KCET 2026 Chemistry Question Paper is available for download here. KEA conducted KCET 2026 Chemistry exam on April 23 in Shift 2 from 2.30 PM to 3.50 PM.

Also Check: Expected KCET Marks vs Rank for April 23 Chemistry Exam

  • KCET Chemistry Question Paper consists of 60 questions to be attempted in 80 minutes.
  • Each correct answer will get you 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Candidates can download KCET 2026 Chemistry Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below. Based on initial student reaction, KCET 2026 Chemistry Paper was of moderate difficulty and included tricky questions.

KCET 2026 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF

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KCET 2026 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

R-CH\(_2\)OH is converted into R-CHO by reacting with \rule{5cm{0.1mm.

  • (A) Alkaline KMnO\(_4\)
  • (B) LiAlH\(_4\)
  • (C) Na/C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH
  • (D) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)

Question 2:

Glycerol is a trihydric alcohol. It contains \rule{5cm}{0.1mm}.

  • (A) One primary, one secondary and one tertiary alcoholic groups
  • (B) Two primary and one secondary alcoholic groups
  • (C) Two secondary and one primary alcoholic groups
  • (D) One primary and two tertiary alcoholic groups

Question 3:

The correct IUPAC name of CH\(_3\) - C(CH\(_3\))\(_{2}\) - O - C\(_2\)H\(_5\) is

  • (A) Tertiary butoxy ethane
  • (B) 1, 1-Dimethyl-1-ethoxyethane
  • (C) 2-ethoxy-2-methyl propane
  • (D) Ethoxy tertiary butane

Question 4:

C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\) \(\xrightarrow{i) (BH_3)_2, ii) H_2O_2/NaOH}\) P \(\xrightarrow{CrO_3, anhydrous medium}\) Q \(\xrightarrow{i) CH_3MgBr, ii) H_3O^+}\) R + Mg(OH)Br

The organic compounds P, Q and R are

  • (A) P = CH\(_3\)-CH(OH)-CH\(_2\)-CH\(_3\), Q = CH\(_3\)-C(=O)-CH\(_3\), R = CH\(_3\)-C(OH)(CH\(_3\))-CH\(_2\)-CH\(_3\)
  • (B) P = CH\(_3\)-CH\(_2\)-CH\(_2\)-OH, Q = CH\(_3\)-CH\(_2\)-CHO, R = CH\(_3\)-CH\(_2\)-CH(OH)-CH\(_3\)
  • (C) P = CH\(_3\)-CH\(_2\)-CH\(_2\)-OH, Q = CH\(_3\)-CH\(_2\)-COOH, R = CH\(_3\)-CH\(_2\)-C(=O)-OCH\(_3\)
  • (D) P = CH\(_3\)-CH(OH)-CH\(_3\), Q = CH\(_3\)-C(=O)-CH\(_3\), R = CH\(_3\)-CH(OCH\(_3\))-CH\(_3\)

Question 5:

Match the reagents in List - I with products obtained from their carbonyl compounds in List - II.

List - I List - II
(a) NH2OH (i) Cyanohydrin
(b) R-NH2 (ii) Oxime
(c) R-OH (iii) Schiff base
(d) H-C≡N (iv) Acetal
  • (A) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
  • (B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
  • (C) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
  • (D) a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv

Question 6:

The major product 'A' in the given reaction is

Benzaldehyde + Acetophenone \(\xrightarrow{OH^- / 293K}\) 'A' (Major product)








  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 7:

Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols because

  • (A) Formation of dimers
  • (B) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
  • (C) More covalent nature
  • (D) More resonance stabilisation of their conjugate base

Question 8:

The compound that does not answer iodoform test is

  • (A) Ethanal
  • (B) Acetone
  • (C) Ethanoic acid
  • (D) Acetophenone

Question 9:

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium gives significant amount of m-nitroaniline because

  • (A) In electrophilic substitution reaction, amino group is meta directing
  • (B) In strong acidic medium, aniline is present as anilinium ion
  • (C) -NH\(_2\) group always directs to meta position
  • (D) m-nitroaniline has higher molar mass than o\&p nitroanilines

Question 10:

Basic strength of alkylamines in aqueous phase is not decided by

  • (A) Inductive effect
  • (B) Solvation effect
  • (C) Steric hindrance
  • (D) Hyperconjugation effect

Question 11:

The reaction sequence is: Benzene \(\xrightarrow{Conc.HNO_3, Conc.H_2SO_4, 323-333K}\) A \(\xrightarrow{Fe/HCl}\) B \(\xrightarrow{NaNO_2/HCl, 273K}\) C \(\xrightarrow{C_2H_5OH}\) Benzene + D + HCl + N\(_2\). Organic compound 'D' is

  • (A) Phenol (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)OH)
  • (B) Acetic acid (CH\(_3\)COOH)
  • (C) Ethanal (CH\(_3\)CHO)
  • (D) N-ethylaniline (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)NH-C\(_2\)H\(_5\))

Question 12:

Statement I: Staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than the eclipsed conformation.

