CUET PG Public Health Question Paper 2024: Download Question paper with Answers PDF

Sahaj Anand's profile photo

Sahaj Anand

Content Writer | Journalism Graduate | Updated 3+ months ago

CUET PG Public Health Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG Public Health paper 2024 on from March 27 in Shift 3. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Public Health question paper.

CUET PG Public Health Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

CUET PG Public Health Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

CUET PG 2024 Public Health Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The way society is organised around the regulated ways people interrelate and organise social life is known as .... in sociology.

  1. Social Processes
  2. Social Structure
  3. Social Mobility
  4. Social Interaction
Correct Answer: (2) Social Structure.
View Solution

In sociology, Social Structure refers to the organised and regulated ways in which individuals and groups in society interact, interrelate, and organise their lives. It encompasses the norms, values, institutions, and relationships that create a framework for social life. This structure helps maintain order and predictability within society, distinguishing it from:

  • Social Processes: Changes and interactions within society.
  • Social Mobility: Movement within social hierarchies.
  • Social Interaction: Individual and group interactions.

Question 2:

Who introduced the concept of positivism to sociology?

  1. Aristotle
  2. Auguste Comte
  3. George Ritzer
  4. Karl Marx
Correct Answer: (2) Auguste Comte.
View Solution

Auguste Comte, a French philosopher, introduced the concept of positivism in sociology. He emphasized the use of scientific methods to study and understand society, proposing that sociology should rely on empirical evidence and observable facts.


Question 3:

According to the Social Conflict Model, ..... is the way in which changes occur in a society.

  1. Redefining the situation
  2. Promoting symbolic interactions
  3. Revolutions
  4. Implement tight legal measures
Correct Answer: (3) Revolutions.
View Solution

According to the Social Conflict Model, revolutions are the primary means through which significant changes occur in society. This model emphasizes how conflicts between different social groups, such as classes, often lead to revolutionary changes that reshape societal structures and systems.


Question 4:

Arrange the following sociological developments in a chronological order (oldest to the recent):

(A) Social Conflict Theory
(B) Positivism
(C) Multicultural Perspective
(D) Structural Functionalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (D), (B), (A), (C)
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (B), (A), (C).
View Solution

The correct chronological order of these sociological developments is:

  • Structural Functionalism (D): Developed during the late 19th and early 20th centuries to understand social stability and cohesion.
  • Positivism (B): Introduced by Auguste Comte in the early 19th century, emphasizing scientific observation and empirical data.
  • Social Conflict Theory (A): Popularized in the mid-20th century with contributions from Karl Marx and others, focusing on class struggles and societal inequalities.
  • Multicultural Perspective (C): Emerged more recently in the late 20th century, emphasizing diversity, cultural awareness, and pluralism.

Question 5:

A group is characterised by the following features:

(A) Interact regularly / Often
(B) Have some shared interest
(C) Develop some sense of belongingness
(D) Always live in the same geographical area

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (C) only
  2. (A), (B), and (D) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

The correct answer includes the following features:

  • Interact regularly / Often (A): Interaction is a key characteristic of a group. Members communicate frequently.
  • Have some shared interest (B): Groups typically form around common interests or goals.
  • Develop some sense of belongingness (C): Members feel connected and identify with the group.

However, living in the same geographical area (D) is not a necessary condition for a group, as groups can exist virtually or across distances.


Question 6:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Concept) List II (Explanation)
(A) Growth (I) Increase in the size of the body parts of the organism
(B) Development (II) The process by which an individual grows and changes throughout the life cycle
(C) Evolution (III) Species-specific changes over a long period of time
(D) Maturation (IV) The changes that follow an orderly sequence and are largely dictated by the genetic blueprint

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution
  • Growth (A): Refers to the increase in the size of the body parts or the organism (I).
  • Development (B): Involves the process by which an individual grows and changes throughout their life cycle (II).
  • Evolution (C): Refers to species-specific changes occurring over long periods of time (III).
  • Maturation (D): Describes the changes that follow an orderly sequence and are primarily dictated by genetic factors (IV).

Question 7:

In Psychology, ..... refers to reacting to another person’s feelings with an emotional response that is similar to their own feelings.

  1. Sympathy
  2. Empathy
  3. Coping
  4. Reassuring
Correct Answer: (2) Empathy.
View Solution
  • Empathy: Involves understanding and sharing another person’s emotional experience. It is the ability to put oneself in another’s position and feel what they are feeling.
  • Sympathy: Refers to feeling sorrow or pity for someone else’s misfortune but not necessarily sharing their emotional state.
  • Coping: Refers to managing stress and emotional strain, not specifically related to others’ feelings.
  • Reassuring: Involves comforting someone, often with words or actions, but does not imply sharing their feelings.

Question 8:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Explanation) List II (Concept/Theory)
(A) An overgeneralised and unverified prototype about a particular group (I) Stereotype
(B) The use of any psychological technique in the treatment of mental/psychological disorder (II) Psychotherapy
(C) A therapy assuming people have control over their behaviour and can make choices about their lives (III) Humanistic Therapy
(D) A relatively persistent and consistent behaviour pattern (IV) Trait

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution
  • (A) - (I): A stereotype is an overgeneralised and unverified belief about a group.
  • (B) - (II): Psychotherapy involves using psychological techniques for treatment.
  • (C) - (III): Humanistic Therapy assumes individuals can control their behaviour and make choices.
  • (D) - (IV): A trait refers to a consistent behaviour pattern across circumstances.

