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CUET PG B.Ed. Humanities and Social Sciences Question Paper 2024 will be available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG B.Ed. Humanities and Social Sciences paper 2024 on from March 22 in Shift 2. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 B.Ed. Humanities and Social Sciences question paper.

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B.Ed. Humanities and Social Sciences Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Gross Primary Deficit can be calculated by which of the following equation?

Net borrowings at home +Borrowing from RBI+Borrowing from abroad+Net Interest liabilities
Net borrowings at home +Borrowing from RBI+Borrowing from abroad-Net Interest liabilities
Total expenditure-(revenue receipts+Non debt creating capital receipts)
Net borrowings at home +Borrowing from RBI-Borrowing from abroad-Net Interest liabilities

Correct Answer: (2) Net borrowings at home +Borrowing from RBI+Borrowing from abroad-Net Interest liabilities

View Solution

The Gross Primary Deficit is a fiscal measure that indicates the extent to which the government's expenditure exceeds its revenue, excluding interest payments on prior debts. The correct calculation involves adding net borrowings from domestic and foreign sources to the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and then subtracting the net interest liabilities.

Question 2:

Aggregate demand for final goods in a three sector model consists of which of the following?

ex ante consumption, ex ante investment only
ex ante investment, expost consumption,government spending etc.
ex ante consumption, expost investment, government spending etc.
ex ante consumption, ex ante investment,government spending etc.

Correct Answer: (4) ex ante consumption, ex ante investment,government spending etc.

View Solution

In a three-sector model of an economy (which includes households, businesses, and the government), aggregate demand for final goods is composed of planned or expected (ex ante) consumption, planned or expected (ex ante) investment, and government spending. These components are considered in their planned or intended forms, as opposed to realized or actual (ex post) values, which are influenced by market outcomes.

Question 3:

Demonetisation was a new intiative taken by Government of India. Arrange following in proper sequence/chronology:
(A) Demonetisation was announced in November 2016
(B) To tackle the problem of of corruption, black money terrorism and circulation of fake currency
(C) New currency notes in the denomination of Rs 500 and Rs2,000 were launched
(D) Old currency notes of Rs.500 and Rs.1,000 were no longer legal tender
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(B), (A),(D), (C)
(A), (B), (C), (D)
(B), (D), (C),(A)
(C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (1) (B), (A),(D), (C)

View Solution

The correct chronological order of the demonetisation initiative is as follows: First, the reasons for demonetisation are outlined which is: (B) To tackle the problem of corruption, black money, terrorism and fake currency, followed by (A) the announcement of the demonetisation in November 2016, then the declaration of (D) the old notes of Rs.500 and Rs.1000 being no longer legal tender and lastly (C) the launch of new currency notes of denomination Rs. 500 and Rs.2000.

Question 4:

RBI publishes figures for alternative measures of money supply. They are defined as:
(A) M1 = CU + DD
(B) M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post office, savings banks
(C) M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates)
(D) M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post savings organisations (including National Savings Certificates)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(B) and (C) only.
(A), (B) and (D) only.
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A) and (D) only.

Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B) and (C) only

View Solution

RBI's measures of money supply are defined as follows:
• M1 includes currency held by the public (CU) and demand deposits (DD) with banks.
• M2 includes M1 plus savings deposits with post offices and savings banks.
• M3 is a broader measure including M1 + term deposits of the public held with banks and other institutions.
• M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post savings organisations (including National Savings Certificates).

Therefore, statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

Question 5:

Which of the following is not the feature of Indifference Curve.

Two indifference curves never intersect each other.
Lower Indifference curve gives greater level of utility.
Indifference curve slopes downwards from left to right.
Higher Indifference curve gives greater level of utility.

Correct Answer: (2) Lower Indifference curve gives greater level of utility.

View Solution

Indifference curves represent consumer preferences, displaying combinations of goods where a consumer receives the same level of satisfaction. Higher indifference curves indicate higher levels of utility because they represent consumption bundles with more of at least one good and no less of the other. Lower curves show lower satisfaction, so option 2 is not a feature of indifference curve.

Question 6:

Match List-I with List-II

LIST I	LIST II
A. Equilibirum of a monoply firm is	I. leads to an excess supply
B. Demand curve faced by the firm under monopolistic competition	II. MR = MC and MC is rising
C. Imposition of price ceiling below the equilibrium price	III. is not perfectly elastic
D. Imposition of price floor above the equilibrium price	IV. leads to an excess demand

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View Solution

The correct matching is:
• Equilibrium of a monopoly firm (A) is when MR = MC and MC is rising (II), meaning marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
• Demand curve faced by a firm under monopolistic competition (B) is not perfectly elastic (III), since firms have some market power.
• Imposition of a price ceiling below equilibrium price (C) leads to an excess demand (IV), as quantity demanded surpasses quantity supplied at that lower price.
• Imposition of a price floor above equilibrium price (D) leads to an excess supply (I), as quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded at that higher price.

