CUET PG 2024 Life Science Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

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Sahaj Anand

Content Writer | Journalism Graduate | Updated 3+ months ago

CUET PG Life Science Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA is conducting CUET PG 2024 from March 11 to March 28. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Life Science question paper.

CUET PG Life Science Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

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Life Science Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The portion of transmembrane proteins that cross the lipid bilayer are usually:

  1. α-helices
  2. β-sheet
  3. Turns
  4. Loops
Correct Answer: (1) α-helices.
View Solution

The transmembrane regions of proteins are predominantly formed by α-helices due to their ability to interact favorably with the hydrophobic core of the lipid bilayer. Hydrophobic side chains extend outward to interact with the lipid bilayer, while the backbone hydrogen bonds stabilize the helix. β-sheets, in contrast, are typically seen in specific pore-forming structures like porins.


Question 2:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Enzyme) List II (Function)
(A) Cytochrome oxidase (I) Electron transport system
(B) Topoisomerases (II) Change linking number
(C) Cohesins (III) DNA replication
(D) PCNA (IV) Cell cycle
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).
View Solution

Key Enzyme Functions:

  • Cytochrome oxidase: Functions in the electron transport system, facilitating ATP synthesis.
  • Topoisomerases: Change the linking number of DNA, aiding replication and transcription.
  • Cohesins: Bind sister chromatids until segregation during cell division.
  • PCNA: Proliferating cell nuclear antigen, essential for DNA replication and repair.

Question 3:

Which enzyme is inhibited by citrate in the Kreb’s cycle?

  1. Phospho-fructo kinase II (PFKII)
  2. Aldolase
  3. Pyruvate kinase
  4. Phosphoglycerate mutase (PGM)
Correct Answer: (1) Phospho-fructo kinase II (PFKII).
View Solution

Citrate acts as a feedback inhibitor for PFKII, a key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis. By inhibiting PFKII, citrate helps balance energy production between glycolysis and the Kreb’s cycle, ensuring efficient energy use.


Question 4:

Why does the presence of proline destabilize α-helix?

  1. (A), (B), and (C) only
  2. (A), (B), and (C), and (D)
  3. (B), (C), and (D) only
  4. (A), (B), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

Key reasons for destabilization:

  • (A): Proline introduces a sharp kink in the α-helix.
  • (B): Its nitrogen atom is part of a rigid ring, preventing rotation around the N-C bond.
  • (C): Proline lacks a substituent hydrogen for hydrogen bonding, a key stabilizer in α-helices.

Question 5:

Which of the following are components of lipid rafts in the plasma membrane?

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (A) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution

Lipid rafts are specialized microdomains in the plasma membrane that are rich in cholesterol and sphingolipids. These domains play a significant role in cellular signaling, protein sorting, and trafficking. They are more ordered and tightly packed compared to the surrounding membrane but maintain fluidity.


Question 6:

Which enzyme is defective in galactosemia—a fatal genetic disorder in infants?

  1. Glucokinase
  2. Galactokinase
  3. UDP-galactose 4-epimerase
  4. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
Correct Answer: (4) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase.
View Solution

Galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). This enzyme converts galactose-1-phosphate into UDP-galactose, a critical step in galactose metabolism. Its deficiency results in toxic accumulation, causing severe complications like liver damage and developmental delays.


Question 7:

Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List I (Vitamin) List II (Disorder)
(A) Vitamin-A (I) Night blindness
(B) Vitamin-D (II) Scurvy
(C) Vitamin-C (III) Fat-soluble vitamin
(D) Vitamin-K (IV) Blood clotting
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

Key pairings for vitamins and disorders:

  • Vitamin-A: Deficiency causes night blindness.
  • Vitamin-D: A fat-soluble vitamin essential for bone health.
  • Vitamin-C: Deficiency leads to scurvy.
  • Vitamin-K: Necessary for blood clotting.

Question 8:

Identify the correct sequence of the given intermediates formed during glycolysis:

A. Fructose 1,6-biphosphate
B. Fructose 6-phosphate
C. Lactate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  3. (A), (D), (B), (C)
  4. (C), (D), (A), (B)
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution

The intermediates in glycolysis are formed in the sequence:

  • Fructose 6-phosphate (B) → Fructose 1,6-biphosphate (A)
  • Phosphoenolpyruvate (D) → Lactate (C) (under anaerobic conditions).