Question 9:

Sigmund Freud proposed three parts of personality as:

  1. Id-Ego-Superego
  2. Subconscious-Unconscious-Conscious
  3. Introvert-Extrovert-Complex
  4. Emotional-Cognitive-Affective
Correct Answer: (1) Id-Ego-Superego.
View Solution

Sigmund Freud introduced the tripartite structure of personality:

  • Id: Primitive, operates on pleasure principle.
  • Ego: Rational, mediates between id and reality.
  • Superego: Ethical, represents moral standards.

Question 10:

Consider the following statements and select the correct options:

(A) Proteins are made of amino acids.
(B) Essential amino acids are those which the body cannot synthesise in required amounts.
(C) Mid Day Meal Programme exclusively targets beggars and street vendors.
(D) ICDS scheme supports nutritional requirements of 0–6 years children.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (B), (C), and (D) only
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  4. (A) and (B) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
View Solution

(A): Correct, proteins are made of amino acids.
(B): Correct, essential amino acids must be obtained from diet.
(C): Incorrect, Mid Day Meal Programme targets school children.
(D): Correct, ICDS supports nutrition for young children and mothers.


Question 11:

The National Nutrition Policy was announced in .... and improving the purchasing power of the urban and rural poor was mentioned as an ....

  1. 1993, Indirect policy instrument
  2. 1998, Indirect policy instrument
  3. 1993, Direct short-term intervention
  4. 1978, Direct short-term intervention
Correct Answer: (1) 1993, Indirect policy instrument.
View Solution

The National Nutrition Policy was announced in 1993, identifying improving the purchasing power of the poor as an indirect policy instrument to enhance access to food and basic needs.


Question 12:

Arrange the following designs with respect to hypothesis testing/cause-effect relationship (least to highest):

(A) Experimental designs
(B) Exploratory qualitative designs
(C) Longitudinal designs
(D) Cross-sectional quantitative designs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (D), (C), (A)
  3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (D), (C), (A).
View Solution
  • (B): Least structured, explores phenomena.
  • (D): Cross-sectional quantitative, provides correlations.
  • (C): Longitudinal, tracks changes over time.
  • (A): Most structured for hypothesis testing.

Question 13:

Which among the following is NOT a limitation of experimental designs?

  1. Ethical issues with participants
  2. Small sample size
  3. Non-representative nature of the sample
  4. The ability to replicate the findings
Correct Answer: (4) The ability to replicate the findings.
View Solution

Replication is a strength of experimental designs due to controlled conditions, unlike ethical issues, small sample sizes, and non-representative samples, which are limitations.


Question 14:

...... in which the researcher studies an intact cultural group in a natural setting over a prolonged period by collecting primarily observational data.

  1. Phenomenological Research
  2. Experimental Research
  3. Ethnography
  4. Grounded Approach
Correct Answer: (3) Ethnography.
View Solution
  • Ethnography: Studies cultural groups in natural settings using observational data.
  • Phenomenological Research: Focuses on lived experiences.
  • Experimental Research: Controlled cause-effect studies.
  • Grounded Approach: Develops theories based on data.

Question 15:

Arrange the following steps in qualitative research in the order of occurrence (first to last):

(A) Develop rapport with the community
(B) Identify the problem
(C) Data analysis and report writing
(D) Participant observation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution
  • (B): Identify the problem.
  • (A): Develop rapport with the community.
  • (D): Participant observation for detailed data.
  • (C): Data analysis and report writing.

Question 16:

........... is an example of critical collaborative ethnography in which researchers conduct field research, but community participants are collaborators in the process, so as to develop practical solutions to the problem.

  1. Ethnography
  2. Participatory Action Research
  3. Social Constructivist Research
  4. Phenomenological Research
Correct Answer: (2) Participatory Action Research.
View Solution

Participatory Action Research (PAR) is a research methodology emphasizing collaboration between researchers and community participants. This approach merges research with action to foster meaningful change while developing practical solutions to identified problems.


Question 17:

Arrange the following events in chronological order (oldest to the recent):

(A) Chadwick Sanitary Reforms
(B) Sustainable Development Goals
(C) Alma Ata Declaration
(D) Millennium Development Goals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B), (C), (D), (A).
  2. (A), (C), (D), (B).
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C).
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C), (D), (B).
View Solution

The correct chronological order is:

  • Chadwick Sanitary Reforms: Introduced in the mid-19th century to improve public health and sanitation.
  • Alma Ata Declaration: Adopted in 1978, emphasizing primary healthcare as essential for health for all.
  • Millennium Development Goals (MDGs): Launched in 2000 to address global development challenges.
  • Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Adopted in 2015, succeeding the MDGs with a broader framework for global development.

Question 18:

The unique features of public health are:

(A) Focus on population
(B) Organised community effort
(C) Inputs are drawn from different disciplines
(D) Evidence-based approach

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
View Solution

The unique features of public health include:

  • Focus on population: Addresses health issues at the population level rather than the individual level.
  • Organised community effort: Involves collective efforts to promote health and prevent diseases.
  • Inputs from multiple disciplines: Integrates knowledge from medicine, sociology, economics, and statistics.
  • Evidence-based approach: Uses scientific research to ensure effective outcomes.

Question 19:

AIDS is:

  1. Achieved Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
  2. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
  3. Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome
  4. Achieved Immuno Declining Syndrome
Correct Answer: (2) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
View Solution

AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome, caused by HIV. It attacks and weakens the immune system, making the body susceptible to infections and certain cancers.


