CUET PG 2024 Geography Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

The Planetesimal Hypothesis was proposed by Chamberlin and Moulton, explaining the formation of planets through the accumulation of small celestial bodies called planetesimals. Quick Tip: Memorize key scientific theories and their proponents for Earth science questions.

Quartzite forms when sandstone undergoes metamorphism due to heat and pressure, leading to recrystallization of quartz grains. Quick Tip: Understand rock transformations in the rock cycle to tackle geology-based questions.

The focus is the point inside the Earth where an earthquake originates. The epicenter is the point on the surface directly above the focus. Quick Tip: Differentiate between focus and epicenter to avoid confusion in earthquake-related concepts.

Drumlins are elongated, oval-shaped hills formed by glacial drift, typically composed of till and oriented in the direction of ice movement. Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with glacial landforms like drumlins, eskers, and moraines for geography questions.

- (A) True: P-waves (Primary waves) cause particles to move to and fro in the direction of wave propagation.

- (B) False: P-waves follow a convex path due to refraction within the Earth's interior layers.

- (C) True: Rayleigh waves cause particle motion in elliptical orbits perpendicular to the propagation plane.

- (D) False: S-waves (Secondary waves) can pass through solids but not liquids. Quick Tip: Learn the characteristics of different seismic waves (P-waves, S-waves, Rayleigh waves) to excel in earthquake-related topics.

- (A) Fluvial processes form levees.

- (B) Glacial processes create saddles.

- (C) Coastal processes form tombolos.

- (D) Arid processes result in the formation of Demoiselles. Quick Tip: Practice matching questions by linking landforms with their respective processes for geography exams.

The ionosphere contains charged particles that reflect radio waves back to Earth's surface, enabling long-distance communication. Quick Tip: Remember the layers of the atmosphere and their unique properties for Earth science questions.

Thermal anomaly refers to the deviation between the observed mean temperature of a location and the expected mean temperature based on its latitude. Quick Tip: Understand concepts like lapse rates and anomalies to answer climate-related questions accurately.

Relative humidity is expressed as the ratio of the actual amount of moisture in the air to the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature. Quick Tip: Revise definitions and formulas related to humidity for meteorology-based questions.

The Heterosphere is stratified by molecular weight, with lighter gases like hydrogen occupying the highest layers, followed by helium, nitrogen, and oxygen in descending order. Quick Tip: Visualize atmospheric layers and their compositions for better retention in geoscience topics.

The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) quantifies the pressure difference between Darwin (Australia) and Tahiti. It is a crucial indicator of El Niño and La Niña events. Quick Tip: Link atmospheric pressure zones with associated weather phenomena to excel in climate-related questions.

- (A) True: The Eye Wall of a tropical cyclone has the maximum wind velocity.

- (B) False: Tropical cyclones do not form from frontal development; they are caused by warm ocean waters.

- (C) False: The matured stage of a cyclone is called a Tropical Cyclone, not Tropical Depression.

- (D) True: Cumulonimbus clouds dominate in tropical cyclones. Quick Tip: Focus on the stages of tropical cyclones and associated weather patterns for meteorology topics.

- (A) Tropical: T/E Index Above 127

- (B) Taiga: T/E Index 16 - 3(1)

- (C) Microthermal: T/E Index 32 - 6(3)

- (D) Mesothermal: T/E Index 64 - 127. Quick Tip: Revise the classification of climatic zones and their thermal indices for geography questions.

- (A) Antilles: North Atlantic.

- (B) Peruvian: South Pacific.

- (C) Benguela: South Atlantic.

- (D) Agulhas: Indian Ocean. Quick Tip: Map oceanic currents with their geographical locations to ace geography-based questions.

The correct sequence from the coast to the central part is:

% Option
(A) Continental Slope → (D) Continental Rise → (B) Abyssal Floor → (C) Oceanic Ridges. Quick Tip: Visualize oceanic relief features in a cross-section diagram for better understanding.