Question 7:

Negative slope of the demand can be explained in terms of ______ that come into play when the price of a commodity changes.

Marginal effect
Income effect only
Substitution effect only
Substitution effect and Income effect

Correct Answer: (4) Substitution effect and Income effect

View Solution

The negative slope of the demand curve is primarily explained by two effects: the substitution effect and the income effect. The substitution effect occurs because when the price of a good increases, consumers tend to switch to cheaper alternatives. The income effect suggests that, an increase in the price of a good decreases consumers' real purchasing power, leading to a decrease in demand for normal goods. Together, these effects result in an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.

Question 8:

Select incorrect statements regarding Infrastructure:
(A) Network of physical facilities and public services and with this social infrastructure is equally important to support it
(B) Transportation and communication are included in infrastructure
(C) Network of physical facilities only
(D) Needs to be upgraded from time to time to maintain high economic growth rate Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(C) only.
(B) and (D) only.
(A), and (D) only
(A) only.

Correct Answer: (1) (C) only.

View Solution

Infrastructure includes both physical facilities (like roads, power plants) and public services and social infrastructure (like education, healthcare, and sanitation), these are equally important to support the infrastructure. Transportation and communication systems are indeed essential elements of infrastructure. It also must be upgraded from time to time to maintain economic growth. The incorrect statement is that it includes only physical facilities.

Question 9:

Match List-I with List-II

LIST I	LIST II
A. Globalisation	I. To promote the efficiency of local industries and adoption of modern technologies
B. Disinvestment	II. Related with tax reforms
C. Fiscal policy	III. Privatisation of the public sector enterprises by selling off part of the equity of PSES
D. Trade and Investment Policy Reforms	IV. Outcome of the set of various policies that are aimed at transforming the World

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

View Solution

The correct matching is:
• Globalisation(A) is the Outcome of the set of various policies that are aimed at transforming the World(IV).
• Disinvestment(B) is the Privatisation of the public sector enterprises by selling off part of the equity of PSES (III)
• Fiscal policy(C) is related to tax reforms(II).
• Trade and Investment Policy Reforms(D) is related to promote the efficiency of local industries and adoption of modern technologies (I).

Question 10:

Arrange following in proper sequence in the context of Government Budget:
(A) Capital Receipts
(B) Total Expenditure
(C) Non debt Receipts
(D) Revenue deficit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (C), (B), (D)
(A), (B), (C), (D)
(D), (A), (C), (B)
(C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (3) (D), (A), (C), (B)

View Solution

The proper sequence in the context of the government budget is as follows. First, the revenue deficit is considered (D), which is a measure of the extent to which revenue expenditures exceed revenue receipts. Then Capital receipts are assessed (A). Subsequently, the government determines its non-debt receipts (C), and lastly, the total expenditure is considered (B).

Question 11:

Calculate price elasticity of supply from the following information:

price of books	quantity of books purchased and sold
old price:P = 100	old quantity: Q = 2000
new price:P = 300	new quantity: Q = 10000

2
5
1.67
1

Correct Answer: (4) 1

View Solution

The price elasticity of supply (PES) is calculated as the percentage change in quantity supplied divided by the percentage change in price.
%ΔQ
PES =
%ΔP
First calculate percentage change in quantity:
%ΔQ = (10000-2000)/2000 * 100 = 400%
Then calculate the percentage change in price:
%ΔP = (300-100)/100 * 100 = 200%
Now calculate the price elasticity of supply using above two values:
PES = 400/200 = 2
So the elasticity is 2

Question 12:

Development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs is known as:

Inter generational development
Future development
Sustainable Development
Balanced development

Correct Answer: (3) Sustainable Development

View Solution

Sustainable development refers to the approach of meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It balances economic, social, and environmental considerations. It seeks to ensure a long-term balance that allows both human well-being and ecological preservation.

Question 13:

When a proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by a larger proportion, the production function is said to display:

constant returns to scale
increasing returns to scale
decreasing returns to scale
producing returns to scale

Correct Answer: (2) increasing returns to scale

View Solution

Increasing returns to scale occur when a proportionate increase in all inputs leads to a more than proportionate increase in output. In other words, the efficiency of production increases as the scale of operation expands, causing output to rise more than the increase in input.

Question 14:

In Harappan Civilisation evidence of ploughed field was found at

Harappa
Kalibangan
Amri
Dholavira

Correct Answer: (2) Kalibangan

View Solution

Evidence of a ploughed field in the Harappan Civilization was found at Kalibangan. This is a key archaeological finding that helps us understand the agricultural practices of the Harappan people. The discovery suggests that the Harappans were capable of advanced agricultural techniques.