Question 20:

Arrange the following National Programmes in the chronological order of their launching:

(A) Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme
(B) National Mental Health Programme
(C) RMNCH+A Programme
(D) National Programme for Control of Blindness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (D), (B), (A), (C)
  2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  3. (D), (C), (B), (A)
  4. (B), (C), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (1) (D), (B), (A), (C).
View Solution

The correct chronological order is:

  • National Programme for Control of Blindness (D): Launched in 1976.
  • National Mental Health Programme (B): Introduced in 1982.
  • Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (A): Launched in 1997.
  • RMNCH+A Programme (C): Started in 2013.

Question 21:

Which of the following are correct?

(A) AIDS is a non-communicable disease.
(B) The first test done to detect AIDS is ELISA test.
(C) Government of India launched National AIDS Control Programme in 1992.
(D) In India, the first HIV case was detected in 1986.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (B), (C) and (D) only.
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only.
  4. (A) and (B) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution

Explanation:

  • (A): Incorrect. AIDS is a communicable disease caused by HIV.
  • (B): Correct. ELISA is the first test used to detect HIV.
  • (C): Correct. The National AIDS Control Programme was launched in 1992.
  • (D): Correct. The first HIV case in India was detected in 1986.

Question 22:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Author/Expert) List II (Book Idea/Concept Proposed)
(A) CEA Winslow (I) Definition of Public Health
(B) Grotjahn (II) Social Medicine
(C) James Lind (III) A Treatise of the Scurvy
(D) John Snow (IV) On the Mode of Communication of Cholera
  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III).
View Solution
  • (A): Definition of Public Health (I).
  • (B): Social Medicine (II).
  • (C): A Treatise of the Scurvy (III).
  • (D): On the Mode of Communication of Cholera (IV).

Question 23:

The Indian Research Fund Association was later known as:

  1. ICMR
  2. NIMR
  3. All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health
  4. Indian Rural Health Institute
Correct Answer: (1) ICMR.
View Solution

The Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) was renamed as the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in 1949, becoming India's leading biomedical research institution.


Question 24:

Community diagnosis means:

  1. Quantifying and summarising the important health problems and their associated socio-demographic characteristics in a community.
  2. Priority-wise listing of the common diseases seen in a community.
  3. Summarising the standards of living and lifestyle factors in a community.
  4. Identifying diseases prevalent in a community and ranking it as per the community's priorities.
Correct Answer: (1) Quantifying and summarising the important health problems and their associated socio-demographic characteristics in a community.
View Solution

Community diagnosis involves collecting and analyzing data to understand health challenges and socio-demographic characteristics, guiding public health interventions.


Question 25:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Concept/Goal) List II (Component/Year)
(A) Primary Health Care Approach (I) Intersectoral Coordination
(B) National Health Policy (II) 2017
(C) Primary Level of Health Care (III) Sub-centre
(D) Health for All Goal (IV) 1978
  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III).
View Solution

The matches are:

  • (A):Intersectoral Coordination (II).
  • (B):2017 (IV).
  • (C):Sub-centre (I).
  • (D):1978 (III).

Question 26:

Which of the following statistical test is used for a bivariate analysis when both the variables are categorical?

  1. Unpaired t-test
  2. Paired t-test
  3. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
  4. Chi-square test
Correct Answer: (4) Chi-square test.
View Solution

The Chi-square test is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant association between two categorical variables. It is non-parametric, meaning it does not assume a normal distribution of data. The test compares the observed frequencies of data with the expected frequencies under the assumption of independence.

For example, if we want to check if gender is associated with a preference for a specific product, we could use a Chi-square test by creating a contingency table of observed and expected frequencies for the two variables.


Question 27:

Which of the following statistical test is most suited for a continuous variable where data is collected before and after an intervention?

  1. Unpaired t-test
  2. Paired t-test
  3. Chi-square test
  4. Standard deviation
Correct Answer: (2) Paired t-test.
View Solution

The paired t-test is designed to compare the means of two related groups, such as measurements taken before and after an intervention on the same subjects. It accounts for the dependency between data points in the two groups.

For instance, a paired t-test could be used to assess the impact of a training program by comparing participants' scores on a test before and after completing the program.


Question 28:

Which of the following graph is best suited to show the trend of events with time?

  1. Pie chart
  2. Scatter plot
  3. Histogram
  4. Line diagram
Correct Answer: (4) Line diagram.
View Solution

A line diagram is ideal for visualizing changes or trends in data over time. It connects individual data points with a line, allowing for a clear representation of fluctuations, increases, or decreases over a given period.

For example, a line diagram could be used to track daily temperatures over a month or sales figures over several years.


Question 29:

Quarantine in Public Health includes limitation of freedom of movement of which of the following groups?

  1. Patients currently suffering from infectious disease
  2. Patients who have been hospitalised
  3. Healthy individuals not exposed to disease
  4. Healthy individuals exposed to disease
Correct Answer: (4) Healthy individuals exposed to disease.
View Solution

Quarantine involves restricting the movement of healthy individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease but are not yet symptomatic. This preventive measure aims to reduce the risk of spreading the disease during the incubation period.

For instance, during the COVID-19 pandemic, people who had been in close contact with confirmed cases were quarantined to monitor for symptoms and prevent further transmission.


Question 30:

Which of the following is an anti-larval measure for mosquito control?