Question 9:

Identify the correct sequence of the given enzymes involved in the TCA cycle:

A. Aconitase
B. Fumarase
C. Malate dehydrogenase
D. α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (A), (D), (B), (C)
  3. (B), (A), (C), (D)
  4. (D), (A), (C), (B)
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (D), (B), (C).
View Solution

Sequence of enzymes in the TCA cycle:

  • Aconitase: Converts citrate to isocitrate.
  • α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase: Converts α-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA.
  • Fumarase: Converts fumarate to malate.
  • Malate dehydrogenase: Converts malate to oxaloacetate.

Question 10:

Which of the following is NOT a fluorescent dye?

  1. Alexa Fluor
  2. Green fluorescent protein (GFP)
  3. Red fluorescent protein (DsRed)
  4. Xylene cyanol
Correct Answer: (4) Xylene cyanol.
View Solution

Xylene cyanol is a tracking dye used in gel electrophoresis to visualize DNA/RNA migration. It does not emit fluorescence, unlike Alexa Fluor, GFP, and DsRed.


Question 11:

The technique used to identify specific DNA in bacterial colonies is:

  1. In-situ hybridization
  2. Dot blot
  3. Colony hybridization
  4. Western hybridization
Correct Answer: (3) Colony hybridization.
View Solution

Colony hybridization is a molecular technique where bacterial colonies are lysed and transferred to a membrane. A labeled probe is used to detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence in the colonies.


Question 12:

Which technique is used to separate molecules based on their size?

  1. Ion-exchange chromatography
  2. Size-exclusion chromatography
  3. Affinity chromatography
  4. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
Correct Answer: (2) Size-exclusion chromatography.
View Solution

Size-exclusion chromatography separates molecules based on their size using a porous matrix. Larger molecules elute first as they cannot enter the pores, while smaller molecules are retained longer.


Question 13:

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is located:

  1. In the 5’ untranslated region (UTR) of prokaryotic mRNA
  2. In the 3’ untranslated region (UTR) of eukaryotic mRNA
  3. In the promoter region of prokaryotic genes
  4. In the enhancer region of eukaryotic genes
Correct Answer: (1) In the 5’ untranslated region (UTR) of prokaryotic mRNA.
View Solution

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a ribosomal binding site in the 5’ untranslated region (UTR) of prokaryotic mRNA. It helps align the ribosome with the start codon for translation initiation.


Question 14:

In DNA replication, the enzyme responsible for unwinding the double helix is:

  1. Helicase
  2. Topoisomerase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. Ligase
Correct Answer: (1) Helicase.
View Solution

Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix at the replication fork, creating single-stranded templates for replication. Topoisomerase prevents supercoiling, while DNA polymerase and ligase have other roles in replication.


Question 15:

Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

  1. Lipid synthesis
  2. Detoxification
  3. Protein synthesis
  4. Calcium storage
Correct Answer: (3) Protein synthesis.
View Solution

Protein synthesis occurs in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), not the smooth ER. The smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis, detoxification, and calcium storage.


Question 16:

Okazaki fragments are formed during:

  1. Leading strand synthesis
  2. Lagging strand synthesis
  3. Both leading and lagging strand synthesis
  4. None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Lagging strand synthesis.
View Solution

Okazaki fragments are short DNA fragments synthesized discontinuously on the lagging strand during replication. They are later joined by DNA ligase to form a continuous strand.


Question 17:

Which of the following hormones is NOT synthesized by the anterior pituitary gland?

  1. Prolactin
  2. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  3. Vasopressin
  4. Growth hormone
Correct Answer: (3) Vasopressin.
View Solution

Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), is synthesized by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary, not the anterior pituitary gland.


Question 18:

The key enzyme involved in the Calvin cycle is:

  1. Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO)
  2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
  3. Hexokinase
  4. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Correct Answer: (1) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO).
View Solution

RuBisCO catalyzes the fixation of CO2 to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate in the Calvin cycle, a critical step in photosynthesis.