Question 15:

In Sangam literature the term Uzhavar was used for

Landowner
Village
Ploughmen
Landlord

Correct Answer: (3) Ploughmen

View Solution

In Sangam literature, the term “Uzhavar” refers to ploughmen or agricultural laborers. This indicates the presence of a social class in the Sangam period that was primarily engaged in agriculture.

Question 16:

The script used in most Asokan inscription is

Aramaic
Devanagari
Brahmi
Kharosthi

Correct Answer: (3) Brahmi

View Solution

Most of the Asokan inscriptions are written in the Brahmi script. This script was used during the reign of Emperor Ashoka and is a crucial source of information for that era. While other scripts were also used, Brahmi is the most prominent one.

Question 17:

Earliest inscriptional evidence of land grants came from

Satavahana Dynasty
Gupta Dynasty
Maurya Dynasty
Haryanka Dynasty

Correct Answer: (1) Satavahana Dynasty

View Solution

The earliest inscriptional evidence of land grants is associated with the Satavahana Dynasty. These grants were usually made to religious figures, brahmans and officials and the practice increased during the rule of the satavahanas which was followed by other rulers too.

Question 18:

V.S Sukthankar who prepared the critical edition of Mahabharata was a noted _______

Musician
Director
Painter
Sanskritist

Correct Answer: (4) Sanskritist

View Solution

V.S. Sukthankar was a renowned Sanskritist who is best known for his critical edition of the Mahabharata. His work involved meticulous analysis of the different manuscripts and texts of Mahabharata to create a single authentic and widely accepted version.

Question 19:

Match List-I with List-II

LIST I	LIST II
A. The Peasant and the Raj	I. S.N. Sen
B. Theories of the Indian Mutiny	II. S.B. Choudhari
C. 1857	III. Eric Stokes
D. The Sepoy Mutiny and the Revolt of 1857	IV. R.C.Majumdar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

View Solution

The correct match is:
• "The Peasant and the Raj” (A) is written by S.N. Sen (I).
• "Theories of the Indian Mutiny" (B) is written by S.B. Choudhari (II).
• "1857" (C) is written by Eric Stokes (III).
• "The Sepoy Mutiny and the Revolt of 1857" (D) is written by R.C. Majumdar (IV).

Question 20:

Match List-I with List-II

LIST I (Place of Revolt of 1857)	LIST II (Leaders)
A. Faizabad	I. Shah Mal
B. Barout	II. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
C. Awadh	III. Nana Sahib
D. Kanpur	IV. Birjis Qadr

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View Solution

The correct matching is as follows:
• Faizabad was led by Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah (II)
• Barout was led by Shah Mal (I)
• Awadh was led by Birjis Qadr (IV)
• Kanpur was led by Nana Sahib (III).

Question 21:

During Medieval period the term Pahi -Kashta was used for

Peasants who were residents of the village in which they held their land
Non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis
Artisan
Big land owner

Correct Answer: (2) Non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis

View Solution

During the Medieval period in India, the term “Pahi-Kashta” referred to non-resident cultivators. These were peasants who lived in one village but cultivated land in another on a contractual or temporary basis. This practice was common and resulted in different classes of agricultural labourers.

Question 22:

Hampi name was derived from _______

Local mother goddess
Local ruling class
Local merchant class
Local musician class

Correct Answer: (1) Local mother goddess

View Solution

The name Hampi is believed to have been derived from “Pampa,” which was the name of a local mother goddess. Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, and its name's connection to a local deity is a reflection of the region's rich cultural and religious heritage.

Question 23:

Arrange the following travellers in order of their coming to India (chronologically)
(A).Nikitin
(B).Duarte Barbosa
(C).Monserrate
(D).Peter Mandi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B), (C), (D)
(A), (C), (B), (D)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

View Solution

The correct chronological order of the travellers' arrival in India is:
• Nikitin (A), a Russian traveler, visited India in the 15th century.
• Monserrate (C) a Spanish Jesuit visited in the 16th century.
• Duarte Barbosa (B), a Portuguese writer, traveled to India in the early 16th century.
• Peter Mundy (D), an English merchant and traveler, visited India in the 17th century.

Question 24:

Arrange the following in chronological order
(A).Cabinet Mission announces its constitutional scheme
(B).Labour Goverment comes in power in Britain
(C). Constituent Assembly begins its sessions
(D).Congress forms Interim Government
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B), (C), (D)
(A), (C), (B), (D)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

View Solution

The correct chronological order of the events is:
• Labour Government comes in power in Britain (B).
• Cabinet Mission announces its constitutional scheme (A).
• Congress forms Interim Government (D).
• Constituent Assembly begins its sessions (C).

