:

  • (A) writing the code
  • (B) documenting the code
  • (C) finding and fixing errors in the code
  • (D) running the code

Question 20:

Which one of the following is a machine-dependent language?

  • (A) Java
  • (B) C++
  • (C) Assembly language
  • (D) Python

Question 21:

What is the primary purpose of a function?

  • (A) creating reusable code blocks
  • (B) documenting the code
  • (C) testing the code
  • (D) coding of conditional statements

Question 22:

Which of the following statements are true?

A. Address bus connects CPU to memory modules for data access.
B. System bus connects CPU to I/O devices, cache etc.
C. System bus is usually classified as data bus, address bus and control bus.
D. The width of data bus has no connection with the amount of the data that can be transferred simultaneously.

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 23:

In uni-processor operating system, the term "multiprogramming" means?

  • (A) Multiple programs are executed with multiple processors
  • (B) Multiple programs are executed by a single processor by dividing CPU time between these programs
  • (C) In uni-processor operating system, multiprogramming is not possible
  • (D) Multiple processors are available in uni-processor operating system to support multiprogramming

Question 24:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Question 25:

Arrange the following capacities of storage units according to their sizes (smallest to largest)

A. 1 GB
B. 1 MB
C. 1 TB
D. 1 KB

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) D, B, A, C
  • (C) D, B, C, A
  • (D) A, B, D, C

Question 26:

The brilliant colors in thin films of soap are due to _____.

  • (A) interference
  • (B) diffraction
  • (C) scattering
  • (D) dispersion

Question 27:

The mean free path of the molecules of a gas at 25°C is \(2.63 \times 10^{-5}\) meter. If the radius of the molecule is \(2.56 \times 10^{-10}\) meter, find the pressure of the gas. [\(k = 1.38 \times 10^{-23}\) Joule/K]

  • (A) 1 mm of mercury
  • (B) 10 mm of mercury
  • (C) 20 mm of mercury
  • (D) 50 mm of mercury

Question 28:

The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius 12000 km around a planet is 3 hours. Obtain the period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius 48000 km around the same planet.

  • (A) 6 hours
  • (B) 12 hours
  • (C) 24 hours
  • (D) 36 hours

Question 29:

The first law of thermodynamics is the statement of

  • (A) conservation of heat
  • (B) conservation of work
  • (C) conservation of momentum
  • (D) conservation of energy

Question 30:

A body P at 1000 K emits maximum energy at a wavelength of 3000 nm. If another body Q emits maximum energy at wavelength 550 nm, what will be the temperature of that body Q?

  • (A) 5454 K
  • (B) 6250 K
  • (C) 3125 K
  • (D) 4000 K

Question 31:

Choose the CORRECT statement about the behavior of product PV against pressure for real gas. [where P is pressure and V is volume]

  • (A) Below Boyle's temperature, the value of PV first increases with increase in pressure, reaches a maximum value at a particular temperature and then begins to decrease
  • (B) Above Boyle's temperature, the value of PV continuously decreases with increase in pressure.
  • (C) Below Boyle's temperature, the value of PV first decreases with increase in pressure, reaches a minimum value at a particular temperature and then begins to increase.
  • (D) Above Boyle's temperature, the value of PV is almost constant with increase in pressure.

Question 32:

The appearance of the blue color of the sky and reddish color of the sun at sunrise and sunset is due to which phenomenon of light?

  • (A) Interference
  • (B) Reflection
  • (C) Refraction
  • (D) Scattering

Question 33:

At what rate will energy be emitted from a black body whose filament has a temperature of 3600 K, if at 1800 K the energy is emitted at the rate of 16W?

  • (A) 32 W
  • (B) 64 W
  • (C) 128 W
  • (D) 256 W

Question 34:

Two satellites A and B go around a planet in circular orbits having radii of 4R and R, respectively. If the velocity of satellite A is 3v, the velocity of satellite B will be:

  • (A) 18v
  • (B) 12v
  • (C) 6v
  • (D) 3v

Question 35:

The electric field at a point inside a charged hollow spherical conductor is:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) constant but not zero
  • (C) depends on the distance from centre
  • (D) depends on the charge on the conductor

Question 36:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

Question 37:

A light beam traveling in the x-direction is described by the magnetic field \( B_z = 2 \times 10^{-6} \sin \omega(t - x/c) \) Tesla. The value of the maximum electric field is

  • (A) 200 V/m
  • (B) 300 V/m
  • (C) 600 V/m
  • (D) 800 V/m

Question 38:

Arrange the following minerals in decreasing order of their hardness as per Mohs scale.