  1. Space spray
  2. Gambusia fish
  3. Insecticide impregnated bednets
  4. Mosquito repellant creams
Correct Answer: (2) Gambusia fish.
View Solution

Gambusia fish are small freshwater fish that are effective in controlling mosquito populations by feeding on their larvae in water bodies. This biological method is often used in stagnant water sources like ponds or drains to reduce mosquito breeding sites.

In contrast, other measures like space spray target adult mosquitoes, and bednets or repellants protect against mosquito bites rather than addressing larvae.


Question 31:

Pneumoconiosis is an occupational disease that affects:

  1. Heart
  2. Liver
  3. Lung
  4. Brain
Correct Answer: (3) Lung.
View Solution

Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease caused by prolonged inhalation of dust particles, such as silica, asbestos, or coal dust, in occupational settings. It leads to scarring of lung tissue and reduced lung function.

Industries like mining, construction, and quarrying are commonly associated with this disease. Preventive measures include protective equipment and effective workplace ventilation systems.


Question 32:

Which of the following is a nominal variable?

  1. Blood sugar level
  2. Temperature
  3. Mother-tongue
  4. Cost of a cup of tea
Correct Answer: (3) Mother-tongue.
View Solution

Nominal variables are categorical and lack an intrinsic order or ranking. "Mother-tongue" is an example, as it categorizes individuals based on their primary language, such as English, Hindi, or French.

In contrast, variables like blood sugar level and temperature are continuous and measurable.


Question 33:

The timeline to achieve WHO goal of ‘Health for All’ was set for the year:

  1. 1948
  2. 2000
  3. 2015
  4. 2030
Correct Answer: (2) 2000.
View Solution

The World Health Organization (WHO) established the "Health for All" goal during the Alma Ata Declaration in 1978. It aimed to achieve universal access to healthcare and acceptable levels of health globally by the year 2000, focusing on primary health care as the key strategy.


Question 34:

The first international conference on health promotion, which resulted in the proclamation of a Charter for Health Promotion, was held in 1986 at:

  1. Alma Ata
  2. Geneva
  3. Jakarta
  4. Ottawa
Correct Answer: (4) Ottawa.
View Solution

The first International Conference on Health Promotion was held in Ottawa, Canada, in 1986. This event led to the creation of the Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion, which emphasized enabling people to have control over their health and identified key areas like building healthy public policies and strengthening community action.


Question 35:

Noise pollution is measured in units of:

  1. Lux
  2. Decibels
  3. Candela
  4. mg/L
Correct Answer: (2) Decibels.
View Solution

Noise pollution is quantified using decibels (dB), which is a logarithmic unit for measuring sound intensity. Human hearing typically begins at 0 dB, while prolonged exposure to levels above 85 dB can cause hearing damage.

For example, normal conversation is around 60 dB, and a rock concert can exceed 120 dB.


Question 36:

What is the range in the following dataset? 42.50, 44, 38, 35.45

  1. 42 to 45
  2. 35 to 50
  3. 42 to 44
  4. 42 to 33
Correct Answer: (2) 35 to 50.
View Solution

The range of a dataset is calculated as the difference between the maximum and minimum values:

  • Maximum value: 44
  • Minimum value: 35.45

The range is therefore 35.45 to 44. Among the provided options, the closest range is 35 to 50.


Question 37:

What is the mode in the following dataset? 35, 44, 33, 35, 37, 44, 37, 35

  1. 37.5
  2. 36
  3. 37
  4. 35
Correct Answer: (4) 35.
View Solution

The mode of a dataset is the value that appears most frequently. Analyzing the given dataset:

  • 35: 3 times
  • 44: 2 times
  • 33: 1 time
  • 37: 2 times

Since 35 appears the most (3 times), the mode is 35.


Question 38:

Arrange the following global health initiatives from the oldest to the most recent:

(A) Sustainable Development Goals
(B) Primary Health Care
(C) Millennium Development Goals
(D) Health for All

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (D), (C), (A)
  3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
  4. (D), (B), (C), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (B), (C), (A).
View Solution

The correct chronological order is:

  • Health for All (D): Introduced in 1978 through the Alma Ata Declaration.
  • Primary Health Care (B): Proposed as the strategy to achieve "Health for All" in 1978.
  • Millennium Development Goals (C): Adopted in 2000 with a global focus on health and development.
  • Sustainable Development Goals (A): Launched in 2015 to replace the Millennium Development Goals and expand global health targets.

Question 39:

The stages in the life history of a mosquito are listed. Arrange them in order:

(A) Adult
(B) Egg
(C) Pupa
(D) Larva

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (C), (D), (A)
  3. (B), (D), (C), (A)
  4. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (D), (C), (A).
View Solution

The mosquito life cycle includes the following stages in order:

  • Egg: Laid on the surface of water.
  • Larva: Hatch into larvae, living in water and feeding on microorganisms.
  • Pupa: Transform into pupae, a transitional stage.
  • Adult: Pupae develop into adult mosquitoes, completing the cycle.

Question 40:

Following are some basic steps in conducting a Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT). Arrange them in order:

(A) Randomisation
(B) Drawing up a protocol
(C) Intervention or manipulation
(D) Assessment of outcome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (D), (B), (C), (A)
  2. (B), (D), (A), (C)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (B), (A), (C), (D)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (A), (C), (D).
View Solution

The correct sequence is:

  • Drawing up a protocol (B): Defining objectives, methodology, and trial plan.
  • Randomisation (A): Assigning participants to groups to reduce bias.
  • Intervention or manipulation (C): Applying the treatment being studied.
  • Assessment of outcome (D): Measuring the results to evaluate effectiveness.

