CUET PG Animal Science Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 30, 2025

The CUET PG Animal Science 2025 exam will be held between 13th May and 3rd June. Once the exam is over, candidates can access the question paper, answer key, and PDF solutions online. The test is designed to evaluate understanding of animal physiology, reproductive biology, genetics, anatomy, veterinary science, and applied zoology.

Candidates will need to answer 75 questions in 60 minutes, with the standard CUET PG marking scheme: +4 for correct, -1 for incorrect.

CUET PG Animal Science 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Animal Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Animal Science 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The process of converting ammonia into nitrate by soil bacteria is called as:

  • (A) Mineralization
  • (B) Nitrification
  • (C) Nitrogen fixation
  • (D) Immobilization

Question 2:

How many percent of the dry weight of a plant is contributed by carbon?

  • (A) 75
  • (B) 35
  • (C) 45
  • (D) 25

Question 3:

Jhuming is a practice of rice cultivation in __________ part of India.

  • (A) Eastern
  • (B) Western
  • (C) Northern
  • (D) Southern

Question 4:

The layer of atmosphere influencing earth's climate is:

  • (A) Mesosphere
  • (B) Stratosphere
  • (C) Thermosphere
  • (D) Troposphere

Question 5:

The dairy cattle breed that originated in Montgomery district of Pakistan is:

  • (A) Sahiwal
  • (B) Red Sindhi
  • (C) Tharparkar
  • (D) Gir

Question 6:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (B) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (C) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (D) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

Question 7:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (B) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 8:

Which of the following diseases in poultry is caused by fungus

  • (A) Aspergillosis
  • (B) Botulism
  • (C) Erysipelas
  • (D) Infectious Bursal Disease

Question 9:

Which one of these is the most common symptom of Bird's Fino?

  • (A) Unilateral paralysis
  • (B) Gasping and trembling
  • (C) Watery discharges
  • (D) Pox lesions

Question 10:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (C) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

Question 11:

Choose an incorrect statement about Green House Effect.

  • (A) Life on earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.
  • (B) The emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.
  • (C) The greenhouse effect maintains the earth's temperature.
  • (D) Increased emission of greenhouse gases emissions into the atmosphere is linked to global warming.

Question 12:

The predominant gas present in the atmosphere is:

  • (A) Propane
  • (B) Butane
  • (C) Carbon monoxide
  • (D) Carbon dioxide

Question 13:

The newly registered breed of chicken "Hansli" belongs to the state of:

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Uttarakhand
  • (C) Punjab
  • (D) West Bengal

Question 14:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (C) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (D) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

Question 15:

Herpes virus is known to cause which disease in poultry:

  • (A) Ranikhet
  • (B) Avian Influenza
  • (C) Infectious Bronchitis
  • (D) Marek's disease

Question 16:

Which among the following diseases is non-infectious in origin:

  • (A) Rabies
  • (B) Listeriosis
  • (C) Trichomoniasis
  • (D) Milk fever

Question 17:

Choose the correct statements:

(A) Panting is the sequelae of food and mouth disease
(B) Hydrophobia is a characteristic of Rabies
(C) Penicillin act against Peptydoglycan
(D) Zebra marking in the intestines is the pathognomonic lesion of Rinderpest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 18:

If the values of two variables move in the same direction, then the correlation is said to be:

  • (A) Positive
  • (B) Negative
  • (C) Linear
  • (D) Non Linear

Question 19:

If the mean and mode of some data are 6 & 12 respectively, its median will be:

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 10

Question 20:

An example of an organelle within an organelle is:

  • (A) Ribosome
  • (B) Lysosome
  • (C) Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • (D) Golgi complex

Question 21:

Diploid (2n) number of chromosomes in chicken is:

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 54
  • (C) 78
  • (D) 80

Question 22:

During the zygotene stage of prophase-I:

  • (A) Two homologous chromosomes attract each other
  • (B) Two sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes form tetrad
  • (C) Exchange of genetic material takes place
  • (D) Chiasmata formation takes place

Question 23:

An intra-allelic gene interaction where one pair of genes masks the expression of another non-allelic gene is termed as:

  • (A) Dominance
  • (B) Polygenetic Traits
  • (C) Multiple allelism
  • (D) Epistasis