Question 25:

Who is the author of the book 'Levaithan'?

Hobbes
Locke
Rouseau
Rawls

Correct Answer: (1) Hobbes

View Solution

The book "Leviathan" was authored by Thomas Hobbes. It is one of the most influential works of political philosophy, exploring the nature of the social contract and the necessity of a strong central government.

Question 26:

The doctrine of ‘utilitarianism' and the principle of the ‘maximum happiness of the maximum number of people' is associated with which political philosopher.

James Mill
J. S. Mill
Jeremy Bentham
Aristotle

Correct Answer: (3) Jeremy Bentham

View Solution

The doctrine of utilitarianism and the principle of maximizing the happiness of the greatest number of people are most strongly associated with Jeremy Bentham. He was a foundational thinker in the philosophy of utilitarianism.

Question 27:

Gabriel Almond and Sidney Verba published which book in 1963 ?

The Civic Culture
The Political Culture
The Civic Virtue
The Political Virtue

Correct Answer: (1) The Civic Culture

View Solution

Gabriel Almond and Sidney Verba published the seminal work "The Civic Culture" in 1963. This book is a landmark study in political science, exploring the role of political culture in democratic stability and performance.

Question 28:

Who advanced the idea that advanced capitalist regimes are ruled by consent rather than by coercion

Karl Marx
Lenin
Antonio Gramsci
Mao

Correct Answer: (3) Antonio Gramsci

View Solution

Antonio Gramsci advanced the idea that advanced capitalist regimes are sustained through the consent of the governed rather than by sheer coercion. His concept of “hegemony” suggests that the ruling class maintains power not only through force, but also through ideological and cultural leadership.

Question 29:

According to Jhonston, a core strategic paradigm provides answer to the following questions:
(A) The role of war in International Relations
(B) The nature of the adversaries and the threats they pose
(C) The role of peace in International Relations
(D) The utility of force
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (D) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only

View Solution

According to Jhonston, a core strategic paradigm provides answers to questions regarding: the role of war in International Relations (A); the nature of the adversaries and the threats they pose (B); and the role of peace in International Relations (C). While the utility of force is an important part of strategic thought, the core paradigm as mentioned by Jhonston is centered around other three aspects.

Question 30:

The objective of the First Five Year Plan of India (1951-1956) was
(A) To raise the level of national income
(B) To get the country's economy out of the cycle of poverty
(C) To focus mainly on heavy industries
(D) To focus mainly on the agrarian sector including investment in dams and irrigation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B) and (D) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (D) only

View Solution

The main objectives of the First Five Year Plan of India (1951-1956) were to increase the level of national income, to get the country's economy out of the cycle of poverty, and to focus on the agrarian sector, including investment in dams and irrigation. The emphasis was on agricultural development and not on heavy industries.

Question 31:

Operation Flood was
(A) the rural development programme
(B) a dairy programme as a path to development
(C) a poverty allviation programme
(D) a rural employment guarantee scheme
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (D) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(A), (B) and (C) only
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

View Solution

Operation Flood, also known as the White Revolution, was a dairy development program in India. It was aimed at creating a national milk grid by establishing a cooperative model. It became a significant program for development and alleviation of poverty and also it created rural employment. It was not primarily a rural development program

Question 32:

Who was the founder-president of Bharatiya Jana Sangh?

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
C. Rajagopalachari
A. K. Gopalan

Correct Answer: (2) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

View Solution

Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder-president of Bharatiya Jana Sangh. The party was founded in 1951 and it was the predecessor of the present Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).

Question 33:

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Ideas/Associations/Individual, etc.)	LIST II (Events/Principles/Contributions, etc.)
A Panchsheel	I Preservation of territorial integrity, sovereignty and economic development
B Bandung Conference	II Five principles of peaceful coexistence
C Dalai Lama	III Led to the establishment of NAM
D India's Foreign Policy in the period 1950-1964	IV Tibetan spiritual leader who crossed over to India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View Solution

The correct matching is:
• Panchsheel (A) is related to Preservation of territorial integrity, sovereignty and economic development (I).
• Bandung Conference (B) is known for Five principles of peaceful coexistence (II).
• Dalai Lama (C) was the Tibetan spiritual leader who crossed over to India(IV) .
• India's Foreign Policy in the period 1950-1964 (D) Led to the establishment of NAM(III).