Question 41:

Diastolic blood pressure readings of four patients are given below. Arrange them according to increasing median diastolic blood pressure (least median first):

(A) 83, 71, 81, 79, 71
(B) 90, 83, 75, 90, 89
(C) 70, 72, 87, 75, 87
(D) 75, 84, 81, 95, 95

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B), (D), (C), (A)
  2. (C), (A), (D), (B)
  3. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  4. (A), (C), (D), (B)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (A), (D), (B).
View Solution

To determine the median, arrange each set in ascending order:

  • (A): 71, 71, 79, 81, 83 → Median = 79
  • (B): 75, 83, 89, 90, 90 → Median = 89
  • (C): 70, 72, 75, 87, 87 → Median = 75
  • (D): 75, 81, 84, 95, 95 → Median = 84

Arranged by increasing medians: (C), (A), (D), (B).


Question 42:

Which of the following are probability sampling methods?

(A) Simple random sampling
​(B) Systematic random sampling
(C) Stratified random sampling
(D) Purposive sampling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

Probability sampling ensures every unit in the population has a known and non-zero chance of selection:

  • Simple random sampling: Equal probability for all units.
  • Systematic random sampling: Selection at regular intervals.
  • Stratified random sampling: Division into subgroups and random sampling within each subgroup.
  • Purposive sampling: Non-probability method where selection is based on judgment or criteria.

Question 43:

Which of the following studies are observational?

(A) Case-control study
(B) Cohort study
​(C) Randomized Controlled Trial
(D) Non-randomized Trial

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (C), and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only.
  3. (A) and (B) only.
  4. (A), (B), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution

Observational studies involve no intervention by researchers:

  • Case-control study: Retrospective study comparing cases with controls.
  • Cohort study: Observes groups over time to assess outcomes based on exposure.
  • Randomized Controlled Trial: Interventional study.
  • Non-randomized Trial: Also interventional, lacks randomization.

Question 44:

Which of the following are measures of variation (dispersion)?

(A) Mean
(B) Standard deviation
(C) Range
​(D) Mean deviation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) only.
  2. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  3. (B) and (D) only.
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C), and (D) only.
View Solution

Measures of dispersion describe the spread or variability in a dataset:

  • Standard deviation (B): Quantifies variation around the mean.
  • Range (C): Difference between the maximum and minimum values.
  • Mean deviation (D): Average of absolute deviations from the mean.
  • Mean (A): A measure of central tendency, not dispersion.

Question 45:

Which of the following are occupational diseases?

(A) Silicosis
(B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Byssinosis
(D) Thalassemia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  2. (A) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  4. (A), (B), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A) and (C) only.
View Solution

Occupational diseases result from workplace exposures:

  • Silicosis (A): Caused by inhaling silica dust, common in mining and construction.
  • Byssinosis (C): Caused by inhaling cotton, flax, or hemp dust in textile industries.
  • Sickle cell anaemia (B): A genetic condition, not occupational.
  • Thalassemia (D): Also a genetic disorder, unrelated to occupation.

Question 46:

Which of the following sources include data collection at the household level?

(A) Census
(B) National Family Health Survey
(C) Hospital records
(D) National Sample Survey

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  2. (A) and (D) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  4. (A) and (B) only.
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
View Solution

Household-level data is collected by:

  • Census (A): Gathers demographic, social, and economic data at the household level.
  • National Family Health Survey (B): Focuses on health, nutrition, and family planning data at the household level.
  • National Sample Survey (D): Collects socio-economic data on employment, expenditure, and education.

Hospital records (C): Are not collected at the household level; they pertain to individual patients.


Question 47:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Exposure) List II (Disease)
(A) Cotton dust (I) Byssinosis
(B) Asbestos (II) Asbestosis
(C) Silica (III) Silicosis
(D) Hay or grain dust (IV) Farmer’s lung
  1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A) Cotton dust: Associated with Byssinosis (I), a respiratory condition caused by inhaling cotton dust.
  • (B) Asbestos: Causes Asbestosis (III), a chronic lung condition from inhaling asbestos fibers.
  • (C) Silica: Leads to Silicosis (II), caused by inhaling crystalline silica particles.
  • (D) Hay or grain dust: Results in Farmer’s lung (IV), a hypersensitivity pneumonitis from organic dust exposure.

Question 48:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Indicator) List II (Denominator)
(A) Specific death rate due to tuberculosis (I) Total number of COVID-19 cases
(B) Specific death rate for males (II) Mid-year population
(C) Case fatality rate for COVID-19 (III) Mid-year population of males
(D) Specific death rate in age group 15-19 years (IV) Mid-year population of persons aged 15-19
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  4. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Specific death rate due to tuberculosis usesMid-year population (II) as the denominator.
  • (B): Specific death rate for males usesMid-year population of males (III) as the denominator.
  • (C): Case fatality rate for COVID-19 usesTotal number of COVID-19 cases (I) as the denominator.
  • (D): Specific death rate in age group 15-19 years usesMid-year population of persons aged 15-19 (IV) as the denominator.