Question 19:

Which component is not part of the electron transport chain (ETC) in mitochondria?

  1. Cytochrome c
  2. ATP synthase
  3. Ubiquinone
  4. Complex IV
Correct Answer: (2) ATP synthase.
View Solution

ATP synthase is involved in the synthesis of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, but it is not a direct component of the electron transport chain (ETC), which includes cytochrome c, ubiquinone, and Complex IV.


Question 20:

The basic unit of chromatin is:

  1. Histone
  2. Nucleosome
  3. Chromatid
  4. DNA
Correct Answer: (2) Nucleosome.
View Solution

A nucleosome is the fundamental unit of chromatin, consisting of DNA wrapped around histone proteins. It compacts DNA into an organized structure within the nucleus.


Question 21:

Which of the following is NOT a property of enzymes?

  1. They are highly specific to their substrates.
  2. They lower the activation energy of reactions.
  3. They are consumed in the reaction.
  4. They increase the rate of reactions.
Correct Answer: (3) They are consumed in the reaction.
View Solution

Enzymes act as catalysts and are not consumed during the reaction. They are regenerated at the end and can be reused multiple times.


Question 22:

Which protein is primarily involved in muscle contraction?

  1. Keratin
  2. Myosin
  3. Collagen
  4. Elastin
Correct Answer: (2) Myosin.
View Solution

Myosin interacts with actin filaments in muscle cells, facilitating contraction through ATP hydrolysis and the sliding filament mechanism.


Question 23:

In the lac operon, the inducer molecule is:

  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Allolactose
  4. Galactose
Correct Answer: (3) Allolactose.
View Solution

Allolactose is the inducer molecule in the lac operon. It binds to the repressor protein, inactivating it and allowing transcription of the operon.


Question 24:

The codon AUG codes for:

  1. Methionine
  2. Valine
  3. Serine
  4. Leucine
Correct Answer: (1) Methionine.
View Solution

The codon AUG serves as the start codon in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine, initiating protein synthesis.


Question 25:

Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide?

  1. Phosphate group
  2. Deoxyribose sugar
  3. Ribose sugar
  4. Peptide bond
Correct Answer: (4) Peptide bond.
View Solution

peptide bond links amino acids in proteins and is not a component of nucleotides, which consist of a phosphate group, a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), and a nitrogenous base.


Question 26:

The primary site of photosynthesis in plants is:

  1. Roots
  2. Stems
  3. Leaves
  4. Flowers
Correct Answer: (3) Leaves.
View Solution

Leaves are the primary site of photosynthesis due to the presence of chloroplasts, which contain chlorophyll that captures light energy for the process.


Question 27:

Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of ribosomes?

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Nucleolus
  4. Lysosome
Correct Answer: (3) Nucleolus.
View Solution

The nucleolus is a dense region within the nucleus responsible for ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosome assembly.


Question 28:

What is the function of lysosomes?

  1. Protein synthesis
  2. Energy production
  3. Intracellular digestion
  4. Photosynthesis
Correct Answer: (3) Intracellular digestion.
View Solution

Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that break down cellular debris, damaged organelles, and foreign materials, aiding in intracellular digestion.


Question 29:

The bond connecting two monosaccharides in a disaccharide is called:

  1. Peptide bond
  2. Glycosidic bond
  3. Phosphodiester bond
  4. Hydrogen bond
Correct Answer: (2) Glycosidic bond.
View Solution

glycosidic bond
connects two monosaccharides in a disaccharide through a condensation reaction, releasing a molecule of water.


Question 30:

Which molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

  1. NADH
  2. FADH2
  3. Oxygen
  4. Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: (3) Oxygen.
View Solution

In aerobic respiration , oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, forming water as a byproduct.


Question 31:

In prokaryotic transcription, the sigma factor is required for:

  1. Termination of transcription
  2. Elongation of RNA chain
  3. Initiation of transcription
  4. RNA splicing
Correct Answer: (3) Initiation of transcription.
View Solution

The sigma factor is a protein subunit that helps RNA polymerase recognize the promoter regions of DNA to initiate transcription in prokaryotes. It dissociates after initiation.


Question 32:

Which of the following is NOT an example of passive transport across the cell membrane?