A. Orthoclase
B. Calcite
C. Corundum
D. Fluorite

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) C, A, D, B
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 39:

In the Bowen's reaction series, which of the following mineral(s) is/are crystallized prior to amphibole?

A. Biotite
B. Clinopyroxene
C. K-feldspar
D. Forsterite

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) B only
  • (D) B and D only

Question 40:

The oldest crust on the earth is found at ______.

  • (A) mid oceanic ridge
  • (B) subduction zones
  • (C) sea floor spreading
  • (D) transform plate boundary

Question 41:

The Tethys sea existed between ______ continents.

  • (A) Madagascar and Africa
  • (B) Africa and Eurasia
  • (C) Australia and Asia
  • (D) Antarctica and Australia

Question 42:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 43:

Arrange the following according to the depth of occurrence starting from deep to shallow.

A. Continental slope
B. Continental shelf
C. Abyssal plains
D. Continental rise

  • (A) A, C, B, D
  • (B) C, D, A, B
  • (C) D, C, B, A
  • (D) B, A, D, C

Question 44:

Lithosphere is characterized by _____.

A. A thickness of about 100 km
B. Average density of 3.6 g/cc
C. Silicon and aluminum as dominant constituents
D. Basalt as the dominant rock

  • (A) A and C only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A, B, and D only
  • (D) A and D only

Question 45:

The amount of water vapor generally increases with increase in air temperature. The amount of water vapor in the air at a particular temperature is referred to as

  • (A) Super saturation
  • (B) Relative humidity
  • (C) Absolute humidity
  • (D) Saturation ratio

Question 46:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Question 47:

The effective average solar flux incident to a level surface at top of the atmosphere is ______.

  • (A) 124 W/m\(^2\)
  • (B) 242 W/m\(^2\)
  • (C) 89 W/m\(^2\)
  • (D) 342 W/m\(^2\)

Question 48:

The most common mineral used in U-Pb radiometric dating is ______.

  • (A) Biotite
  • (B) Zircon
  • (C) Hornblende
  • (D) Quartz

Question 49:

Arrange the following significant salts in decreasing order of their percentage in the oceans:

A. MgCl\(_2\)
B. CaSO\(_4\) (assuming typo for CuSO\(_4\))
C. MgSO\(_4\)
D. NaCl

  • (A) D, B, C, A
  • (B) D, A, C, B
  • (C) D, C, A, B
  • (D) D, B, A, C

Question 50:

Which of the following were constituents of the famous classical London smog?

A. Smoke
B. Fog
C. SO\(_2\)
D. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
E. Ozone

  • (A) A, B and E only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B, C and E only

Question 51:

Choose the correct statements about corals?

A. Corals are invertebrate animals a few millimeter in diameter.
B. Corals are sensitive to heat stress and ocean pH change.
C. Corals provide algae with stable environment, CO\(_2\) and nutrients.
D. Corals bleach to get rid themselves of pathogens.

  • (A) C and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A and B only
  • (D) A, B, C and D only

Question 52:

Choose the incorrect statement.

  • (A) Tornado is the smallest, most violent weather disturbance that occur on the earth.
  • (B) Tornadoes are defined as high pressure center where winds moves into high pressure and move upward.
  • (C) Tornadoes are of a dark color due to the dominance of dust, sand and condensed moisture.
  • (D) Tornadoes are funnel shaped storms.

Question 53:

Arrange the following greenhouse gases in decreasing order of their contribution to total global warming.

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chlorofluoro carbon
D. Methane

  • (A) C, A, B, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) A, B, C, D
  • (D) B, D, A, C

Question 54:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-II

Question 55:

According to Koppen's climatic classification, ______ climate prevails in the Great Plains of India.

  • (A) Af
  • (B) Am
  • (C) BS
  • (D) Cwg

Question 56:

Arrange the following in increasing order of their wavelength.

A. gamma radiations
B. X rays
C. UV radiations
D. microwave
E. Infrared radiations

  • (A) E, D, C, B, A
  • (B) B, A, C, D, E
  • (C) A, B, C, E, D
  • (D) A, B, C, D, E

Question 57:

Half life of a radioactive material during radioactive decay is ______.