Question 24:

Egg Production in poultry is an example of:

  • (A) Sex limited Trait
  • (B) Sex linked Trait
  • (C) Sex Influenced Trait
  • (D) Determined Trait

Question 25:

Rhode Island Red is a breed of:

  • (A) Duck
  • (B) Pigeon
  • (C) Chicken
  • (D) Turkey

Question 26:

Panmixia is the other name of:

  • (A) Random Mating
  • (B) Phenotypic assortative mating
  • (C) Phenotypic disassortative mating
  • (D) Genetic assortative mating

Question 27:

In selling heterozygosity is lost by how much in each generation.

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) 1/3
  • (C) 1/2
  • (D) 2/3

Question 28:

What is true about inbreeding?

(A) Inbreeding helps to eliminate lethal characters.
(B) Inbreeding depression negatively impacts productivity.
(C) Inbreeding increases Hybrid Viguor.
(D) Inbreeding increases genetic variance between lines.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 29:

Species crossing is also called as:

  • (A) Panmixia
  • (B) Line breeding
  • (C) Species hybridization
  • (D) Grading up

Question 30:

MOET stands for

  • (A) Mid ovulation embryo technique
  • (B) Multiple ovulation embryo technique
  • (C) Mid ovulation embryo transfer
  • (D) Multiple ovulation and embryo transfer

Question 31:

Which among the following is not an economic trait in sheep:

  • (A) Fibre diameter
  • (B) Lactation yield
  • (C) Twinning percentage
  • (D) Prolificacy

Question 32:

Capon is:

  • (A) Laying hen
  • (B) Chickens with testicles
  • (C) Chicken without testicles
  • (D) Moulting hen

Question 33:

The incubation period of Quail is:

  • (A) 24 days
  • (B) 21 days
  • (C) 18 days
  • (D) 15 days

Question 34:

The act of laying in poultry is called:

  • (A) Viviposition
  • (B) Vivipary
  • (C) Ovovivipary
  • (D) Oviposition

Question 35:

Crazy chick disease in chicken is caused by the deficiency of

  • (A) Vitamin E
  • (B) Vitamin B12
  • (C) Vitamin A
  • (D) Vitamin B2

Question 36:

An example of Mendelian disorder is:

  • (A) Klinefelter's syndrome
  • (B) Night blindness
  • (C) Down's Syndrome
  • (D) Turner's syndrome

Question 37:

The number of bar bodies in case of 47, XXXX is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 38:

AUG codes for:

  • (A) Methionine
  • (B) Lysine
  • (C) Glycine
  • (D) Alanine

Question 39:

Stop codons are:

(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UGA
(D) CUG

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 40:

ZW - ZZ type of chromosomes are found in:

  • (A) Insects
  • (B) Humans
  • (C) Butterflies
  • (D) Birds

Question 41:

In chicken disease Fowl Cholera is caused by

  • (A) Pasteurella multocida
  • (B) Salmonella pullorum
  • (C) Salmonella gallinarum
  • (D) Salmonella typhimurium

Question 42:

Steps in extension teaching include

(A) Attention
(B) Desire
(C) Action
(D) Satisfaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 43:

The mating system used to combine good qualities of two breeds is called as:

  • (A) Line breeding
  • (B) Close breeding
  • (C) Out crossing
  • (D) Cross breeding

Question 44:

The newly registered breed of cattle "Sanchori" belongs to

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Meghalaya
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Manipur

Question 45:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 46:

When the number of pages exceeds 50, it is called a

  • (A) Pamphlet
  • (B) Bulletin
  • (C) Book
  • (D) News report

Question 47:

Steps in preparation of Radio talks are

(A) Selection of topic
(B) Collection of facts
(C) Presentation
(D) Preparing outline and script

Choose the most appropriate option:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 48:

Intestinal coccidiosis in poultry is caused mainly by

  • (A) E. necatrix
  • (B) E. tenella
  • (C) E. brunetti
  • (D) E. acervulina

Question 49:

An accurate representation of quantitative data is:

  • (A) Chart
  • (B) Flash cards
  • (C) Flannel board
  • (D) Graph

Question 50:

A scenic representation of the original is called

  • (A) Specimen
  • (B) Model
  • (C) Diorama
  • (D) Map

Question 51:

A group of knowledgeable persons to whom some matter is referred for detailed examination is called a

  • (A) Organisation
  • (B) Committee
  • (C) Panchayat
  • (D) Trainer

Question 52:

Providing small loans that are repaid within short periods of time used by low income individuals is called

  • (A) Credit
  • (B) Microfinance
  • (C) Capital
  • (D) Bonus

Question 53:

The Land to lab programme (LLP) was launched by the ICAR in

  • (A) 1979
  • (B) 1992
  • (C) 1949
  • (D) 2001

Question 54:

Thematic mapping is an application of

  • (A) Geographic Information Systems
  • (B) The Web
  • (C) Interactive multimedia
  • (D) Information technology

Question 55:

A system of signals for communication is called as

  • (A) Channel
  • (B) Message
  • (C) Code
  • (D) Speech

Question 56:

The study of the behavior of an economic system as a whole is called

  • (A) Microeconomics
  • (B) Macroeconomics
  • (C) Budget
  • (D) Expenditure

Question 57:

In economics, all those goods that satisfy human wants constitute

  • (A) Wealth
  • (B) Value
  • (C) Commodity
  • (D) Supply

Question 58:

A voluntary organization that promotes the economic interests of its members and all the members have equal rights is called

  • (A) Joint stock company
  • (B) Partnership organization
  • (C) Co-operative society
  • (D) Public sector company

Question 59:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 60:

The capital which can be put to alternative uses is called

  • (A) Fixed capital
  • (B) Working capital
  • (C) Sunk capital
  • (D) Floating capital

Question 61:

When one male cock is mated to 15-20 hens, the method of mating is called as:

  • (A) Artificial insemination
  • (B) Stud mating
  • (C) Flock mating
  • (D) Cross - breeding

Question 62:

Curled toe paralysis in chicks is caused by deficiency of

  • (A) Thiamine
  • (B) Biotin
  • (C) Riboflavin
  • (D) Calcium & Phosphorus

Question 63:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 64:

The process of raising capital to carry out various activities in marketing is called

  • (A) Risk bearing
  • (B) Financing
  • (C) Grading
  • (D) Standardization

Question 65:

The sum total of all the activities related to crop raising or setting up livestock or fisheries units on a piece of land is known as

  • (A) Middle management
  • (B) Farm management
  • (C) Resource management
  • (D) Operative management

Question 66:

_____ are the most suitable sanitizers for the meat industries.

  • (A) Chlorine based sanitizers
  • (B) Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
  • (C) Peroxides
  • (D) Ozone

Question 67:

Antemortem examination of food animals should be done _____ hours prior to slaughter.

  • (A) 12 hours
  • (B) 24 hours
  • (C) 48 hours
  • (D) 72 hours

Question 68:

HACCP principles include

(A) Conduct a hazard analysis
(B) Determine the CCP's
(C) Establish the critical limits
(D) Food manufacturing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 69:

Application of high pressures around 650 MPa in food processing to reduce the microbial load is called

  • (A) Pasteurization
  • (B) Emulsification
  • (C) Pascalisation
  • (D) Fermentation

Question 70:

To determine proper pasteurization of milk, the test commonly used is

  • (A) Phosphatase test
  • (B) Rosalic acid test
  • (C) MBRT
  • (D) a-amylase test

Question 71:

The sequence of steps in poultry slaughtering units includes

(A) Stunning
(B) Scalding
(C) Bleeding
(D) Evisceration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 72:

The main component of egg yolk is

  • (A) Carbohydrates
  • (B) Lipids
  • (C) Proteins
  • (D) Vitamins

Question 73:

Streptococcus agalactiae and Streptococcus uberis are common causative agents of

  • (A) Enteritis
  • (B) Mastitis
  • (C) Pneumonia
  • (D) Endocarditis

Question 74:

Young chickens that are usually 6-10 weeks of age with a dressed weight of 1.13 kg or more are called

  • (A) Capon
  • (B) Broilers
  • (C) Rooster
  • (D) Light fowl

Question 75:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

The CUET PG Animal Science 2025 exam will be held between 13th May and 3rd June. Once the exam is over, candidates can access the question paper, answer key, and PDF solutions online. The test is designed to evaluate understanding of animal physiology, reproductive biology, genetics, anatomy, veterinary science, and applied zoology.