  1. Diffusion
  2. Facilitated diffusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Active transport
Correct Answer: (4) Active transport.
View Solution

Active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient, unlike passive transport mechanisms like diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and osmosis.


Question 33:

The organelle responsible for generating ATP in eukaryotic cells is:

  1. Ribosome
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Golgi apparatus
  4. Lysosome
Correct Answer: (2) Mitochondria.
View Solution

The mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell. They generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration.


Question 34:

Which process is responsible for the formation of gametes in animals?

  1. Mitosis
  2. Meiosis
  3. Budding
  4. Binary fission
Correct Answer: (2) Meiosis.
View Solution

Meiosis is a specialized cell division process that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of haploid gametes in animals.


Question 35:

In the context of protein structure, a β-pleated sheet is an example of:

  1. Primary structure
  2. Secondary structure
  3. Tertiary structure
  4. Quaternary structure
Correct Answer: (2) Secondary structure.
View Solution

β-pleated sheets are a type of secondary structure in proteins, stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the backbone atoms in the polypeptide chain.


Question 36:

Which nitrogenous base is NOT found in RNA?

  1. Adenine
  2. Thymine
  3. Guanine
  4. Cytosine
Correct Answer: (2) Thymine.
View Solution

Thymine is replaced by uracil in RNA, whereas DNA contains thymine as one of its nitrogenous bases.


Question 37:

What type of bond joins amino acids in a protein?

  1. Peptide bond
  2. Glycosidic bond
  3. Hydrogen bond
  4. Phosphodiester bond
Correct Answer: (1) Peptide bond.
View Solution

peptide bond
is a covalent bond that links the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of another through a condensation reaction.


Question 38:

What is the role of ribosomes in the cell?

  1. Energy production
  2. Protein synthesis
  3. Lipid metabolism
  4. DNA replication
Correct Answer: (2) Protein synthesis.
View Solution

Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis, where mRNA is translated into a polypeptide chain.


Question 39:

The bond that connects the sugar and phosphate group in DNA is:

  1. Peptide bond
  2. Glycosidic bond
  3. Phosphodiester bond
  4. Hydrogen bond
Correct Answer: (3) Phosphodiester bond.
View Solution

phosphodiester bond connects the 5’ phosphate group of one nucleotide to the 3’ hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide in a DNA strand.


Question 40:

Which organelle is referred to as the "suicide bag" of the cell?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Lysosome
  3. Golgi apparatus
  4. Nucleus
Correct Answer: (2) Lysosome.
View Solution

Lysosomes are called "suicide bags" because they contain hydrolytic enzymes that can break down the cell’s own components during programmed cell death or autophagy.


Question 41:

Which phase of the cell cycle is the longest?

  1. G1 phase
  2. S phase
  3. G2 phase
  4. M phase
Correct Answer: (1) G1 phase.
View Solution

The G1 phase of the cell cycle is the longest, as it is the period of cell growth and preparation for DNA synthesis in the S phase. It involves intense metabolic activity and synthesis of cellular components.


Question 42:

Which molecule acts as a second messenger in signal transduction?

  1. ATP
  2. cAMP
  3. DNA
  4. RNA
Correct Answer: (2) cAMP.
View Solution

cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) is a second messenger that transmits signals from cell surface receptors to target molecules within the cell, amplifying the signal.


Question 43:

In eukaryotic cells, the organelle responsible for packaging and modification of proteins is:

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Ribosome
  4. Lysosome
Correct Answer: (2) Golgi apparatus.
View Solution

The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles.


Question 44:

Which structure is present in plant cells but absent in animal cells?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Ribosome
  4. Nucleus
Correct Answer: (2) Chloroplast.
View Solution

Chloroplasts are present in plant cells and are responsible for photosynthesis. They are absent in animal cells, which lack the ability to photosynthesize.


Question 45:

The site of protein synthesis in the cell is:

  1. Nucleus
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Ribosome
  4. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: (3) Ribosome.
View Solution

Ribosomes are the molecular machines responsible for translating mRNA into polypeptide chains, leading to protein synthesis.


Question 46:

Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis?