Statement II: The torsional strain in staggered conformation is more.

Read the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 13:

From the given information, select the suitable law of chemical combination:

Cupric Carbonate % of Cu % of C % of O
Natural Sample 51.35 9.74 38.91
Synthetic Sample 51.35 9.74 38.91

Select the correct option:

  • (A) Law of Multiple Proportions
  • (B) Gay Lussac's Law of Gaseous Volumes
  • (C) Law of Definite Proportions
  • (D) Law of Conservation of Mass

Question 14:

Match List - I with List – II and select the correct option (Based on mole concept):

List - I List - II
(a) 2 moles of ethene (i) 11.2 L volume at STP
(b) Molar mass is equal to 66 g (ii) 56 g
(c) 1 g of H2 (iii) 12.04 × 1023 molecules
(d) 2 moles of water vapours (iv) 1.5 mole of CO2

Codes:

  • (A) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
  • (B) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
  • (C) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
  • (D) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv

Question 15:

Match List – I with List – II:

List - I (Element - Atomic number) List - II (Position in periodic table)
(a) Ra - 88 (i) 4th period, 13th group
(b) Ga - 31 (ii) 6th period, 6th group
(c) W - 74 (iii) 5th period, 10th group
(d) Pd - 46 (iv) 7th period, 2nd group

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
  • (B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
  • (C) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
  • (D) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii

Question 16:

The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO\(_2\)\(^+\), NO\(_3\)\(^-\), and NH\(_4\)\(^+\) respectively are

  • (A) sp, sp\(^2\) and sp\(^3\)
  • (B) sp, sp\(^3\) and sp\(^2\)
  • (C) sp\(^2\), sp and sp\(^3\)
  • (D) sp\(^2\), sp\(^3\) and sp

Question 17:

In which of the following option/options, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

(a) BF\(_3\) > NF\(_3\) > NH\(_3\) (Dipole moment)

(b) HgCl\(_2\) > NH\(_4\)\(^+\) > SF\(_4\) (Bond angle)

(c) NH\(_3\) < H\(_2\)O < HF (Strength of intermolecular hydrogen bonding)

(d) H - I > H - Br > H – Cl (Bond length)

  • (A) a, b and c
  • (B) a only
  • (C) c and d only
  • (D) d only

Question 18:

With respect to resonance structures of CO\(_3\)\(^{2-}\) ion, which of the following statements are correct?

(a) All C-O bonds in CO\(_3\)\(^{2-}\) are equivalent

(b) There are three resonance structures possible for CO\(_3\)\(^{2-}\) ion

(c) The position of carbon and oxygen should change in every resonance structure

(d) The formal charge on carbon atom is -2

  • (A) a, b and c
  • (B) a and b only
  • (C) b and d only
  • (D) a, b and d

Question 19:

Given below are two statements.

Statement I : In H\(_2\)O\(_2\), each oxygen atom is assigned an oxidation number of -1, In RbO\(_2\), each oxygen atom is assigned an oxidation number of - \(\frac{1}{2}\).

Statement II : Representation of HAuCl\(_4\) and MnO\(_2\) in stock notation is HAu(III)Cl\(_4\) and Mn(II)O\(_2\), respectively.

Examine the above statements and choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 20:

a C\(_2\)O\(_4\)\(^{2-}\) + b MnO\(_4\)\(^{-}\) + c H\(^+\) \(\rightarrow\) x Mn\(^{2+}\) + y H\(_2\)O + z CO\(_2\)

a and x respectively are

  • (A) 5, 2
  • (B) 4, 1
  • (C) 3, 2
  • (D) 4, 2

Question 21:

Which of the following will not act as an oxidising agent?