Question 34:

Arrange the main focus of different Five Year Plans in a chronological order:
(A) The focus of Planning on agrarian sector
(B) The focus of Planning on urban spaces
(C) The focus of Planning on heavy industries
(D) The focus of Planning on Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B), (C), (D)
(A), (C), (D), (B)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(A), (C), (B), (D)

Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

View Solution

The correct chronological order of focus of different Five Year Plans is:
• The early plans focused mainly on the Agrarian sector (A).
• Subsequently, there was focus on industrial development specifically on the heavy industries (C).
• The focus shifted to urban spaces(B) as industrialization increased
• The later plan saw a paradigm shift towards Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (D).

Question 35:

Which of the following statement is false about globalisation?

Globalisation is free flow of goods, capital and labour
Inequality is increasing due to globalisation
Equality is increasing due to globalisation
Globalisation will result in cultural homogensation

Correct Answer: (3) Equality is increasing due to globalisation

View Solution

While globalisation promotes the free flow of goods, capital, and labor, and may increase cultural homogenization, it also contributes to income inequality. The distribution of benefits from globalization is uneven, thus resulting in an increase in inequality rather than equality.

Question 36:

When Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh became separate states?

1987
1978
1960
1972

Correct Answer: (1) 1987

View Solution

Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh both became separate states of the Indian Union in 1987. They were previously part of the Union Territory of Assam. This reorganization was an important part of the process of state formation in northeast India.

Question 37:

Which among the following is not an outcome of the disintegration of the USSR ?

End of the ideological war between the US and the USSR
End of the arms race between the US and the USSR
Change in the balance of power in the world order
Crisis in Asia

Correct Answer: (4) Crisis in Asia

View Solution

The disintegration of the USSR led to significant global changes, including the end of the Cold War and the ideological conflict between the US and USSR, and the end of the arms race and resulting in a change in the global balance of power. While the collapse of the Soviet Union had global repercussions, the widespread crisis in Asia is not directly caused by it, it is caused by different socio-political and economic factors.

Question 38:

Which of these statements are correct regarding Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(A) He belong to Sukarchakiya clan
(B) He signed the Treaty of Amritsar (1809)
(C) Treaty of Amritsar (1809)was signed with the British East India compony
(D) He signed the Treaty of Sarkhej with the French East India Company
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (D) only.
(A), (B) and (C) only.
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only.

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.

View Solution

The correct statements are:
• Maharaja Ranjit Singh belonged to the Sukarchakiya clan (A).
• He did sign the Treaty of Amritsar in 1809 (Β).
• The treaty of Amritsar was indeed signed with the British East India Company (C).
• There is no evidence of a treaty of Sarkhej signed with French East India company (D)

Question 39:

Bombay Secretariat was designed by _______

H. St Clair Wilkins
F.W.Stevens
Watson
William S. Cohan

Correct Answer: (1) H. St Clair Wilkins

View Solution

The Bombay Secretariat was designed by H. St Clair Wilkins, a British architect who was notable for his work in India during the colonial period. The building is a significant example of Victorian Gothic architecture.

Question 40:

Which one of the following is a major agglomeration of population in the world?

North Asia
East Asia
Central Asia
West Asia

Correct Answer: (2) East Asia

View Solution

East Asia is a major agglomeration of population in the world. This region includes countries like China, Japan, and South Korea, which are among the most populous in the world.

Question 41:

Which one of the following is NOT a measure of population density?

Arithmetic desnsity
Physiological density
Nutrition Density
Road Density

Correct Answer: (4) Road Density

View Solution

Arithmetic density, physiological density, and nutrition density are all established measures of population density. Road density, however, is not directly a measure of population; instead, it reflects the length of roadways per unit area.

Question 42:

Identify correct statements with reference to climate of India.
(A) The Tropic of Capricorn divides India into temperate and tropical climate regions.
(B) Variability of rainfall in more in Rajasthan as compared to Odisha.
(C) Northeast Monsoon season brings 60 percent of the annual precipitation.
(D) Mango showers are pre-monsoon showers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) and (C) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(B) and (D) only
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (D) only

View Solution

The correct statements are as follows:
• Variability of rainfall is higher in Rajasthan than Odisha (B).
• Mango showers are indeed pre-monsoon showers (D).
• The Tropic of Cancer, and not Capricorn, divides India into climate zones, and the Southwest monsoon brings 60 percent of the annual precipitation to India.

Question 43:

________ propounded the concept of 'rurban community'.

J.C Hudson
K.H. Stone
C.J. Galpin
A. Meitzen

Correct Answer: (1) J.C Hudson

View Solution

J.C. Hudson is credited with propounding the concept of the 'rurban community'. Rurban areas are a mix of urban and rural characteristics, and his conceptualization helps understand communities and settlements that are not strictly urban nor fully rural.

Question 44:

The term development is characteristic of the following:
A Multidimensional Concept
B Unidimensional Concept
C Qualitative Change
D Quantitative Change
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (D) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(A), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (4) (A), (C) and (D) only.