  1. mRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. rRNA
  4. snRNA
Correct Answer: (2) tRNA.
View Solution

tRNA (transfer RNA) carries amino acids to the ribosome, matching them to the corresponding codons on the mRNA during translation.


Question 47:

In photosynthesis, the oxygen released is derived from:

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Water
  3. Glucose
  4. Chlorophyll
Correct Answer: (2) Water.
View Solution

During photosynthesis, the oxygen released comes from the splitting of water molecules (photolysis) in the light-dependent reactions.


Question 48:

The genetic material in retroviruses is:

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Protein
  4. Lipid
Correct Answer: (2) RNA.
View Solution

Retroviruses have RNA as their genetic material. They use reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into DNA, which integrates into the host genome.


Question 49:

Which macromolecule forms the structural framework of the plasma membrane?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Proteins
  3. Lipids
  4. Nucleic acids
Correct Answer: (3) Lipids.
View Solution

Lipids , specifically phospholipids, form the bilayer structure of the plasma membrane, providing both fluidity and a barrier to external environments.


Question 50:

Which molecule is the main energy currency of the cell?

  1. ADP
  2. ATP
  3. NADH
  4. FADH2
Correct Answer: (2) ATP.
View Solution

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the primary energy currency of the cell, providing energy for various biochemical processes.


Question 51:

Calcitonin is produced by:

  1. Follicular cells of the thyroid gland
  2. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland
  3. Parathyroid gland
  4. Follicular cells of the ovary
Correct Answer: (2) Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.
View Solution

Calcitonin is a peptide hormone secreted by the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity, thus reducing bone resorption and lowering calcium levels in the blood.


Question 52:

The lymphoid stem cells in the bone marrow form:

  1. Natural killer cells
  2. Platelets
  3. B lymphocytes
  4. Neutrophils

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) and (D)
2. (A) and (C)
3. (A) and (B)
4. (C) and (D)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) and (C).
View Solution

Lymphoid stem cells in the bone marrow give rise to:

  • Natural Killer (NK) cells: Part of the innate immune system, they help destroy infected or cancerous cells.
  • B lymphocytes: Part of the adaptive immune system, they produce antibodies and regulate immune responses.

Question 53:

The perforation between the left and right atria of a fetal heart is known as:

  1. Foramen ovale
  2. Ductus arteriosus
  3. Fossa ovalis
  4. Ligamentum arteriosum
Correct Answer: (1) Foramen ovale.
View Solution

The foramen ovale is a crucial structure in fetal circulation that allows blood to bypass the lungs, which are not yet functional. After birth, it closes and leaves a depression called the fossa ovalis.


Question 54:

On the basis of type of body cavity, Platyhelminthes can be categorized as:

  1. Acoelomate
  2. Schizocoelomate
  3. Pseudocoelomate
  4. Enterocoelomate
Correct Answer: (1) Acoelomate.
View Solution

Platyhelminthes lack a true body cavity (coelom). Their bodies are filled with mesodermal cells, making them acoelomates, which rely on diffusion for transport and exchange of substances.


Question 55:

Match List I with List II:

List I List II
(A) Radiation hybrid mapping (I) Bacterial transformation
(B) Sequence tagged site (STS) mapping (II) Large DNA fragments
(C) Chromosome jumping (III) Circular DNA
(D) Chromosome walking (IV) Marker location
  1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Matching mapping methods with their respective functions ensures clarity in genetic research techniques.


Question 56:

A clotting disorder which is a sex-linked disease:

  1. Sickle cell anemia
  2. Thalassemia
  3. Hemophilia
  4. Albinism
Correct Answer: (3) Hemophilia.
View Solution

Hemophilia is a genetic disorder affecting blood clotting. It is X-linked recessive, primarily affecting males. It is caused by a deficiency of clotting factors VIII (Hemophilia A) or IX (Hemophilia B).


Question 57:

Which one of the following is a peat moss?

  1. Pellia
  2. Sphagnum
  3. Marchantia
  4. Funaria
Correct Answer: (2) Sphagnum.
View Solution

Sphagnum, commonly known as peat moss, grows in wetlands and forms peat, a significant carbon reservoir.