Candidates will need to answer 75 questions in 60 minutes, with the standard CUET PG marking scheme: +4 for correct, -1 for incorrect.

CUET PG Animal Science 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG Animal Science Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CUET PG Animal Science 2025 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The process of converting ammonia into nitrate by soil bacteria is called as:

  • (A) Mineralization
  • (B) Nitrification
  • (C) Nitrogen fixation
  • (D) Immobilization

Question 2:

How many percent of the dry weight of a plant is contributed by carbon?

  • (A) 75
  • (B) 35
  • (C) 45
  • (D) 25

Question 3:

Jhuming is a practice of rice cultivation in __________ part of India.

  • (A) Eastern
  • (B) Western
  • (C) Northern
  • (D) Southern

Question 4:

The layer of atmosphere influencing earth's climate is:

  • (A) Mesosphere
  • (B) Stratosphere
  • (C) Thermosphere
  • (D) Troposphere

Question 5:

The dairy cattle breed that originated in Montgomery district of Pakistan is:

  • (A) Sahiwal
  • (B) Red Sindhi
  • (C) Tharparkar
  • (D) Gir

Question 6:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (B) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (C) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (D) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

Question 7:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (B) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 8:

Which of the following diseases in poultry is caused by fungus

  • (A) Aspergillosis
  • (B) Botulism
  • (C) Erysipelas
  • (D) Infectious Bursal Disease

Question 9:

Which one of these is the most common symptom of Bird's Fino?

  • (A) Unilateral paralysis
  • (B) Gasping and trembling
  • (C) Watery discharges
  • (D) Pox lesions

Question 10:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (C) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

Question 11:

Choose an incorrect statement about Green House Effect.

  • (A) Life on earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.
  • (B) The emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.
  • (C) The greenhouse effect maintains the earth's temperature.
  • (D) Increased emission of greenhouse gases emissions into the atmosphere is linked to global warming.

Question 12:

The predominant gas present in the atmosphere is:

  • (A) Propane
  • (B) Butane
  • (C) Carbon monoxide
  • (D) Carbon dioxide

Question 13:

The newly registered breed of chicken "Hansli" belongs to the state of:

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Uttarakhand
  • (C) Punjab
  • (D) West Bengal

Question 14:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (C) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (D) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

Question 15:

Herpes virus is known to cause which disease in poultry:

  • (A) Ranikhet
  • (B) Avian Influenza
  • (C) Infectious Bronchitis
  • (D) Marek's disease

Question 16:

Which among the following diseases is non-infectious in origin:

  • (A) Rabies
  • (B) Listeriosis
  • (C) Trichomoniasis
  • (D) Milk fever

Question 17:

Choose the correct statements:

(A) Panting is the sequelae of food and mouth disease
(B) Hydrophobia is a characteristic of Rabies
(C) Penicillin act against Peptydoglycan
(D) Zebra marking in the intestines is the pathognomonic lesion of Rinderpest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 18:

If the values of two variables move in the same direction, then the correlation is said to be:

  • (A) Positive
  • (B) Negative
  • (C) Linear
  • (D) Non Linear

Question 19:

If the mean and mode of some data are 6 & 12 respectively, its median will be:

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 10

Question 20:

An example of an organelle within an organelle is:

  • (A) Ribosome
  • (B) Lysosome
  • (C) Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • (D) Golgi complex

Question 21:

Diploid (2n) number of chromosomes in chicken is:

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 54
  • (C) 78
  • (D) 80

Question 22:

During the zygotene stage of prophase-I:

  • (A) Two homologous chromosomes attract each other
  • (B) Two sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes form tetrad
  • (C) Exchange of genetic material takes place
  • (D) Chiasmata formation takes place

Question 23:

An intra-allelic gene interaction where one pair of genes masks the expression of another non-allelic gene is termed as:

  • (A) Dominance
  • (B) Polygenetic Traits
  • (C) Multiple allelism
  • (D) Epistasis