Guyots are flat-topped submerged volcanic mountains found on the sea floor. Their tops are flattened due to erosion and subsidence over time. Quick Tip: Differentiate between seamounts and guyots by focusing on their shape and geological processes.

The greatest tidal range occurs during spring tides when the moon is closest to the Earth (Perigee), as gravitational forces are strongest. Quick Tip: Review lunar phases and gravitational effects for understanding tidal phenomena.

Daly contributed significantly to the study of coral reefs and volcanic islands during his voyage to Hawaii Island, proposing the subsidence theory of coral reefs. Quick Tip: Focus on key expeditions and their contributions to geological and oceanographic studies.

Ernst Haeckel coined the term "Ecology" in 1866 to describe the study of interactions between organisms and their environment. Quick Tip: Remember significant contributions by scientists to key concepts in biology and ecology.

Herbivores, such as deer and rabbits, are primary consumers as they directly feed on producers (plants). Quick Tip: Classify organisms into trophic levels for understanding energy flow in ecosystems.

Eutrophication is primarily a biological hazard. It occurs when there is an excess of nutrients (such as nitrogen and phosphorus) in water bodies, leading to excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants. This disrupts the natural balance of the ecosystem and affects aquatic life. Quick Tip: Eutrophication primarily affects aquatic ecosystems, causing oxygen depletion and impacting biodiversity.

- Statement (A) is correct as Synecology refers to the study of relationships among different species within a community.

- Statement (B) is also correct because Community Ecology examines interactions between different species in the same area.

- Statement (C) is incorrect because the study of individual species' relationships to their environment is termed Autecology, not Biome Ecology.

- Statement (D) is incorrect, as Population Ecology involves studying interactions within and among populations of organisms. Quick Tip: Remember, Synecology refers to communities of species, while Autecology focuses on individual species in their environment.

- Grass is at Trophic Level I (primary producers) as it provides food for herbivores.

- Hawk is a predator at Trophic Level IV (top predator in the food chain).

- Grasshopper is at Trophic Level II (herbivore) because it feeds on plants.

- Thrush is at Trophic Level III (secondary consumer) as it feeds on smaller animals like insects.
Quick Tip: Primary producers (like plants) are always at Trophic Level I, and predators are typically at higher trophic levels.

The Pir Panjal range is part of the Lesser Himalayas. It lies to the south of the main Himalayan ranges and is known for its significant geographical and climatic features. Quick Tip: The Lesser Himalayas are situated between the Great Himalayas and the outer ranges.

The thermal concept of the origin of the monsoon was propounded by Halley. He suggested that the monsoon winds are caused by differential heating between land and sea. Quick Tip: Halley's theory explains the heating differences between land and sea as the primary factor for monsoon formation.

Anthracite is the highest grade of coal with the greatest carbon content and the least moisture, making it the best quality coal used for energy production. Quick Tip: Anthracite coal is harder, has more carbon, and burns cleaner than lower grade coals.

The correct order of rivers based on their length in India is:

- Godavari (1,465 km)

- Krishna (1,400 km)

- Yamuna (1,376 km)

- Sutlej (1,450 km)


Thus, the correct sequence is (A), (C), (D), (B). Quick Tip: Knowing the major rivers in India and their respective lengths can help with geography-based questions.

- Magnetite is an ore of iron (IV).

- Bauxite is an ore of aluminium (III).

- Galena is an ore of lead (I).

- Braunite is an ore of manganese (II).


Thus, the correct matches are (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV). Quick Tip: Remember that ores correspond to the metals they yield. Magnetite is associated with iron, Bauxite with aluminium, and so on.

- Statement (A) is incorrect because Khadar refers to the newer, flood-affected Alluvial soil.

- Statement (B) is correct because Black soil, rich in clay, retains more water compared to other soil types.

- Statement (C) is correct because Desert soils are generally poor in both organic matter and mineral salts.

- Statement (D) is incorrect, as Red soils are widespread and cover large areas in India, mainly in the southern and eastern regions.
Quick Tip: Khadar soils are found in floodplains, while Bhangar (older Alluvial soil) is less fertile.