  • (A) \( CrO_3 \)
  • (B) \( MoO_3 \)
  • (C) \( CrO_4^{2-} \)
  • (D) \( Cr_2O_7^{2-} \)

Question 22:

The highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is +4 (MnF\(_4\)), but the highest oxidation state in oxides is +7 (Mn\(_2\)O\(_7\)), because

  • (A) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen
  • (B) Fluorine possesses d-orbitals
  • (C) Fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state
  • (D) In covalent compounds, fluorine can form single bond only, while oxygen forms double bond

Question 23:

The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr\(^{2+}\) ion is

  • (A) 3.87 BM
  • (B) 4.90 BM
  • (C) 5.92 BM
  • (D) 2.84 BM

Question 24:

Which of the following is the most stable complex?

  • (A) [Fe(CO)\(_5\)]
  • (B) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{4-}\)
  • (C) [Fe(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (D) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)

Question 25:

How many ions per molecule are produced from the complex [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]Cl\(_3\) in solution?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 26:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The M – C \(\sigma\) bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a vacant d-orbital of the metal

Statement II: The M – C \(\pi\) bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from a filled d-orbital of metal into the vacant antibonding \(\pi\)* orbital of carbon monoxide.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 27:

Match List - I with List - II:

List - I (Complex) List - II (Geometry)
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (i) Trigonal bipyramidal
(b) [NiCl4]2− (ii) Octahedral
(c) [Ni(CN)4]2− (iii) Tetrahedral
(d) [Fe(CO)5] (iv) Square planar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) a - ii, b – iii, c – iv, d - i
  • (B) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d – iv
  • (C) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
  • (D) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii

Question 28:

Match List - I with List – II:

List - I (Vitamins) List - II (Deficiency Diseases)
(a) B1 (i) Convulsions
(b) B2 (ii) RBC deficiency in haemoglobin
(c) B6 (iii) Retarded growth
(d) B12 (iv) Burning sensation of the skin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
  • (B) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
  • (C) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
  • (D) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

Question 29:

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.

Statement II: Sucrose can reduce ammoniacal silver nitrate solution.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 30:

Incorrect statement about \(\alpha\)-amino acids of proteins among the following is

  • (A) Methionine is an essential amino acid
  • (B) Glycine doesn't exhibit enantiomerism
  • (C) Glycylalanylglutamine has three amide linkages
  • (D) Zwitterion of valine exhibits amphoteric behaviour

Question 31:

Match List I with List II and select the correct option:

List - I (Functional group) List - II (Functional group reagent)
(a) Secondary Alcohol (i) Neutral ferric chloride test
(b) C6H5NH2 (Aniline) (ii) Azo dye test
(c) CH3CH2CHO (Propanal) (iii) Ceric ammonium nitrate test
(d) Phenol (iv) Tollen's reagent test

Codes:

  • (A) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
  • (B) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
  • (C) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
  • (D) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d - i

Question 32:

When salt BA is treated with Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\), reddish brown gas is liberated. The aqueous solution of BA gives pale yellow precipitate with AgNO\(_3\) solution. Which of the following anion(A) is present in the salt BA?

  • (A) Cl\(^-\)
  • (B) CO\(_3\)\(^{2-}\)
  • (C) SO\(_4\)\(^{2-}\)
  • (D) Br\(^-\)

Question 33:

Which of the following represents de Broglie equation?

  • (A) \(\lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{mv}}\)
  • (B) \(\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}\)
  • (C) \(\lambda = \frac{h}{mp}\)
  • (D) \(\lambda = \frac{\mu}{p}\)

Question 34:

Which of the following is the CORRECT statement about \(\Psi^2\)?

  • (A) \(\Psi^2\) represents atomic orbit
  • (B) Probability density of the electron at that point
  • (C) \(\Psi^2 \neq 0\) for nodes
  • (D) \(\Psi^2\) has no physical meaning

Question 35:

A: Entropy of a perfect crystalline solid at absolute zero approaches zero.

B: For spontaneity of a reaction, T\(\Delta\)S > \(\Delta\)H.

Among the two statements given above, identify the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both 'A' and 'B' are true
  • (B) 'A' is true but 'B' is false
  • (C) Both 'A' and 'B' are false
  • (D) 'A' is false but 'B' is true

Question 36:

Which of the following is a correct statement for a thermodynamic system?

  • (A) The internal energy changes in all processes
  • (B) Internal energy and entropy are state functions
  • (C) Work is a state function
  • (D) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero

Question 37:

A gas can be taken from A to B via two different paths ACB and ADB.