Question 49:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Study design) List II (Analytical outcome)
(A) Case-control study (I) Odds ratio
(B) Cohort study (II) Relative risk
(C) Cross-sectional study (III) Prevalence
(D) Descriptive study (IV) Time, place, and person distribution
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Case-control study evaluates Odds ratio (I), comparing the odds of exposure between cases and controls.
  • (B): Cohort study calculates Relative risk (II), estimating the risk of an outcome in exposed vs. unexposed groups.
  • (C): Cross-sectional study measures Prevalence (III), assessing the proportion of a population with a condition at a given time.
  • (D): Descriptive study focuses on Time, place, and person distribution (IV), analyzing data patterns.

Question 50:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Disease) List II (Mode of transmission)
(A) Tuberculosis (I) Droplet infection
(B) Malaria (II) Vector-borne
(C) Cholera (III) Waterborne
(D) Tetanus (IV) Infected wounds
  1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Tuberculosis is transmitted through Droplet infection (I).
  • (B): Malaria is Vector-borne (II), spread by Anopheles mosquitoes.
  • (C): Cholera is Waterborne (III), spread through contaminated water or food.
  • (D): Tetanus spreads through Infected wounds (IV), caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria entering cuts or punctures.

Question 51:

Which of the following is NOT a part of primary health care as per the Alma Ata Declaration?

  1. Health education
  2. Immunization
  3. Provision of specialist care
  4. Essential drug supply
Correct Answer: (3) Provision of specialist care.
View Solution

The Alma Ata Declaration of 1978 outlined primary health care as essential health care accessible to all. It includes components such as:

  • Health education: Promoting healthy practices.
  • Immunization: Protecting against preventable diseases.
  • Essential drug supply: Providing basic medications for common conditions.

Specialist care is part of secondary or tertiary health care, not primary health care.


Question 52:

Arrange the following diseases based on their mode of transmission from direct to indirect:

(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Malaria
(C) HIV/AIDS
(D) Cholera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (A), (B), (D)
  2. (A), (C), (D), (B)
  3. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  4. (C), (A), (D), (B)
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C), (D), (B).
View Solution

The correct order based on transmission mode:

  • (A) Tuberculosis: Direct transmission through droplet infection.
  • (C) HIV/AIDS: Direct transmission through body fluids like blood or semen.
  • (D) Cholera: Indirect transmission through contaminated water or food.
  • (B) Malaria: Indirect transmission through vector (Anopheles mosquitoes).

Question 53:

Which of the following diseases is prevented by the BCG vaccine?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Polio
  3. Measles
  4. Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: (1) Tuberculosis.
View Solution

The BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is specifically used to protect against tuberculosis (TB). It is given at birth or during early childhood in countries where TB is common.

It helps prevent severe forms of TB, such as TB meningitis in children, but does not provide complete protection against pulmonary TB in adults.


Question 54:

Which of the following is the principal vector of Dengue fever?

  1. Anopheles mosquito
  2. Aedes mosquito
  3. Culex mosquito
  4. Sandfly
Correct Answer: (2) Aedes mosquito.
View Solution

The principal vector of Dengue fever is the Aedes mosquito, specifically Aedes aegypti. This mosquito species is also responsible for transmitting other diseases such as Zika virus and Chikungunya.

Key characteristics:

  • Daytime feeder.
  • Breeds in stagnant water found in urban environments.

Question 55:

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the levels of prevention?

(A) Primary prevention
(B) Secondary prevention
(C) Tertiary prevention

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C)
  2. (B), (A), (C)
  3. (A), (C), (B)
  4. (C), (A), (B)
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C).
View Solution

The levels of prevention are sequential and include:

  • Primary prevention (A): Prevents the onset of disease (e.g., immunization, health education).
  • Secondary prevention (B): Detects and treats disease early (e.g., screening programs, early diagnosis).
  • Tertiary prevention (C): Reduces the impact of chronic diseases or disabilities (e.g., rehabilitation programs).

Question 56:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Disease) List II (Herd immunity threshold)
(A) Pertussis (I) 92-94%
(B) Measles (II) 75-86%
(C) Mumps (IV) 80-85%
(D) Rubella (III) 83-94%
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • Pertussis: Herd immunity threshold is 92-94%.
  • Measles: Herd immunity threshold is 75-86%.
  • Mumps: Herd immunity threshold is 80-85%.
  • Rubella: Herd immunity threshold is 83-94%.

Herd immunity thresholds are critical for preventing outbreaks, and vaccination programs aim to achieve these levels to protect the community.


Question 57:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Vaccine) List II (Strain(s))
(A) BCG (III) Danish-1331 strain
(B) Measles vaccine (IV) Edmonston Zagreb strain
(C) Mumps vaccine (I) Jeryll Lynn strain
(D) Varicella vaccine (II) OKA strain
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • BCG: Danish-1331 strain.
  • Measles vaccine: Edmonston Zagreb strain.
  • Mumps vaccine: Jeryll Lynn strain.
  • Varicella vaccine: OKA strain.

Understanding vaccine strains is critical for effective immunization and combating diseases.


Question 58:

Reference Interval for Sperm characteristics in semen associated with fertility are:

(A) 14% or more have normal morphology
(B) 75% or more are alive
(C) 106 sperm per mL
(D) 50% or more with moderate to rapid linear (forward) progression

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
View Solution

The correct reference intervals for fertility include:

  • (A): 14% or more have normal morphology, indicating healthy sperm.
  • (B): 75% or more are alive, ensuring viable sperm.
  • (D): 50% or more with moderate to rapid linear progression, essential for reaching the egg.

(C) is not included, as the threshold for sperm concentration is higher than 106 sperm/mL.