Ritter applied a teleological approach in geography, which means he believed that geographical features and human society evolved through purposeful, goal-oriented processes. He is known for his theory of "Lebensraum" (living space). Quick Tip: Teleological theories in geography focus on the idea of purposeful evolution of geography and human settlements.

Schaefer considered geography to be the study of spatial patterns and the understanding of laws governing the distribution of features on Earth. He focused on the systematic and descriptive aspects of geography. Quick Tip: Schaefer emphasized the formulation of laws that explain the arrangement of physical and cultural phenomena.

Wolpert observed that farmers are 'spatial satisfiers,' meaning they make spatial decisions based on environmental and social factors rather than purely economic ones. This contrasts with the traditional economic theory of 'economic men.' Quick Tip: 'Spatial satisfiers' emphasizes the role of geographic factors and human behavior over economic determinism.

- The correct chronological sequence of the geographical contributions is:

- (B) Almagest by Ptolemy (2nd century AD)

- (D) Geographia Generalis by Varenius (1650)

- (A) Cosmos by Humboldt (1845)

- (C) The Geographical Pivot of History by Mackinder (1904)
Quick Tip: The sequence reflects the development of geography from ancient times to modern theories.

- Statement (A) is incorrect: Welfare Geography focuses on integrating both theory and practice to improve human well-being.

- Statement (B) is correct: Knox emphasized that geography's objective is to analyze social and spatial disparities in life quality.

- Statement (C) is correct: Behavioural Geography is based on understanding human actions beyond just economic and rational assumptions.

- Statement (D) is incorrect: Stewart's work is considered foundational in the development of social physics, linking spatial distributions and human behavior. Quick Tip: Welfare Geography is a field that looks at the practical applications of geography for social betterment.

- Behaviouralism is associated with Tuan (I).

- Humanism is linked to Pred (II).

- Feminism is linked to Hartsock (III).

- Exceptionalism is connected with Kant (IV).

Thus, the correct match is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV). Quick Tip: Knowing the thinkers associated with major geographical philosophies helps in accurately matching them.

The 'Migration Zone Theory of Racial Evolution' was propounded by Taylor. He focused on how the migration of different races influenced the development of societies, and the interaction of people with their environment. Quick Tip: Taylor's theories on migration and race helped shape the field of human geography, influencing later geographic thought.

Israel is located in the Rimland, a region defined by Nicholas Spykman, which refers to the coastal areas that surround the Eurasian landmass. It is strategically significant for global geopolitics. Quick Tip: The Rimland is a crucial region for geopolitical strategies, influencing control over both land and sea routes.

According to Malthus, the population will double every 25 years if resources are unlimited, as his theory suggested exponential growth in population and arithmetic growth in food supply. Quick Tip: Malthus' theory focuses on the imbalance between population growth and food production, predicting a population crisis.

Based on the latest population statistics:
- Indonesia has the largest population among these countries.

- The USA follows, then Mexico, and finally Pakistan.


Thus, the correct order is (C), (D), (A), (B)
. Quick Tip: Reviewing the latest population rankings for countries will help with such questions on demographic comparisons.

- Statement (A) is incorrect as the level of urbanisation in India is lower than the world average.

- Statement (B) is incorrect as the share of rural population is much higher globally.

- Statement (C) is correct as Less Developed Countries have a larger share of the global urban population.

- Statement (D) is correct as South America has a higher urbanisation rate than Europe.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to the global urbanisation trends, as they often compare Less Developed and More Developed countries.

- Indo-European is linked to Latin (IV).

- Sino-Tibetan corresponds to Thai (III).

- Semito-Hamitic corresponds to Khoisan (II).

- African corresponds to Egyptian (I).


Thus, the correct match is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) Quick Tip: Identifying major language families and their specific branches helps in such matching questions.