View Solution

The concept of development is multidimensional (A), which means it involves various aspects of human life. It entails both qualitative (C), like improvement in education, health, and freedom, and quantitative (D) changes such as economic growth, and increased income. It is not unidimensional.

Question 45:

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Name of the country)	LIST II (Length of borders (in kms))
A. China	I. 1751
B. Pakistan	II. 3488
C. Nepal	III. 699
D. Bhutan	IV. 3323

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

View Solution

The correct match is as follows:
• China has a border length of 3488 kms. (II)
• Pakistan shares a border of 3323 kms with India(IV)
• Nepal shares a border length of 1751 kms (I)
• Bhutan has a border length of 699 kms (III)

Question 46:

Arrange the regions of world in descending order on the basis of their area.
(A) North America
(B) Africa
(C) Asia
(D) Australia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(C), (A), (B), (D)
(C), (B), (A), (D)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (D), (B), (A)

Correct Answer: (2) (C), (B), (A), (D)

View Solution

The regions listed, when arranged by area in descending order are as follows:
• Asia (C) is the largest continent in the world
• Africa (B) is second largest.
• North America (A) is the third largest.
• Australia (D) is the smallest among the options.

Question 47:

Shifting cultivation is known as Ladang in

North East India
Kalahari region
Patagonia plateau region
Indonesia and Malaysia

Correct Answer: (4) Indonesia and Malaysia

View Solution

Shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, is called “Ladang” in Indonesia and Malaysia. This agricultural practice involves clearing land by cutting and burning vegetation, cultivating it for a few years, and then moving to a new area when the land becomes less fertile.

Question 48:

Which one of the following is not a pull factor of migration?

Better Job Opportunities
Medical and Educational Facilities
Water Scarcity
Peace and Stability

Correct Answer: (3) Water Scarcity

View Solution

Pull factors of migration are those that attract people to a new location. Better job opportunities, medical and educational facilities, and peace and stability are all pull factors, that draw migrants to a new region. Water scarcity is a push factor, causing people to migrate away from an area.

Question 49:

Age-sex pyramid of ______ is triangular shaped.

Japan
Australia
Nigeria
Norway

Correct Answer: (3) Nigeria

View Solution

The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria is triangular. This shape indicates a high birth rate and a large proportion of younger people, characteristic of countries with high population growth rates and high mortality rates in older age groups.

Question 50:

The concept of human development was introduced by _______

Griffith Taylor
Gilbert White
Adam Smith
Mahbub-ul-Haq

Correct Answer: (4) Mahbub-ul-Haq

View Solution

The concept of human development, which emphasizes human capabilities and well-being rather than just economic growth, was introduced by Mahbub-ul-Haq. He developed the Human Development Index (HDI) as a measure of human development.

Question 51:

Which one of the following areas in USA has lost its ground as a leading producer of iron and steel industry?

Cleveland
Pittsburgh
Chicago
Lorain

Correct Answer: (2) Pittsburgh

View Solution

Pittsburgh, once a prominent center for iron and steel production in the USA, has seen a significant decline in this industry. While some activity still exists, it no longer holds the leading position it once had due to various economic changes and other factors.

Question 52:

________ has the largest tea cropped area of India.

West Bengal
Kerala
Assam
Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: (3) Assam

View Solution

Assam has the largest tea cropped area in India. The state is renowned for its extensive tea plantations, which are a major contributor to India's tea production. The unique geographical and climatic conditions are suited for tea cultivation in the region.

Question 53:

Match List I with List II

LIST I	LIST II
A. Secured Debentures	I payable on the expiry of the specific period
B. Unsecured Debentures	II. a charge is created on the assets of the company for the purpose of payment in case of default.
C. Perpetual Debentures	III. do not have a specific charge on the assets of the company.
D. Redeemable Debentures	IV. the company does not give any undertaking for the repayment of such debentures.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

View Solution

The correct matching is:
• Secured debentures have a charge created on the assets of the company for payment purposes (II).
• Unsecured debentures do not have a specific charge on the assets of the company (III).
• Perpetual debentures means the company doesn't give any undertaking for repayment (IV).
• Redeemable debentures are payable at a specific time. (I)

Question 54:

Balance sheet provides information about financial position of a company _______

At a point of time
Over a period of time of three months
For a period of time of six months
For a period of time of nine months

Correct Answer: (1) At a point of time

View Solution

A balance sheet provides a snapshot of a company's financial position at a specific point in time. It displays assets, liabilities, and equity at that particular date, unlike income statements which show performance over a period.

Question 55:

Debenture holders are the ________ of a company

Owner
debtor
Creditors
Director

Correct Answer: (3) Creditors

View Solution

Debenture holders are creditors of a company. They have lent money to the company in exchange for interest payments, but they do not have ownership rights as shareholders do.

