CUET PG Food Science and Technology Question Paper 2024: Download Question paper with Answers PDF

CUET PG Food Science and Technology Question Paper 2024 will be available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG Food Science and Technology paper 2024 on from March 16 in Shift 3. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Food Science and Technology question paper.

CUET PG Food Science and Technology Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

CUET PG Food Science and Technology 2024 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The packaging involves the complete sealing against the ingress of gases and vapour.

1. Hermetic
2. Primary
3. Controlled
4. Modified

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Question 2:

The temperature difference between inside and outside should not exceed........... to prevent the thermal shock in glass (package) manufacturing.

1. 100°C
2. 20°C
3. 44°C
4. 85°C

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Question 3:

Which type of can is used for high acid foods?

1. L type
2. MS type
3. MR type
4. MC type

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Question 4:

The principal ingredient for curing of meat is

1. Potassium chloride
2. Sodium chloride
3. Calcium chloride
4. Magnesium chloride

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Question 5:

The oxidised form of Oxymyoglobin is

1. Myoglobin
2. Metmyoglobin
3. Cholemyoglobin
4. Ferrylmyoglobin

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Question 6:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

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Question 7:

Egg yolk contains the following protein fractions-

1. (A) Phosvitin
2. (B) Livetin
3. (C) Low density lipoprotein
4. (D) Ovomucin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only.
2. (A), (B) and (D) only.
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

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Question 8:

The egg yolk is anchored in the center by

1. Vitelline membrane
2. Shell membrane
3. Chalaza
4. Albuminous sac

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Question 9:

The correct order of production of egg powder is-

(A) Pasteurization

(B) Fermentation

(C) Drying

(D) Cooling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (A), (C), (D)
3. (B), (C), (A), (D)
4. (D), (C), (A), (B)

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Question 10:

The browning in egg powder can be prevented by

1. Glucose oxidase
2. Addition of gum acacia
3. Denaturing the proteins
4. Addition of acid

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Question 11:

The naturally occurring toxicant in potatoes is

1. solanine
2. prussic acid
3. haemagglutinins
4. gossypol

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Question 12:

Weight gain in rats upon the consumption of one gram of protein is known

1. Biological value
2. Protein Efficiency Ratio
3. Net Protein Utilization
4. Net Protein Value

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Question 13:

Butter contains ___% of lactose.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 0.5
4. 10

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Question 14:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 15:

Sucrose polyesters act as

1. stabilizers
2. antioxidants
3. flavours
4. engineered fats

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Question 16:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

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Question 17:

Sequence for the preparation of sugar from sugarcane juice involves the following unit operations:

(A). Crystallization

(B). Centrifugation and filtration

(C). Decolourization

(D). Evaporation

1. (B), (C), (D), (A)
2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 18:

Which of the following is used as an enriching agent in wheat flour?

1. 0.2% lysine
2. 0.2% tryptophan
3. 2% lysine
4. 2% tryptophan

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Question 19:

Glycerol mono stearate serves as a/an in cakes.

1. emulsifier
2. colourant
3. flavouring agent
4. antioxidant

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Question 20:

The boiling point of 50% sucrose solution is

1. 90°C
2. 102°C
3. 110°C
4. 120°C

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Question 21:

Filo pastry is prepared by following sequence-

(A). Baking

(B). Selection and weighing of ingredients

(C). Chilling

(D). Mixing

1. (B). (C). (D). (A)
2. (B). (A). (C). (D)
3. (B). (A). (D). (C)
4. (C). (B). (D). (A)

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Question 22:

High sugar wafers contain more than % sugar.

1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 25

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Question 23:

Mold growth in muffins is controlled by the addition of

1. calcium propionate
2. sodium hydroxide
3. baking soda
4. baking powder

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Question 24:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 25:

Test is used to check the fermentation of cocoa beans.