Mahogany is a broadleaf tree and not a coniferous tree. Coniferous trees include Spruce, Fir, and Pine, all of which are part of the Pinaceae family. Quick Tip: Coniferous trees are typically needle-leaved, while broadleaf trees like Mahogany have wider leaves.

The A horizon is known as the zone of eluviation, where minerals and nutrients are leached (washed out) due to water movement. This process is part of soil formation and soil development. Quick Tip: Eluviation refers to the removal of materials from the soil, typically occurring in the A horizon.

The NDCs approach was introduced under the Paris Agreement in 2015. The NDCs are individual country pledges to limit greenhouse gas emissions as part of global efforts to combat climate change. Quick Tip: The Paris Agreement marks the shift towards nationally determined climate actions by individual countries.

India accounts for approximately 4% of the world's water resources. Despite this, the country faces significant water scarcity issues due to its large population and uneven distribution of water. Quick Tip: Even though India holds a small percentage of global water resources, it has a large population, increasing pressure on available water.

According to the FAO report of 2022, China is the leading country in the world in marine fisheries production. China has dominated global marine fisheries due to its vast coastlines and advanced fishing technologies. Quick Tip: China has consistently been the largest producer of marine fish, followed by countries like Peru and India.

In 2022, the USA was the world's leading importer of merchandise, accounting for a significant share of global imports. The USA consistently leads in global trade due to its large economy and high demand for goods. Quick Tip: Understanding the global trade flow and the world's largest economies will help in such trade-related questions.

Chernozem soils, rich in organic matter and nutrients, are ideal for wheat cultivation, and they are found in large areas of Ukraine. These soils are known for their high fertility. Quick Tip: Chernozem soils are highly fertile and are often referred to as "black soils" due to their rich organic content.

The airports in order from south to north are:

- Harare (Zimbabwe, southernmost)

- Jeddah (Saudi Arabia)

- Nairobi (Kenya)

- Tehran (Iran, northernmost)


Thus, the correct order is (B), (A), (D), (C). Quick Tip: Knowing the relative latitudes of cities will help in arranging them from south to north.

- Statement (A) is incorrect: The coffee tree is native to Ethiopia, not China.

- Statement (B) is incorrect: The stimulating substance in coffee is caffeine, not tannic acid.

- Statement (C) is correct: Mocha coffee is indeed grown mainly in Yemen.

- Statement (D) is correct: Tea grades depend on the altitude at which they are grown.


Thus, the correct statements are (C) and (D). Quick Tip: Mocha coffee refers to the specific variety from Yemen, not to be confused with a coffee flavor.

- Oil Ports are represented by Maracaibo (IV).

- Ferry Ports are represented by Dover (II).

- Naval Ports are represented by Karwar (III).

- Inland Ports are represented by Memphis (I).


Thus, the correct match is (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I). Quick Tip: To identify the types of ports, consider their functions and locations.

According to the Census of India 2011, Jains constitute about (2)3% of the Indian population. This minority group has a significant presence, especially in states like Gujarat and Rajasthan. Quick Tip: Keep in mind the major religious and cultural groups in India when answering questions about population statistics.

In 2020-21, Karnataka was the leading coffee producing state in India, contributing the largest share of the country’s coffee production, particularly in regions like Coorg, Chikmagalur, and Hassan. Quick Tip: Karnataka is the hub of coffee cultivation in India, followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

The cement industry is the most widely distributed industry in India, with numerous plants across the country, from Rajasthan to Andhra Pradesh. It is a key part of India's infrastructure development. Quick Tip: Cement production is widespread across India, driven by demand in construction and infrastructure projects.

Mizoram (C) has the highest level of urbanisation, followed by Karnataka (A). Rajasthan (D) and Uttar Pradesh (B) have lower levels of urbanisation. Quick Tip: Mizoram has the highest urbanisation rate in India, especially due to its small population and high urban concentration.

- The Hill Area Development Programme (HADP) was actually initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan, not the Fifth. Thus, statement (A) is incorrect.

- The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was indeed first implemented in the Sixth Five Year Plan, so statement (B) is correct.