Question 56:

At the time of admission of a new partner, General reserve appearing in the old balance sheet is transferred to:

All partner's capital account
New partner's capital account
Old partner's capital account
Old Partner's current account

Correct Answer: (1) All partner's capital account

View Solution

When a new partner is admitted to a partnership, the general reserve appearing in the old balance sheet is transferred to all partners' capital accounts. This ensures that the old partners receive their share of the reserve that was built up by the company during the previous accounting periods.

Question 57:

Profit for the following years are given. 2013 4,00,000 2014 3,98,000 2015 4,50,000 2016 4,45,000 2017 5,00,000 calculate goodwill of the firm on the basis of four year purchase of 5 year average profits.

17,54,400
18,50,500
17,44,400
19,54,000

Correct Answer: (3) 17,44,400

View Solution

To calculate the goodwill, we first need to find the average profit of the last 5 years.
Average Profit = (400000 + 398000 + 450000 + 445000 + 500000) / 5
Average Profit = 2193000 / 5 = 438600
Now, the goodwill is calculated by multiplying the average profit by the number of years' purchase (4 years).
Goodwill = 438600 × 4 = 1754400

Question 58:

Which ratio gives us the idea about the value of their holding and affects market price of the shares?

Return on shareholder's fund
Earning per share
Book value per share
Price to Earning ratio

Correct Answer: (4) Price to Earning ratio

View Solution

The Price to Earnings (P/E) ratio is a valuation ratio that gives investors an idea of how much they're paying for a company's earnings. It affects the market price of the shares because investors compare P/E ratios of different companies when deciding about their investments. High P/E might be for overvalued shares and low P/E might be for undervalued ones.

Question 59:

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(A) Return to scale is a long run concept
(B) Law of variable proportion is concerned only with long run concept.
(C) There is only Constant return to scale in the Return to scale concept.
(D) All the inpur factors are variable in law of variable proportion.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (D) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

View Solution

The following are the correct points:
• Return to scale is a long run concept (A) is correct.
• Law of variable proportion is a short run concept (B) is incorrect.
• Return to scale can be increasing, decreasing and constant (C) is incorrect.
• In law of variable proportions all the input factors are not variable, only some factors are variable while some factors remain fixed (D) is also incorrect
Hence only (B), (C) and (D) are incorrect.

Question 60:

As per the Cobb-Douglas Production function, which of the following represents Increasing return to scale?

α + β = 1
α + β > 1
α + β < 1
α + β = 0

Correct Answer: (2) α + β > 1

View Solution

In the Cobb-Douglas production function, represented as Q = A• L^α • K^β, where Q is output, L is labor, K is capital, and α and β are the output elasticities of labor and capital respectively.
• Increasing returns to scale occur when α + β > 1, which signifies that increasing all inputs by a certain proportion leads to output increasing by a larger proportion.

Question 61:

Which of the following is the most commonly used measure of money supply?

Correct Answer: (1) M1

View Solution

M1 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It represents the most liquid forms of money in an economy, which includes currency held by the public and demand deposits with banks. This liquidity makes it useful for assessing immediate spending power.

Question 62:

Which of the following is not a principle given by Henri fayol?

Unity of command
Unity of Direction
Subordination of individual interest to general interest
Harmony, Not discord

Correct Answer: (4) Harmony, Not discord

View Solution

While Henri Fayol's 14 principles of management include Unity of Command (one boss for one person), Unity of Direction (one plan for a group), and Subordination of individual interest to general interest, he did not list 'Harmony, Not discord' as one of his principles. It is a principle by Taylor.

Question 63:

Which of the following are related to the Grapevine Networks?
(A) Gossip Network
(B) Cluster Network
(C) Probability Network
(D) Wheel network
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(B) and (D) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only

View Solution

Grapevine networks are informal communication channels. They include Gossip Network (A) where information spreads randomly; Cluster Network (B) which spreads through selected individuals; and Probability network(C) where communication happens randomly. A Wheel network is a formal method of communication and therefore is not a part of grapevine network.

Question 64:

National Stock Exchange (NSE) was established in which year?

1992
1996
2000
1980

Correct Answer: (1) 1992

View Solution

The National Stock Exchange (NSE) was established in 1992. It is one of the leading stock exchanges in India, offering electronic trading.

Question 65:

Make In India scheme was launched in the year:

2016
2015
2014
2013

Correct Answer: (3) 2014

View Solution

The Make in India scheme was launched in 2014 by the Government of India. This is a significant initiative to promote domestic manufacturing and attract foreign investments into the country.