1. Cut
2. Flavour
3. Sugar
4. Colour

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Question 26:

Process flow for the manufacturing of the caramel involves the following sequence-

(A). Emulsification

(B). Mixing

(C). Deposition

(D). Caramelization

1. (B)-(A)-(D)-(C)
2. (A)-(B)-(C)-(D)
3. (B)-(A)-(C)-(D)
4. (C)-(B)-(D)-(A)

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Question 27:

Blended chocolate should contain not less than cocoa solids.

1. 3%
2. 9%
3. 15%
4. 18%

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Question 28:

Deposit cookies contain % of unbleached soft wheat flour.

1. 8 to 9
2. 15 to 20
3. 21 to 25
4. <5

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Question 29:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 30:

Typical farinograph of wheat flour follows the sequence of-

(A). Arrival time

(B). Peak time

(C). Mixing tolerance index

(D). Departure time

1. (A)-(B)-(C)-(D)
2. (A)-(B)-(D)-(C)
3. (B)-(A)-(D)-(C)
4. (C)-(B)-(D)-(A)

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Question 31:

In Farinograph analysis, the reference value for resistance is:

1. 400 BU
2. 500 BU
3. 600 BU
4. 700 BU

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Question 32:

Final viscosity of starch paste increases with an increase in:

1. Amylose content
2. Amylopectin content
3. Amylase content
4. Pectin content

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Question 33:

Gumminess is expressed as:

1. Hardness x Cohesiveness
2. Hardness x Springiness
3. Springiness x Cohesiveness
4. Hardness x Resilience

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Question 34:

Pectic enzymes include the following groups:

1. Pectin esterase
2. Polygalacturonase
3. Pectin lyase
4. Lactase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

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Question 35:

Phenomenon in which a substance occurs in different crystalline forms is known as:

1. Polymorphism
2. Esterification
3. Fractionization
4. Metamorphism

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Question 36:

Change in lipid leading to an undesirable flavour and odour is known as:

1. Rancidity
2. Enzymatic degradation
3. Gelatinization
4. Lipid degradation

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Question 37:

Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B) only.
2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
3. (A), (C) and (D) only.
4. (B) and (D) only.

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Question 38:

___ is the rigidity in plant cells resulting from being filled with water.

1. Cell Turgor
2. Vacuole
3. Denatured cell
4. Cell turbidity

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Question 39:

Carotenoids are soluble in:

1. Water
2. Fat
3. Water and fat
4. Alcohol

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Question 40:

Tannins in their natural form are mostly:

1. yellow in color
2. orange in color
3. colorless
4. blue in color

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) only.
2. (A) only.
3. (C) only.
4. (B), (A) and (D) only.

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Question 41:

Brix to acid ratio is commonly used to measure fruits and fruit juices.

1. taste
2. tartness
3. acidity
4. sourness
   (a) (C) only.
   (b), (B) and (D) only
   (c) and (B) only.
   (d), (C) and (D) only.

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Question 42:

Non-nutritive sweetener used in soft drinks is

1. Acesulfame K
2. Saccharin
3. Cane Sugar
4. Galactose

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) only.
2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
4. (D) only.

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Question 43:

Hops are responsible for the _______ in the beer.

1. sourness
2. bitterness
3. sweetness
4. sparkling

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Question 44:

Protein content of all-purpose flour is %

1. 7 to 9
2. 9.5 to 11.5
3. 8.5 to 9
4. 12

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Question 45:

Straight flour is

1. Patent flour
2. Clear flour
3. Mixture of all flours
4. Pastry flour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only.
2. (C) only.
3. (D) and (A) only.
4. (A) only.

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Question 46:

Structural integrity of the starch polymeric chains of wheat flour is measured by

1. Falling Number
2. Farinograph
3. Extensograph
4. Alveograph

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Question 47:

Types of proteins present in cereals are-

1. Albumin
2. Globulins
3. Prolamines
4. Glutelins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

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Question 48:

The group of vitamins present in all cereal grains are

1. Vitamin B
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin E

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Question 49:

Arrange the general processing steps of pulses

(A) Soaking and Germination
(B) Cooking
(C) Decortication
(D) Fermentation

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (D), (C), (B)
3. (A), (C), (B), (D)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 50:

Inflammation of udder of bovine cattle is known as

1. Foot and Mouth Disease
2. Lumpy Cow Disease
3. Mastitis
4. Mad Cow Disease

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Question 51:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 52:

Align the key steps involved in the manufacture of the condensed milk –

(A) Preheating and addition of sugar

(B) Standardization

(C) Packaging and storage

(D) Condensation followed by crystallization

1. (A), (C), (B), (D)
2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 53:

______ is the most potent carcinogen in many species including birds, fish, and rodents.

1. Patulin
2. Ochratoxin
3. Aflatoxin B1
4. Zearalenone

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Question 54:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 55:

The ______ has become the reference for International Food Safety Requirements.

1. ICMSF
2. FAO
3. WHO
4. CAC

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Question 56:

______ test is used for haemolysis testing of Listeria monocytogenes.

1. CAMP
2. CAP
3. MAP
4. AMES

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Question 57:

VACCP system stands for

1. Virtual Critical Control Point
2. Validation Critical Control Point
3. Vulnerability Critical Control Point
4. Verification Critical Control Point

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Question 58:

______ is defined as an act or threat of deliberate contamination of food for human consumption with the intention of causing injury or death to civilian population and/or disrupting social, economic or political stability.

1. Food risk
2. Bioterrorism
3. Food fraud
4. Food terrorism

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Question 59:

Procedures that address operational conditions providing the foundation for the HACCP system are known as:

1. PRPs
2. SSOPs
3. SOPs
4. CoP

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Question 60:

The food that is customarily consumed without cooking by the customer is known as:

1. Balance food
2. Ready-To-Eat food
3. Ready-To-Serve food
4. Ready-To-Cook food

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Question 61:

The temperature, time, and pressure combination of autoclaving at laboratory scale is

1. 101°C, 15 to 20 minutes and 15 psi
2. 121°C, 15 to 20 minutes and 15 psi
3. 121°C, 5 to 10 minutes and 10 psi
4. 120°C, 15 to 20 minutes and 12 psi

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Question 62:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 63:

______ is a cheap and energy efficient method of preservation of perishable raw materials.

1. Fermentation
2. Decomposition
3. Putrefaction
4. Proteolysis

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Question 64:

______ are antimicrobial polypeptides or proteins which are heat stable at acidic pH.

1. Proteases
2. Antibiotics
3. Bacteriocins
4. Synbiotics

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Question 65:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 66:

Fermentation of vegetables and fruits is performed to

(A) Preserve for a long time period
(B) Develop characteristic sensory properties
(C) Reduce digestibility
(D) Enhance dietary valu

1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

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Question 67:

______ method involves the complete removal of the air from the package followed by sealing of package.

1. Vacuum Packaging
2. CAP
3. MAP
4. Active Packaging

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Question 68:

______ is a gas which is bacteriostatic at low concentration (8µg per ml) but bactericidal at high concentration (40µg per ml).

1. CO2
2. CO
3. H2O2
4. N2

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Question 69:

The steps involved in the Grape wine manufacturing process are

(A) Fermentation
(B) Malolactic fermentation
(C) Preparation of juice
(D) Packaging, storage and aging

1. (C), (A), (B), (D)
2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (A), (B), (D)

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Question 70:

The basic steps involved in the preparation of Kumiss are

(A) Pasteurization followed by cooling
(B) Homogenization of selected milk type
(C) Agitation of coagulum, packing and storage
(D) Addition of starter culture, incubation, then cooling

1. (A), (C), (B), (D)
2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 71:

The order of steps involved in the process of beer manufacture are

(A) Malting
(B) Addition of Hops and Boiling
(C) Mashing and Wort Preparation
(D) Fermentation

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 72:

Sauerkraut is a good source of

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

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Question 73:

Classes of enzymes predominately used in food processing are

1. Hydrolyses
2. Isomerases
3. Lipases
4. Oxido-reductases

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

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Question 74:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 75:

The two main criteria for evaluating the success of product launch are profits and

1. consumer reaction
2. decrease in market share
3. sales volume
4. tactics

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