- The Rashtriya Sam Vikas Yojana (RSVY) was initiated in 2014-15 to focus on the development of backward areas, making statement (C) correct.

- Aspirational districts are assessed based on 5 broad socio-economic themes, as stated in statement (D), making it correct.


Therefore, the correct answer is (B), (C), and (D) only. Quick Tip: To remember specific schemes, note the exact planning periods and their associated objectives.

- The steel industry is located in Murshidabad (I).

- Cotton industry is located in Vijay Nagar (II).

- Sugar industry is located in Katni (III).

- Cement industry is located in Sonepat (IV).


Thus, the correct match is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV). Quick Tip: Learn industry locations based on the states they are prominent in to easily match industries and locations.

A boundary on a map is an intangible concept, representing a demarcation of space, but it cannot be physically seen on the ground. A village, town, and river all refer to tangible entities. Quick Tip: Boundaries on maps are symbolic and represent the separation of territories.

In contouring, the existence of a plain surface is assumed. This assumption helps in drawing contours that represent the elevation or depth on a relatively flat or uniform surface. Quick Tip: Remember that contour lines are drawn assuming a plain or level surface to represent changes in elevation accurately.

In one type of Climograph, the dry bulb temperature is typically represented on the Y-axis, and the relative humidity is plotted on the X-axis. This helps analyze temperature and humidity variations. Quick Tip: In Climographs, dry bulb temperature and relative humidity are plotted to analyze weather patterns effectively.

Cadastral surveying is a type of surveying that is classified based on its purpose, which is generally for land boundary mapping, legal purposes, and land ownership records. Quick Tip: Cadastral surveying helps define property boundaries for legal purposes.

In chain surveying, 20 Gunter’s chains equal 1 mile. This is a standard measurement used in surveying. Quick Tip: 1 mile = 20 Gunter’s chains in chain surveying.

In the Quadrantal bearing system of the Prismatic Compass, the bearings run from 0° to 180° in the north and south quadrants, marking a limited range. Quick Tip: Quadrantal bearings are measured from 0° to 180°.

Resection is a method used in plane table surveying to determine the location of an unknown point by measuring angles to known points. Quick Tip: Resection helps in plotting the location of unknown points using angles.

The scale used for determining the presence or absence of piped drinking water supply is nominal because it categorizes data into distinct categories without any order. Quick Tip: Nominal scale deals with categories that have no specific order, like yes/no responses.

The given formula represents the Poisson distribution, which models the probability of a given number of events happening in a fixed interval of time or space. It is commonly used for rare events, such as traffic accidents or phone call arrivals, and its formula is: \[ P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} \]
where \(\lambda\) is the average rate of occurrence, and \(x\) is the number of events. The formula provided in the question matches this form with \(m\) replacing \(\lambda\). Quick Tip: Poisson distribution is for events that occur independently over a fixed time or space.

The Near-infrared band is commonly used for discriminating between clouds, snow, and ice. This is because snow and ice reflect near-infrared radiation very efficiently, while clouds typically do not. By analyzing the reflectance in the near-infrared spectrum, it becomes easier to differentiate between these elements. Quick Tip: Near-infrared is useful for identifying surface features like vegetation, snow, and water bodies.

In photographic and surveying equipment, the focal plane refers to the specific area where the film or sensor is positioned and remains flat during an exposure. This is critical for ensuring that the image is captured in sharp focus. Quick Tip: The focal plane is where the sharpest focus is achieved in photography and surveying instruments.

The Control segment of the GPS system is responsible for tracking the satellites, managing their data, and uploading updates to the satellites' navigational data. This segment plays a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy of the GPS system. Quick Tip: The control segment handles satellite maintenance and data updates in the GPS system.

In cartography, the sheets are organized based on the area they cover. From smallest to largest, the order is:
% Option
(1) Inch sheet (C) - smallest area
% Option
(2) Quadrant sheet (A)
% Option
(3) Degree sheet (B)
% Option
(4) Million sheet (D) - largest area

Thus, the correct ascending order is (C), (A), (B), (D). Quick Tip: Map sheets are categorized by the area they cover, with Million sheets representing the largest area.