Question 59:

When viewing a focused specimen in the microscope, the user sees a speck in the field of view. The speck remains in view when the objective is changed and when the specimen is moved. The speck is most likely located on the:

  1. Condenser
  2. Eyepiece
  3. Objective
  4. Specimen coverslip
Correct Answer: (2) Eyepiece.
View Solution

If the speck remains visible regardless of changes to the objective or specimen, it is located on the eyepiece. The eyepiece remains constant in the optical path and does not shift with adjustments.

To confirm, rotate the eyepiece; if the speck moves with it, it is indeed on the eyepiece.


Question 60:

Which type of microscopy is able to produce three-dimensional images and perform optical sectioning?

  1. Brightfield
  2. Interference contrast
  3. Phase-contrast
  4. Polarizing
Correct Answer: (2) Interference contrast.
View Solution

Interference contrast microscopy, such as Differential Interference Contrast (DIC), produces three-dimensional images and allows optical sectioning by enhancing contrast in transparent specimens. It uses differences in optical path length to create pseudo-3D images.

This technique is particularly useful for examining live, unstained cells and their structures.


Question 61:

The principle of fluorescence microscopy is based on:

  1. A substance that causes the rotation of polarized light
  2. Differences in the optical light path being converted to intensity differences
  3. Differences in refractive index being converted into variations in light intensity
  4. The absorption of light and its subsequent emission at a longer wavelength
Correct Answer: (4) The absorption of light and its subsequent emission at a longer wavelength.
View Solution

Fluorescence microscopy relies on the principle that certain substances absorb light (usually ultraviolet or blue light) at one wavelength and emit it at a longer wavelength (visible light). This property enables specific structures or molecules in a specimen to be tagged with fluorescent dyes, enhancing visualization.

It is widely used in biological sciences to study structures like proteins, DNA, or organelles by tagging them with fluorescent markers.


Question 62:

Which type of microscopy uses a special condenser to direct light onto the specimen from oblique angles only?

  1. Darkfield
  2. Interference contrast
  3. Phase-contrast
  4. Polarizing
Correct Answer: (1) Darkfield.
View Solution

Darkfield microscopy employs a special condenser that directs light onto the specimen at oblique angles. This setup causes light to scatter when it hits the specimen, making bright objects appear against a dark background. It is particularly useful for observing transparent or unstained specimens like live microorganisms.

For example, Darkfield microscopy is often used to visualize thin structures such as spirochetes or unstained living cells.


Question 63:

Which of the following diluents should be used when an RBC count is requested?

  1. Dilute acetic acid
  2. Hypotonic saline
  3. Isotonic saline
  4. Turk's solution
Correct Answer: (3) Isotonic saline.
View Solution

Isotonic saline (0.85% NaCl) is used as a diluent for RBC counts because it maintains the integrity of red blood cells, preventing hemolysis. Other diluents, such as dilute acetic acid or Turk's solution, are used for WBC counts as they lyse red blood cells to visualize white blood cells better.

Always use isotonic saline for RBC counts to preserve cell structure and ensure accurate results.


Question 64:

VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor) is used to monitor the effectiveness of the cold chain. Which of the following is an indication NOT to discard the vaccine?

(A) Inner square is white.
(B) Inner square is lighter than the outer circle.
(C) Inner square is darker than the outer circle.
(D) Outer circle is more dark than inner square.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
View Solution

The Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) is a label containing heat-sensitive material that indicates if a vaccine has been exposed to damaging conditions:

  • (A): Inner square is white.
  • (B): Inner square is lighter than the outer circle.
  • (D): Outer circle is more dark than the inner square.

If the inner square becomes darker than the outer circle, the vaccine should be discarded.


Question 65:

Which of the following conditions can result in the excretion of small amounts of occult blood in the feces?

(A) Hemorrhoids

(B) Bleeding gums

(C) Peptic ulcers

(D) Intake of iron supplements

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B), and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C), and (D).
  4. (B), (C), and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

Occult blood in feces can result from:

  • Hemorrhoids (A): Bleeding veins in the rectal area.
  • Bleeding gums (B): Swallowed blood from gums can appear in feces.
  • Peptic ulcers (C): Ulcers in the stomach or small intestine causing minor bleeding.

Iron supplements (D): They do not directly cause occult blood but can make stool dark, which may be mistaken for blood.


Question 71:

Indicators for obesity include all, EXCEPT:

  1. Body Mass Index
  2. Ponderal Index
  3. Brocca Index
  4. Breteau Index
Correct Answer: (4) Breteau Index.
View Solution

The following are indicators for obesity:

  • Body Mass Index (BMI): Widely used measure for obesity, calculated as weight (kg) divided by height (m²).
  • Ponderal Index: Similar to BMI, used for pediatric populations.
  • Brocca Index: A guideline for ideal body weight based on height.

Breteau Index is unrelated to obesity; it is an entomological measure used to assess mosquito larvae density in vector control efforts.


Question 72:

Average number of hookworm eggs per gram of feces for the entire community is called as:

  1. Chandler's Index
  2. Breteau Index
  3. House Index
  4. Burrow Index
Correct Answer: (1) Chandler's Index.
View Solution

Chandler's Index: A parasitological measure estimating the intensity of hookworm infection in a community. It represents the average number of hookworm eggs per gram of feces, providing a quantitative indicator of infection intensity.

Other options:

  • Breteau Index: Measures mosquito larvae density.
  • House Index: Percentage of houses infested with mosquito larvae or pupae.
  • Burrow Index: Not a standard index related to parasitology.