Question 58:

The basal portion of a mature ligule of Selaginella is called:

  1. Basal sheath
  2. Lamella
  3. Glossopodium
  4. Stalk
Correct Answer: (3) Glossopodium.
View Solution

The basal part of the ligule, called Glossopodium, supports and protects the ligule in Selaginella.


Question 59:

Vessels are present in:

  1. Cycas
  2. Zamia
  3. Ginkgo
  4. Gnetum
Correct Answer: (4) Gnetum.
View Solution

Gnetum is unique among gymnosperms for having vessels in its xylem, resembling angiosperms.


Question 60:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Transposons) List II (Organisms)
(A) P element (I) Drosophila
(B) LINE and SINE (II) Human
(C) Ty element (III) Yeast
(D) Tn element (IV) Bacteria
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

Key transposons matched with their respective organisms for their unique applications in genetic studies.


Question 61:

The peptidyl transferase enzyme activity is located in:

  1. Variable loop of tRNA
  2. Large ribosomal subunit
  3. Acceptor arm of tRNA
  4. Small ribosomal subunit
Correct Answer: (2) Large ribosomal subunit.
View Solution

Peptidyl transferase catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds during protein synthesis. This activity resides in the rRNA of the large ribosomal subunit (50S in prokaryotes, 60S in eukaryotes). The small ribosomal subunit aids in mRNA decoding, while tRNA assists in amino acid recognition but lacks enzymatic activity.


Question 62:

Transcription factors that mediate the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA template are:

  1. TFIIA
  2. TATA box
  3. TFIIB
  4. Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and D
  2. A and C
  3. C and D
  4. B and D
Correct Answer: (2) A and C.
View Solution

TFIIA stabilizes the binding of TFIID to the promoter, while TFIIB recruits RNA polymerase II to initiate transcription. The TATA box is a DNA sequence, not a transcription factor, and small nuclear ribonucleoproteins are involved in RNA splicing, not transcription initiation.


Question 63:

The histone that links two histone octamers is:

  1. H1
  2. H4
  3. H2A
  4. H2B
Correct Answer: (1) H1.
View Solution

Histone H1 is the linker histone that binds to the DNA entering and exiting the nucleosome, stabilizing the higher-order chromatin structure. It is not part of the histone octamer (H2A, H2B, H3, H4).


Question 64:

tRNA is synthesized by:

  1. RNA polymerase I
  2. RNA polymerase II
  3. Ribosomes
  4. RNA polymerase III
Correct Answer: (4) RNA polymerase III.
View Solution

In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III synthesizes tRNA along with 5S rRNA. RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA (except 5S rRNA), and RNA polymerase II synthesizes mRNA and some snRNAs.


Question 65:

The gene transmission from a male parent to a female offspring to a male grandchild is called:

  1. Crisscross inheritance
  2. X-linked inheritance
  3. Y-linked inheritance
  4. Chromosomal inheritance
Correct Answer: (1) Crisscross inheritance.
View Solution

Crisscross inheritance is a pattern typical of X-linked traits, where a male passes his X chromosome to his daughters, who can then pass it to their sons. This highlights the X-chromosome transmission across generations.


Question 66:

Which of the following statements is true for Barr body?

  1. It is a highly condensed chromosome.
  2. It is an active X chromosome.
  3. It is equivalent to the single Y chromosome of the male.
  4. It is equivalent to the two X chromosomes of the female.
Correct Answer: (1) It is a highly condensed chromosome.
View Solution

The Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome in females, condensed to ensure dosage compensation between males and females. It is transcriptionally silent.


Question 67:

Which of the following combinations of statements are true about the C4 cycle?

  1. A and B only
  2. A and C only
  3. C and D only
  4. B, C, and D only
Correct Answer: (1) A and B only.
View Solution

In the C4 cycle:

Pyruvic acid moves from bundle sheath cells to mesophyll cells for regeneration of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP).

  • A: Malic acid is formed in mesophyll cells.
  • B: Malic acid is transported to bundle sheath cells for decarboxylation and CO2 release.

Question 68:

Which of the following statements is true for X-linked recessive inheritance?