Question 66:

Identify the examples of commercial food service establishments, from the following.
(A) Mobile catering
(B) Catering for seminars, workshops
(C) Creches
(D) Chain of catering organisations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B) and (D) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only

View Solution

Commercial food service establishments involve businesses that sell food. Mobile catering (Α), catering for seminars and workshops (B), and chain of catering organizations (D) are examples of such businesses. Creches (C) although provide for children it is not a commercial food establishment.

Question 67:

Arrange the steps involved in the Nutritional Care process during illness in correct sequence.
(A) Assessing nutritional status
(B) Diagnosis of nutritional problems
(C) Evaluating nutritional care outcomes and making changes, if necessary
(D) Planning and prioritising nutrition interventions(s) to meet nutritional needs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B), (C), (D).
(A), (B), (D), (C).
(B), (A), (D), (C).
(C), (B), (D), (A).

Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).

View Solution

The correct sequence of the nutritional care process during illness is as follows:
• Assessing nutritional status (A) through methods like taking dietary history and physical examinations.
• Diagnosis of nutritional problems (B), by evaluating data obtained in assessment.
• Planning and prioritizing nutrition interventions(s) to meet nutritional needs (D).
• Evaluating nutritional care outcomes and making changes, if necessary (C).

Question 68:

Which psychologist and educator had outlined the great need that children have for a concerned, caring and knowledgeable adult?

Lev Vygotsky
Erik Erikson
Sigmund Freud
Jean Piaget

Correct Answer: (1) Lev Vygotsky

View Solution

Lev Vygotsky, a renowned psychologist and educator, emphasized the crucial role of concerned, caring, and knowledgeable adults in a child's development. He highlighted the importance of social interaction and scaffolding in learning and cognitive development.

Question 69:

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Fabric defects)	LIST II (Faults)
A Kink	I Dyeing fault
B Slub	II Finishing fault
C Shaded	III Weaving fault
D Chafe	IV Yarn fault

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View Solution

The correct match is:
• Kink (A) is a type of weaving fault (III) in the fabric.
• Slub (B) is a yarn fault (IV) where the yarn is uneven.
• Shaded (C) is a dyeing fault (I) where there is uneven color distribution.
• Chafe (D) is a finishing fault (II) that appears due to mechanical rubbing of fabric.

Question 70:

Arrange the steps involved in Guest Cycle in order of their implementation.
(A) Departure
(B) Arrival stage
(C) Occupancy
(D) Pre-arrival stage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B), (C), (D)
(D), (B), (C), (A)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (2) (D), (B), (C), (A)

View Solution

The correct sequence of the guest cycle is:
• Pre-arrival stage (D) which involves booking and gathering info.
• Arrival stage (B) the process of check in.
• Occupancy (C) which is the stay at the establishment.
• Departure (A) the stage when the guest checks out.

Question 71:

Which of the following is NOT an example of interactive media?

Gyan TV
Internet
Telephone
e-mail

Correct Answer: (1) Gyan TV

View Solution

Interactive media allows two-way communication. While the internet, telephones, and e-mail are all interactive, Gyan TV (or any regular television program) is typically a one-way medium with no direct interaction between the viewer and the program.

Question 72:

Identify the type of hospitality service establishment which offers rented accommodation especially for sleeping and may not offer food and other services.

Furnished camps
Motel
Lodge
Resort

Correct Answer: (2) Motel

View Solution

Motels are establishments that offer basic rented accommodation mainly for sleeping purposes and often do not include food or other elaborate services. Furnished camps, lodges and resorts usually offer a range of additional facilities.

Question 73:

In which year was the first Indian satellite (EDUSAT) built exlusively to serve the educational sector?

2001
2005
2002
2004

Correct Answer: (4) 2004

View Solution

EDUSAT, India's first satellite dedicated exclusively to serving the educational sector, was launched in 2004. This satellite was specifically designed to augment distance education, reaching learners in remote areas.

Question 74:

Identify the way through which Mrs Y can create rhythm in her dress.

By using contrasting colours
By putting gathers in waist, yolk or cuffs
By using different unusual shapes and lines
By using different textures

Correct Answer: (1) By using contrasting colours

View Solution

Rhythm in a dress can be created by using contrasting colors. The other methods like gathers, unusual shapes, or use of different textures contribute to other aesthetic aspects like balance, emphasis etc. Color contrast creates a sense of repetition and flow which is critical for creating rhythm in fashion.

Question 75:

Which of the following type of disability is characterised by difficulties of movement, posture, speech, hand functions etc. due to brain damage?

Locomotor disability
Cerebral Palsy
Autism
Learning disability

Correct Answer: (2) Cerebral Palsy

View Solution

Cerebral Palsy is a group of disorders that affect movement, muscle tone, and posture. It is caused by damage to the developing brain, which can lead to difficulties in speech, hand functions, and other motor skills.