Question 73:

Nikshay portal is used in which health programme?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. AIDS
  3. Leprosy
  4. Malaria
Correct Answer: (1) Tuberculosis.
View Solution

The Nikshay portal is a digital initiative by the Government of India under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP). It facilitates TB case monitoring, treatment adherence, and patient data tracking to support TB elimination by 2025.

Other programmes:

  • AIDS: Managed under the National AIDS Control Programme.
  • Leprosy: Covered under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme.
  • Malaria: Addressed through the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme.

Question 74:

Aedes aegypti is the vector for all diseases, EXCEPT:

  1. Dengue
  2. Chikungunya
  3. Yellow Fever
  4. Japanese Encephalitis
Correct Answer: (4) Japanese Encephalitis.
View Solution

The Aedes aegypti mosquito transmits diseases like:

  • Dengue: Responsible for outbreaks in tropical regions.
  • Chikungunya: Causes fever and joint pain.
  • Yellow Fever: Endemic in certain tropical areas.

Japanese Encephalitis is transmitted by the Culex mosquito, not Aedes aegypti.


Question 75:

Haddon's matrix is used for:

  1. Blindness
  2. Hypertension
  3. Accidents
  4. Chronic Kidney Disease
Correct Answer: (3) Accidents.
View Solution

Haddon's Matrix: A framework developed by Dr. William Haddon Jr. to analyze and prevent accidents and injuries. It evaluates:

  • Pre-event phase: Preventive factors before an accident.
  • Event phase: Measures to reduce impact during an accident.
  • Post-event phase: Strategies to minimize injury or damage after the event.

The matrix integrates human behavior, vehicles, equipment, and the environment to address accident prevention systematically.


CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper

CUET PG Questions

  • 1.

    Bak I-o on 'sogiminko' Bak II baksa nangrimatbo 

    Ka'mao on 'sogimirangoni' kakket ong' gipako seokbo: 
     

      • A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
      • A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
      • A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
      • A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I

    • 2.
      Bak I-o on’sogiminko Bak II baksa nangrimatbo. \[ \begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \textbf{Bak I} & \textbf{Bak II} \\ \hline A. \ \text{Ku’bisring I} & I. \ \text{Padot Do’bipa} \\ B. \ \text{Ku’bisring II} & II. \ \text{Aman’ Ku’sik} \\ C. \ \text{Ku’mande Ku’jaleng} & III. \ \text{Nang’ring’ako anga mia’sisokjenga, gitel!} \\ D. \ \text{Gitanjali} & IV. \ \text{Salgi Chil’engsa} \\ \hline \end{array} \] Ka’mao on’sogiminrangoniko kakket ong’gipako seokbo:

        • A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III
        • A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
        • A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
        • A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV

      • 3.
        Bak I-o on'sogiminko Bak II baksa nangrimatbo. \[ \begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \textbf{Bak I} & \textbf{Bak II} \\ \hline A. \ \text{Golap rasong chaa, mikka aro ripamchi baksa} & I. \ \text{Personal Metaphor} \\ B. \ \text{Anga rongtal gipa mikka ko ringna sikenggipa bibalrangna ra'baa.} & II. \ \text{Apostrophe} \\ C. \ \text{O sia, nang'ni beri bao?} & III. \ \text{Personification} \\ D. \ \text{Me'chik bi'sani dukna chibimana rang'speaha.} & IV. \ \text{Pathetic Fallacy} \\ \hline \end{array} \] Ka’mao on’sogiminoniko badia ong’a basebo:

          • A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
          • A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
          • A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
          • A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III

        • 4.
          “Oh, angni saksakamnangni ripeng, nang’ni ka’sabatgipa, ang’ nokni cholgukgade oenggipti jumango git anjko re’pakangaine.” Ia iritnagipa badia podoani ong’a?

            • Gitanjali pod 9
            • Gitanjali pod 11
            • Gitanjali pod 22
            • Gitanjali pod 52

          • 5.

            Bak I-o on'sogiminko Bak II baksa nangrimatbo. 

            Ka'mao on'sogiminrangoni kakket ong'gipako seokbo: 
             

              • A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
              • A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
              • A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
              • A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV

            • 6.
              Pringsao me’chik bi’sa chi ko’na kang’kareo basing de’e chibimaona re’angaha. Ua chiona ong’onange chi ko’mitgo mangsa gorial chabae uni ja’gitoko chikkaapeaha. Da’nang me’chik bi’sa rang’san chirike grapaha. Demechikini chirike grapako knae ma’gipa bakan chabae nioa, demechinki ja’gitoko gorialni chikkaepngakosa nikaeha. Ma’gipa duk ong’bee gapae gorialko mol’mole aganaha. Anga ia demechik saksakamkamna agre darangba dongpaja. Ua angko dakkachapenga; anga segri. Pilabak angko nirok sandipiga dongpaja. Na’a ka’sakchapae angni demechikko watpabo. "Gorial an’tangba segri me’chikni duk ong’bee grapako nike mikchi ong’chakpilaha, indiba watajha.
              Duk man’gipana mikchi ong’pile mesokgenoba, dakechakaniko on’na man’gnigipa ong’eba uko on’jaode mamung namgni ong’ja. Indaka kamkon gorial mikchi ong’a ine agana.

                Fees Structure

                Structure based on different categories

                CategoriesState
                General800
                sc550

                In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

                Comments


                No Comments To Show