  1. All sons of a normal mother should show the trait.
  2. All sons of an affected mother should show the trait.
  3. Many more females than males should exhibit the trait.
  4. All daughters of a normal mother should show the trait.
Correct Answer: (2) All sons of an affected mother should show the trait.
View Solution

In X-linked recessive inheritance, affected mothers have two defective X chromosomes and will pass one defective X chromosome to all their sons, who will exhibit the trait.


Question 69:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Condition) List II (Characteristics)
A. Color blindness I. Deficiency of clotting factor VIII
B. Hemophilia B II. Insensitivity to green and red light
C. Hemophilia A III. Deficiency of clotting factor IX
D. G-6-PD deficiency IV. Severe anemic condition
  1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  2. A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
  3. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
  4. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
Correct Answer: (4) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV.
View Solution

Specific matches:

  • Color blindness: Caused by insensitivity to green and red light.
  • Hemophilia B: Deficiency in clotting factor IX.
  • Hemophilia A: Deficiency in clotting factor VIII.
  • G-6-PD deficiency: Leads to anemia under oxidative stress.

Question 70:

Non-vascular land plants are called:

  1. Pteridophytes
  2. Gymnosperms
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Bryophytes
Correct Answer: (4) Bryophytes.
View Solution

Bryophytes are simple non-vascular plants that include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts. They rely on diffusion for transport and thrive in moist environments.


Question 71:

Taxol medicine used in the treatment of cancer is extracted from:

  1. Taxus brevifolia
  2. Ephedra sp.
  3. Pinus roxburghii
  4. Catharanthus roseus
Correct Answer: (1) Taxus brevifolia.
View Solution

Taxol, a widely used chemotherapy drug, is extracted from the bark of the Pacific yew tree (Taxus brevifolia). It stabilizes microtubules, preventing their depolymerization, thereby disrupting cell division in rapidly dividing cancer cells.


Question 72:

The leaves used for wrapping tobacco in a ‘bidi’ are:

  1. Tea leaves
  2. Tendu leaves
  3. Curry leaves
  4. Basil leaves
Correct Answer: (2) Tendu leaves.
View Solution

Tendu leaves, obtained from the Diospyros lotus tree, are used for wrapping bidis. Their flexibility, durability, and moisture retention make them ideal for rolling tobacco.


Question 73:

Choose the correct sequence of electron transport during the electron transport chain of the light reaction:

A. Pheophytin
B. Plastoquinone
C. Cytb6-f complex
D. Plastocyanin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C, D
  2. A, B, D, C
  3. B, A, D, C
  4. C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (1) A, B, C, D.
View Solution

In the light reaction:

  • Pheophytin: Primary electron acceptor in Photosystem II.
  • Plastoquinone: Transfers electrons to the Cytb6-f complex.
  • Cytb6-f complex: Facilitates electron transfer to Plastocyanin.
  • Plastocyanin: Transfers electrons to Photosystem I.

Question 74:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Photoperiodism) List II (Explanation)
(A) Short Day Plants (SDP) (III) Dark period of 14-16 hours
(B) PR (IV) Absorbs light at 660-665 nm
(C) Long Day Plants (LDP) (I) Daylight of about 14-16 hours
(D) PFR (II) Absorbs light at 730-735 nm
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Key matches for photoperiodism:

  • Short Day Plants (SDP): Require long dark periods (14–16 hours).
  • PR: Absorbs light at 660–665 nm.
  • Long Day Plants (LDP): Require long daylight periods (14–16 hours).
  • PFR: Absorbs light at 730–735 nm.

Question 75:

Following are the steps involved in the processing of green tea:

A. Fermentation and drying
B. Twisting and rolling of leaves to facilitate break up
C. Initial removal of moisture content
D. Crushing, Tearing, and Curling by CTC method

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C, D
  2. A, B, D, C
  3. C, B, D, A
  4. B, A, D, C
Correct Answer: (3) C, B, D, A.
View Solution

The steps in green tea processing:

  • Initial removal of moisture content: Softens the leaves.
  • Twisting and rolling: Breaks up leaves and releases flavor compounds.
  • Crushing, Tearing, and Curling (CTC): Ensures uniform texture.
  • Fermentation and drying: Preserves flavor and aroma.

CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper

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