  • (A) directly proportional to the initial concentration
  • (B) inversely proportional to the initial concentration and directly proportional to decay constant
  • (C) directly proportional to the final concentration and inversely proportional to decay constant
  • (D) independent of the initial concentration and inversely proportional to decay constant

Question 58:

The amount of groundwater is estimated to be ______.

  • (A) nearly equal to the amount of surface water on the planet Earth
  • (B) less than the amount of surface water on the planet Earth
  • (C) twice the amount of surface water on the planet Earth
  • (D) twenty five times the amount of surface water on the planet Earth

Question 59:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
  • (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Question 60:

Choose the correct statements.

A. Dissolution of oxygen in surface water changes with change in temperature during extreme summer and winters.
B. Dissolved oxygen and BOD have inverse relationship in sewage water.
C. Chemical oxygen demand is always higher than BOD in sewage water.
D. More saline water will have less conductivity.

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A, B and C only

Question 61:

Which of the following is dominantly responsible for buffering capacity of natural water?

  • (A) carbonate ions
  • (B) dissolved oxygen
  • (C) bicarbonate ions
  • (D) phosphate ions

Question 62:

Soil acidity can be introduced by ______.

A. Mine tailings rich in pyrites
B. Extraction of Al from its ore
C. Use of nitrogen-rich fertilizers
D. Use of limestone

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A, B and C only
  • (D) A, B, C and D

Question 63:

Match LIST I with LIST II

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 64:

Arrange the following soil horizons as they occur from top to bottom in a typical soil profile.

A. A horizon
B. B horizon
C. R horizon
D. O horizon
E. C horizon

  • (A) A, B, C, D, E
  • (B) D, A, B, E, C
  • (C) C, E, B, D, A
  • (D) A, B, E, C, D

Question 65:

Choose the correct statement.

  • (A) Excessive nutrient inputs to lakes maintains the high dissolved oxygen of the lakes.
  • (B) Lakes with extensive algal blooms will have the good health of the lakes.
  • (C) Eutrophic lakes have high BOD.
  • (D) Oligotrophic lakes have high BOD compared to eutrophic lakes.

Question 66:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Nitrogen is one of the top five elements found in plants and animals.
  • (B) Industrial and biological nitrogen fixation require the input of substantial amount of energy.
  • (C) Nitrogen in organisms is only found in nucleic acids, i.e. DNA and RNA.
  • (D) Nitrogen is plentiful in the earth's atmosphere in relatively inert forms.

Question 67:

Condensation of water vapors in atmosphere actually ______.

  • (A) cools the surrounding
  • (B) sometime cools and sometimes warms the surrounding
  • (C) warms the surrounding
  • (D) neither cools nor warms the surrounding

Question 68:

The Prime Minister of India introduced mission LiFE in UN climate change conference of parties (COP) ______ held at ______ in the year ______.

  • (A) COP-26, Paris, 2021
  • (B) COP-26, Glasgow, 2020
  • (C) COP-29, Dubai, 2022
  • (D) COP-26, Glasgow, 2021

Question 69:

Which of the following are criteria pollutants under national ambient air quality standards?

A. PM\(_2.5\)
B. NO\(_x\)
C. Lead
D. Methane
E. Sulphur dioxide

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and E only
  • (D) A, B, C and E only

Question 70:

Which one of the following states in India is known to have the highest Chromium pollution of water and soils due to tanning industry?

  • (A) Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Maharashtra

Question 71:

Arrange the following layers of atmosphere starting from earth's surface.

A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Tropopause
D. Stratopause
E. Mesosphere

  • (A) A, B, C, D, E
  • (B) A, D, B, C, E
  • (C) A, C, B, D, E
  • (D) A, C, B, E, D

Question 72:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 73:

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 74:

Mohorovicic discontinuity is commonly defined as the depth at which ______.

  • (A) the p-wave velocity decreases to 5.6 km/sec
  • (B) the p-wave velocity exceeds 7.6 km/sec
  • (C) the s-wave velocity exceeds 3.57 km/sec
  • (D) the p and s waves exceed 5.6 km/sec and 3.57 km/sec respectively

Question 75:

Ozone in the stratosphere captures ______ and protects us from harmful effects.

  • (A) UV A, UV B and UV C radiations completely
  • (B) UV A and UV B radiations completely
  • (C) UV B partially and UV C radiations completely
  • (D) UV A completely and UV B and UV C radiations partially

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