To find the cities in descending order of variability, we need to calculate the coefficient of variation (CV), which is the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean. The formula for the coefficient of variation (CV) is:
\[ CV = \frac{Standard Deviation}{Mean} \times 100 \]

Now, let's calculate the coefficient of variation for each city:
\[ CV for (A) = \frac{5}{50} \times 100 = 10% \]
\[ CV for (B) = \frac{10}{150} \times 100 = 6.67% \]
\[ CV for (C) = \frac{5}{20} \times 100 = 25% \]
\[ CV for (D) = \frac{20}{250} \times 100 = 8% \]


The cities in descending order of variability (CV) are:
% Option
(1) (C) with CV = 25%

% Option
(2) (A) with CV = 10%

% Option
(3) (D) with CV = 8%

% Option
(4) (B) with CV = 6.67%


Thus, the correct order is (B), (A), (C), (D), which matches option (1) Quick Tip: The coefficient of variation (CV) is a useful tool to measure relative variability. A higher CV indicates greater variability relative to the mean.

- Statement (A) is correct: In aerial photographs, different materials are represented with distinct tonal values. The railway line typically appears as a thin dark line, while the concrete highway appears brighter.

- Statement (B) is incorrect: While texture can help identify vegetation and land cover, it does not directly help with crops or pastures, as those features are more clearly identified by other visual cues such as shape or pattern.

- Statement (C) is correct: The shape of features, such as hills, ridges, and valleys, can help in visualizing the relief dimensions in an aerial photograph.

- Statement (D) is correct: The drainage pattern in an aerial photograph can indeed indicate the underlying geology and structure of the terrain.


Thus, the correct answer is option 1: (A), (C) and (D) only. Quick Tip: In aerial photo interpretation, visual elements such as tone, texture, shape, and pattern are used to classify and interpret features on the ground.

In Chain and Tape Survey:
\begin{itemise
Statement (A): True. Only 2 persons are required: one for holding the chain or tape and the other for marking the point.
Statement (B): False. This statement is more applicable to the triangulation method of surveying, not Chain and Tape Survey.
Statement (C): True. Kinks or bends in the chain can affect the measurement and need to be straightened to ensure accurate results.
Statement (D): False. While smaller triangles are preferred for higher accuracy, the size of triangles is not explicitly a part of Chain and Tape Surveying.
\end{itemise


Hence, the correct answer is (A) and (C) only, making Option 4 the correct choice. Quick Tip: Always straighten the chain in Chain and Tape Survey to avoid errors in measurements due to kinks.

Let's go through each term and its corresponding meaning:
(A) Bench Mark: This is a fixed reference point of known elevation above mean sea level, corresponding to (I).

(B) Datum: This refers to the ground points defined by the nodes of triangles or junctions of a traverse, corresponding to (II).

(C) Offsets: This refers to any arbitrarily assumed level surface or line from which vertical distances or elevations are measured, corresponding to (III).

(D) Stations: These are lateral measurements taken to locate the interior details with respect to the main survey lines, corresponding to (IV).


Hence, the correct matching is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I). Quick Tip: In surveying, understand the basic terminologies like Bench Mark, Datum, Offsets, and Stations to differentiate the types of measurements and reference points used.

Let's go through the climatic conditions for each corner of the climograph:

(A) N.W. (North West): This region typically experiences a Keen climate, characterized by dry and cool conditions, matching with (IV).

(B) N.E. (North East): This region generally experiences a Scorching climate, characterized by hot and dry conditions, matching with (III).

(C) S.W. (South West): The South West is typically associated with Raw, warm and humid conditions, matching with (II).

(D) S.E. (South East): This region is usually subject to Muggy, hot and humid conditions, matching with (I).


Hence, the correct matching is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II). Quick Tip: To identify climatic conditions, remember that the North West typically has drier and cooler climates, while the South East is known for its humidity.