When path ACB is used, 60J of heat flows into the system and 30J of work is done by the system. If path ADB is used, work done by the system is 10J. The heat flow into the system in path ADB is

  • (A) 80J
  • (B) 20J
  • (C) 100J
  • (D) 40J

Question 38:

For the reversible reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). When the partial pressure is measured in atmosphere, the value of Kp at 500°C is 1.44 × 10-5. The value of Kc when concentration is expressed in mol L-1 is:

  • (A) 1.44 × 10-5 / (0.082 × 500)-2
  • (B) 1.44 × 10-5 / (8.314 × 773)-2
  • (C) 1.44 × 10-5 / (0.082 × 773)2
  • (D) 1.44 × 10-5 / (0.082 × 773)-2

Question 39:

For the reaction: 3A(g) + B(g) ⇌ A3B(g) (ΔH = -q kJ), the amount of product A3B is affected by:

  • (A) Temperature alone
  • (B) Pressure alone
  • (C) Both temperature and pressure
  • (D) Temperature, pressure and catalyst

Question 40:

A 0.15 mole of pyridinium chloride has been added to 500 cm\(^3\) of 0.2M pyridine solution (a base). Assuming there is no change in volume upon mixing, the pH of the resulting solution is

(Note: K\(_b\) for pyridine is 1.5 \(\times\) 10\(^{-9}\))

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 8

Question 41:

Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to the property mentioned against it?

  • (A) Osmotic pressure at 298K : 0.1M NaCl solution < 0.1M Urea solution
  • (B) Concentration of NaCl in the solution : 2ppm > 2M
  • (C) \(\Delta\)T\(_b\) : 0.02M Urea solution > 0.02M NaCl solution
  • (D) Vapour pressure at 298K : Salt water < Pure water

Question 42:

Match List - I (Laws) with the List - II (Mathematical expressions):

List - I List - II
(a) Henry's law (i) P1 = x1P10
(b) Raoult's law (ii) p = KHx
(c) First law of thermodynamics (iii) Λ0m = ν+λ0+ + ν-λ0-
(d) Kohlrausch's law (iv) ΔU = q + w

Codes:

  • (A) a - i, b – ii, c - iii, d - iv
  • (B) a - ii, b – i, c - iii, d - iv
  • (C) a - ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
  • (D) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d - iii

Question 43:

When 0.0106 mole of acetic acid was dissolved in 1 kg of water, the freezing point depression for this strength of acid was 0.0205 K. If the calculated freezing point depression is 0.0197 K, Van't Hoff factor (i) and degree of dissociation of acetic acid respectively are

  • (A) 0.041 and 1.041
  • (B) 1.041 and 0.1041
  • (C) 0.041 and 0.041
  • (D) 1.041 and 0.041

Question 44:

The relative lowering of vapour pressure produced by dissolving 18 g of urea (Molar mass = 60 g mol\(^{-1}\)) in 100 g of water is

  • (A) 0.025
  • (B) 0.5
  • (C) 0.05
  • (D) 0.25

Question 45:

During the electrolysis of acidified water, 16 g of O2 gas is formed at anode. The volume of H2 gas liberated at cathode under STP conditions is:

  • (A) 22.4 L
  • (B) 11.2 L
  • (C) 2.24 L
  • (D) 1.12 L

Question 46:

\(\Lambda^o_m\)(NH\(_4\)OH) is equal to

  • (A) \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NH\(_4\)OH) + \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NH\(_4\)Cl) - \(\Lambda^o_m\)(HCl)
  • (B) \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NH\(_4\)Cl) + \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NaOH) - \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NaCl)
  • (C) \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NH\(_4\)Cl) + \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NaCl) - \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NaOH)
  • (D) \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NaOH) + \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NaCl) - \(\Lambda^o_m\)(NH\(_4\)Cl)

Question 47:

Given below are the half-cell reactions:

Mn\(^{2+}\) + 2e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Mn (E\(^\circ\) = -1.18 V)

Mn\(^{3+}\) + e\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Mn\(^{2+}\) (E\(^\circ\) = +1.51 V)

The E\(^\circ\)\(_{cell}\) for 3 Mn\(^{2+}\) \(\rightarrow\) Mn + 2Mn\(^{3+}\) will be \rule{2cm{0.1mm

  • (A) - 2.69 V, the reaction will not occur (Non-Spontaneous)
  • (B) 2.69 V, the reaction will occur (Spontaneous)
  • (C) - 0.33 V, the reaction will not occur (Non-Spontaneous)
  • (D) - 0.33 V, the reaction will occur (Spontaneous)

Question 48:

The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.021 Ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\) and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 298 K is 60 \(\Omega\). The value of cell constant (G*) is

  • (A) 3.28 cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 1.26 cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 3.34 cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 1.34 cm\(^{-1}\)

Question 49:

Which one of the following graph is not applicable for a 1st order reaction (R \(\rightarrow\) P)?