Question 24:

Egg Production in poultry is an example of:

  • (A) Sex limited Trait
  • (B) Sex linked Trait
  • (C) Sex Influenced Trait
  • (D) Determined Trait

Question 25:

Rhode Island Red is a breed of:

  • (A) Duck
  • (B) Pigeon
  • (C) Chicken
  • (D) Turkey

Question 26:

Panmixia is the other name of:

  • (A) Random Mating
  • (B) Phenotypic assortative mating
  • (C) Phenotypic disassortative mating
  • (D) Genetic assortative mating

Question 27:

In selling heterozygosity is lost by how much in each generation.

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) 1/3
  • (C) 1/2
  • (D) 2/3

Question 28:

What is true about inbreeding?

(A) Inbreeding helps to eliminate lethal characters.
(B) Inbreeding depression negatively impacts productivity.
(C) Inbreeding increases Hybrid Viguor.
(D) Inbreeding increases genetic variance between lines.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 29:

Species crossing is also called as:

  • (A) Panmixia
  • (B) Line breeding
  • (C) Species hybridization
  • (D) Grading up

Question 30:

MOET stands for

  • (A) Mid ovulation embryo technique
  • (B) Multiple ovulation embryo technique
  • (C) Mid ovulation embryo transfer
  • (D) Multiple ovulation and embryo transfer

Question 31:

Which among the following is not an economic trait in sheep:

  • (A) Fibre diameter
  • (B) Lactation yield
  • (C) Twinning percentage
  • (D) Prolificacy

Question 32:

Capon is:

  • (A) Laying hen
  • (B) Chickens with testicles
  • (C) Chicken without testicles
  • (D) Moulting hen

Question 33:

The incubation period of Quail is:

  • (A) 24 days
  • (B) 21 days
  • (C) 18 days
  • (D) 15 days

Question 34:

The act of laying in poultry is called:

  • (A) Viviposition
  • (B) Vivipary
  • (C) Ovovivipary
  • (D) Oviposition

Question 35:

Crazy chick disease in chicken is caused by the deficiency of

  • (A) Vitamin E
  • (B) Vitamin B12
  • (C) Vitamin A
  • (D) Vitamin B2

Question 36:

An example of Mendelian disorder is:

  • (A) Klinefelter's syndrome
  • (B) Night blindness
  • (C) Down's Syndrome
  • (D) Turner's syndrome

Question 37:

The number of bar bodies in case of 47, XXXX is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 38:

AUG codes for:

  • (A) Methionine
  • (B) Lysine
  • (C) Glycine
  • (D) Alanine

Question 39:

Stop codons are:

(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UGA
(D) CUG

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 40:

ZW - ZZ type of chromosomes are found in:

  • (A) Insects
  • (B) Humans
  • (C) Butterflies
  • (D) Birds

Question 41:

In chicken disease Fowl Cholera is caused by

  • (A) Pasteurella multocida
  • (B) Salmonella pullorum
  • (C) Salmonella gallinarum
  • (D) Salmonella typhimurium

Question 42:

Steps in extension teaching include

(A) Attention
(B) Desire
(C) Action
(D) Satisfaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 43:

The mating system used to combine good qualities of two breeds is called as:

  • (A) Line breeding
  • (B) Close breeding
  • (C) Out crossing
  • (D) Cross breeding

Question 44:

The newly registered breed of cattle "Sanchori" belongs to

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Meghalaya
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Manipur

Question 45:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  • (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 46:

When the number of pages exceeds 50, it is called a

  • (A) Pamphlet
  • (B) Bulletin
  • (C) Book
  • (D) News report

Question 47:

Steps in preparation of Radio talks are

(A) Selection of topic
(B) Collection of facts
(C) Presentation
(D) Preparing outline and script

Choose the most appropriate option:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 48:

Intestinal coccidiosis in poultry is caused mainly by

  • (A) E. necatrix
  • (B) E. tenella
  • (C) E. brunetti
  • (D) E. acervulina

Question 49:

An accurate representation of quantitative data is:

  • (A) Chart
  • (B) Flash cards
  • (C) Flannel board
  • (D) Graph

Question 50:

A scenic representation of the original is called

  • (A) Specimen
  • (B) Model
  • (C) Diorama
  • (D) Map

Question 51:

A group of knowledgeable persons to whom some matter is referred for detailed examination is called a

  • (A) Organisation
  • (B) Committee
  • (C) Panchayat
  • (D) Trainer

Question 52:

Providing small loans that are repaid within short periods of time used by low income individuals is called

  • (A) Credit
  • (B) Microfinance
  • (C) Capital
  • (D) Bonus

Question 53:

The Land to lab programme (LLP) was launched by the ICAR in

  • (A) 1979
  • (B) 1992
  • (C) 1949
  • (D) 2001

Question 54:

Thematic mapping is an application of

  • (A) Geographic Information Systems
  • (B) The Web
  • (C) Interactive multimedia
  • (D) Information technology

Question 55:

A system of signals for communication is called as

  • (A) Channel
  • (B) Message
  • (C) Code
  • (D) Speech

Question 56:

The study of the behavior of an economic system as a whole is called

  • (A) Microeconomics
  • (B) Macroeconomics
  • (C) Budget
  • (D) Expenditure

Question 57:

In economics, all those goods that satisfy human wants constitute

  • (A) Wealth
  • (B) Value
  • (C) Commodity
  • (D) Supply

Question 58:

A voluntary organization that promotes the economic interests of its members and all the members have equal rights is called

  • (A) Joint stock company
  • (B) Partnership organization
  • (C) Co-operative society
  • (D) Public sector company

Question 59:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Question 60:

The capital which can be put to alternative uses is called

  • (A) Fixed capital
  • (B) Working capital
  • (C) Sunk capital
  • (D) Floating capital

Question 61:

When one male cock is mated to 15-20 hens, the method of mating is called as:

  • (A) Artificial insemination
  • (B) Stud mating
  • (C) Flock mating
  • (D) Cross - breeding

Question 62:

Curled toe paralysis in chicks is caused by deficiency of

  • (A) Thiamine
  • (B) Biotin
  • (C) Riboflavin
  • (D) Calcium & Phosphorus

Question 63:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Question 64:

The process of raising capital to carry out various activities in marketing is called

  • (A) Risk bearing
  • (B) Financing
  • (C) Grading
  • (D) Standardization

Question 65:

The sum total of all the activities related to crop raising or setting up livestock or fisheries units on a piece of land is known as

  • (A) Middle management
  • (B) Farm management
  • (C) Resource management
  • (D) Operative management

Question 66:

_____ are the most suitable sanitizers for the meat industries.

  • (A) Chlorine based sanitizers
  • (B) Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
  • (C) Peroxides
  • (D) Ozone

Question 67:

Antemortem examination of food animals should be done _____ hours prior to slaughter.

  • (A) 12 hours
  • (B) 24 hours
  • (C) 48 hours
  • (D) 72 hours

Question 68:

HACCP principles include

(A) Conduct a hazard analysis
(B) Determine the CCP's
(C) Establish the critical limits
(D) Food manufacturing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 69:

Application of high pressures around 650 MPa in food processing to reduce the microbial load is called

  • (A) Pasteurization
  • (B) Emulsification
  • (C) Pascalisation
  • (D) Fermentation

Question 70:

To determine proper pasteurization of milk, the test commonly used is

  • (A) Phosphatase test
  • (B) Rosalic acid test
  • (C) MBRT
  • (D) a-amylase test

Question 71:

The sequence of steps in poultry slaughtering units includes

(A) Stunning
(B) Scalding
(C) Bleeding
(D) Evisceration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 72:

The main component of egg yolk is

  • (A) Carbohydrates
  • (B) Lipids
  • (C) Proteins
  • (D) Vitamins

Question 73:

Streptococcus agalactiae and Streptococcus uberis are common causative agents of

  • (A) Enteritis
  • (B) Mastitis
  • (C) Pneumonia
  • (D) Endocarditis

Question 74:

Young chickens that are usually 6-10 weeks of age with a dressed weight of 1.13 kg or more are called

  • (A) Capon
  • (B) Broilers
  • (C) Rooster
  • (D) Light fowl

Question 75:

Match the LIST I with LIST II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

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