  • (A) A graph of [R] vs t with a downward sloping curve.
  • (B) A graph of ln[R] vs t with a downward sloping straight line.
  • (C) A graph of log\(_{10}\)[R] vs t with an upward sloping straight line.
  • (D) A graph of log\(_{10}\)([R]\(_0\)/[R]) vs t with an upward sloping straight line through the origin.

Question 50:

For a reaction having three steps, the overall rate constant is K = (k1 k3) / k2. The values of Ea1, Ea2, and Ea3 (activation energies) are 40, 50, and 60 kJ mol-1 respectively. The overall activation energy (Ea) is:

  • (A) 30 kJ mol-1
  • (B) 40 kJ mol-1
  • (C) 50 kJ mol-1
  • (D) 60 kJ mol-1

Question 51:

For a 1st order change R \(\rightarrow\) P, the concentration of Reactant R changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes. The rate of reaction when the concentration of R is 0.01 M is

  • (A) \( 1.73 \times 10^{-5} M min^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 3.47 \times 10^{-4} M min^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 3.47 \times 10^{-5} M min^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 1.73 \times 10^{-4} M min^{-1} \)

Question 52:

The activation energy for the reaction X \(\rightarrow\) Y is 150 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). The change in enthalpy for the above reaction is -135 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). Then the activation energy for Y \(\rightarrow\) X is

  • (A) 280 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 285 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 270 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 15 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 53:

The intermediates in heteropolar reactions are

  • (A) Free radicals only
  • (B) Cations only
  • (C) Anions only
  • (D) Both anions and cations

Question 54:

Statement I: Nitrogen in pyridine cannot be estimated by Kjeldahl's method

Statement II: Nitrogen in pyridine changes to ammonium sulphate when heated with conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) in Kjeldahl's method.

Read the above given statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.

  • (A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 55:

The number of chain isomers possible for the hydrocarbon with molecular formula \( C_5H_{12} \) is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1

Question 56:

The compound with molecular formula C\(_{20}\)H\(_{42}\) is

  • (A) Decane
  • (B) Dodecane
  • (C) Eicosane
  • (D) Hicosane

Question 57:

C-Cl bond in methyl chloride compared to C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene is

  • (A) Longer and stronger
  • (B) Shorter and stronger
  • (C) Shorter and weaker
  • (D) Longer and weaker

Question 58:

The compound from which chlorobenzene cannot be prepared easily is

  • (A) Aniline
  • (B) Benzene
  • (C) Phenol
  • (D) Benzene diazonium chloride

Question 59:

In S\(_N\)1 reaction, the alkyl halide that on hydrolysis produces racemic mixture is

  • (A) Tertiary butyl bromide
  • (B) 2-bromobutane
  • (C) Isopropyl bromide
  • (D) Methyl bromide

Question 60:

Match the compounds of List-I with their effects in List-II:

List-I List-II
(a) Chloramphenicol (i) Malaria
(b) Thyroxine (ii) Anesthetic
(c) Chloroquine (iii) Goiter
(d) Chloroform (iv) Typhoid fever

Codes:

  • (A) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
  • (B) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
  • (C) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
  • (D) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

KCET 2026 Chemistry: Expected Section-Wise Weightage

Topic Expected Weightage
Thermodynamics 8–10%
Chemical Kinetics 6–8%
Equilibrium (Chemical + Ionic) 6–8%
Electrochemistry 5–7%
Hydrocarbons 6–7%
Alcohols, Phenols, and Ethers 6–7%
Aldehydes, Ketones, Carboxylic Acids 6–8%
Coordination Compounds 5–7%
p-Block Elements 6–7%
d- and f-Block Elements 4–6%
Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry 5–6%
Environmental Chemistry 2–3%
Chemistry in Everyday Life 2–3%

KCET 2026 Chemistry Expected Questions